Last updated on March 14th, 2023 at 05:13 pm
Title 12 – Banks and Banking–Volume 2
CHAPTER II – FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM
SUBCHAPTER A – BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM
PART 200 [RESERVED]
PART 201 – EXTENSIONS OF CREDIT BY FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS (REGULATION A)
§ 201.1 Authority, purpose and scope.
(a) Authority. This part is issued under the authority of sections 10A, 10B, 11(i), 11(j), 13, 13A, 14(d), and 19 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)-(j), 343 et seq., 347a, 347b, 347c, 348 et seq., 357, 374, 374a, and 461).
(b) Purpose and scope. This part establishes rules under which a Federal Reserve Bank may extend credit to depository institutions and others. Except as otherwise provided, this part applies to United States branches and agencies of foreign banks that are subject to reserve requirements under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204) in the same manner and to the same extent as this part applies to depository institutions. The Federal Reserve System extends credit with due regard to the basic objectives of monetary policy and the maintenance of a sound and orderly financial system.
§ 201.2 Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply:
(a) Appropriate federal banking agency has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
(b) Critically undercapitalized insured depository institution means any insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) that is deemed to be critically undercapitalized under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(b)(1)(E)) and its implementing regulations.
(c)(1) Depository institution means an institution that maintains reservable transaction accounts or nonpersonal time deposits and is:
(i) An insured bank as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) or a bank that is eligible to make application to become an insured bank under section 5 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1815);
(ii) A mutual savings bank as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(f)) or a bank that is eligible to make application to become an insured bank under section 5 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1815);
(iii) A savings bank as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(g)) or a bank that is eligible to make application to become an insured bank under section 5 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1815);
(iv) An insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)) or a credit union that is eligible to make application to become an insured credit union pursuant to section 201 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1781);
(v) A member as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(4)); or
(vi) A savings association as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)) that is an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) or is eligible to apply to become an insured depository institution under section 5 of the act (12 U.S.C. 15(a)).
(2) The term depository institution does not include a financial institution that is not required to maintain reserves under § 204.1(c)(4) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.1(c)(4)) because it is organized solely to do business with other financial institutions, is owned primarily by the financial institutions with which it does business, and does not do business with the general public.
(d) Transaction account and nonpersonal time deposit have the meanings specified in Regulation D (12 CFR part 204).
(e) Undercapitalized insured depository institution means any insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) that:
(1) Is not a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution; and
(2)(i) Is deemed to be undercapitalized under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(b)(1)(C)) and its implementing regulations; or
(ii) Has received from its appropriate federal banking agency a composite CAMELS rating of 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or an equivalent rating by its appropriate federal banking agency under a comparable rating system) as of the most recent examination of such institution.
(f) Viable, with respect to a depository institution, means that the Board of Governors or the appropriate federal banking agency has determined, giving due regard to the economic conditions and circumstances in the market in which the institution operates, that the institution is not critically undercapitalized, is not expected to become critically undercapitalized, and is not expected to be placed in conservatorship or receivership. Although there are a number of criteria that may be used to determine viability, the Board of Governors believes that ordinarily an undercapitalized insured depository institution is viable if the appropriate federal banking agency has accepted a capital restoration plan for the depository institution under 12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(2) and the depository institution is complying with that plan.
§ 201.3 Extensions of credit generally.
(a) Advances to and discounts for a depository institution. (1) A Federal Reserve Bank may lend to a depository institution either by making an advance secured by acceptable collateral under § 201.4 of this part or by discounting certain types of paper. A Federal Reserve Bank generally extends credit by making an advance.
(2) An advance to a depository institution must be secured to the satisfaction of the Federal Reserve Bank that makes the advance. Satisfactory collateral generally includes United States government and federal-agency securities, and, if of acceptable quality, mortgage notes covering one-to four-family residences, state and local government securities, and business, consumer, and other customer notes.
(3) If a Federal Reserve Bank concludes that a discount would meet the needs of a depository institution or an institution described in section 13A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 349) more effectively, the Reserve Bank may discount any paper indorsed by the institution, provided the paper meets the requirements specified in the Federal Reserve Act.
(b) No obligation to make advances or discounts. This section does not entitle any person or entity to obtain any credit or any increase, renewal or extension of maturity of any credit from a Federal Reserve Bank.
(c) Information requirements. (1) Before extending credit to a depository institution, a Federal Reserve Bank should determine if the institution is an undercapitalized insured depository institution or a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution and, if so, follow the lending procedures specified in § 201.5.
(2) Each Federal Reserve Bank shall require any information it believes appropriate or desirable to ensure that assets tendered as collateral for advances or for discount are acceptable and that the borrower uses the credit provided in a manner consistent with this part.
(3) Each Federal Reserve Bank shall:
(i) Keep itself informed of the general character and amount of the loans and investments of a depository institution as provided in section 4(8) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 301); and
(ii) Consider such information in determining whether to extend credit.
(d) Indirect credit for others. Except for depository institutions that receive primary credit as described in § 201.4(a), no depository institution shall act as the medium or agent of another depository institution in receiving Federal Reserve credit except with the permission of the Federal Reserve Bank extending credit.
§ 201.4 Availability and terms of credit.
(a) Primary credit. A Federal Reserve Bank may extend primary credit on a very short-term basis, usually overnight, as a backup source of funding to a depository institution that is in generally sound financial condition in the judgment of the Reserve Bank. Such primary credit ordinarily is extended with minimal administrative burden on the borrower. A Federal Reserve Bank also may extend primary credit with maturities up to a few weeks as a backup source of funding to a depository institution if, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank, the depository institution is in generally sound financial condition and cannot obtain such credit in the market on reasonable terms. Credit extended under the primary credit program is granted at the primary credit rate.
(b) Secondary credit. A Federal Reserve Bank may extend secondary credit on a very short-term basis, usually overnight, as a backup source of funding to a depository institution that is not eligible for primary credit if, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank, such a credit extension would be consistent with a timely return to a reliance on market funding sources. A Federal Reserve Bank also may extend longer-term secondary credit if the Reserve Bank determines that such credit would facilitate the orderly resolution of serious financial difficulties of a depository institution. Credit extended under the secondary credit program is granted at a rate above the primary credit rate.
(c) Seasonal credit. A Federal Reserve Bank may extend seasonal credit for periods longer than those permitted under primary credit to assist a smaller depository institution in meeting regular needs for funds arising from expected patterns of movement in its deposits and loans. An interest rate that varies with the level of short-term market interest rates is applied to seasonal credit.
(1) A Federal Reserve Bank may extend seasonal credit only if:
(i) The depository institution’s seasonal needs exceed a threshold that the institution is expected to meet from other sources of liquidity (this threshold is calculated as a certain percentage, established by the Board of Governors, of the institution’s average total deposits in the preceding calendar year); and
(ii) The Federal Reserve Bank is satisfied that the institution’s qualifying need for funds is seasonal and will persist for at least four weeks.
(2) The Board may establish special terms for seasonal credit when depository institutions are experiencing unusual seasonal demands for credit in a period of liquidity strain.
(d) Emergency credit for others – (1) Authorization to extend credit. In unusual and exigent circumstances, the Board, by the affirmative vote of not less than five members,
(2) Approval of the Secretary of the Treasury. A program or facility may not be established under this paragraph (d) without obtaining the prior approval of the Secretary of the Treasury.
(3) Disclosure of justification and terms. As soon as is reasonably practicable, and no later than 7 days after a program or facility is authorized under this paragraph (d), the Board and the authorized Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Reserve Banks, as appropriate, will make publicly available a description of the program or facility, a description of the market or sector of the financial system to which the program or facility is intended to provide liquidity, a description of the unusual and exigent circumstances that exist, the intended effect of the program or facility, and the terms and conditions for participation in the program or facility. In addition, within the same 7-day period, the Board will provide a copy of this information to the Committee on Banking, Housing and Urban Affairs of the U.S. Senate and the Committee on Financial Services of the U.S. House of Representatives.
(4) Broad-based eligibility. (i) A program or facility established under this paragraph (d) must have broad-based eligibility in accordance with terms established by the Board.
(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a program or facility has broad-based eligibility only if the program or facility is designed to provide liquidity to an identifiable market or sector of the financial system;
(iii) A program or facility will not be considered to have broad-based eligibility for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
(A) The program or facility is designed for the purpose of assisting one or more specific companies avoid bankruptcy, resolution under Title II of Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 12 U.S.C. 5381 et seq.), or any other Federal or State insolvency proceeding, including by removing assets from the balance sheet of one or more such company;
(B) The program or facility is designed for the purpose of aiding one or more failing financial companies; or
(C) Fewer than five persons or entities would be eligible to participate in the program or facility.
(iv) A Federal Reserve Bank may extend credit through a program or facility with broad-based eligibility established under this paragraph (d) through such mechanism or vehicle as the Board determines would facilitate the extension of such credit.
(5) Insolvency. (i) A Federal Reserve Bank may not extend credit through a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) to any person or entity that is insolvent or to any person or entity that is borrowing for the purpose of lending the proceeds of the loan to a person or entity that is insolvent.
(ii) Before extending credit through a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) to any person or entity, the Federal Reserve Bank must obtain evidence that the person or entity is not insolvent.
(iii) A person or entity is “insolvent” for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
(A) The person or entity is in bankruptcy, resolution under Title II of Public Law 111-203 (12 U.S.C. 5381 et seq.) or any other Federal or State insolvency proceeding;
(B) The person or entity is generally not paying its undisputed debts as they become due during the 90 days preceding the date of borrowing under the program or facility; or
(C) The Board or Federal Reserve Bank otherwise determines that the person or entity is insolvent.
(iv) For purposes of meeting the requirements of this paragraph (d)(5), the Board or Federal Reserve Bank, as relevant, may rely on:
(A) A written certification from the person or from the chief executive officer or other authorized officer of the entity, at the time the person or entity initially borrows under the program or facility, that the person or entity is not in bankruptcy, resolution under Title II of Public Law 111-203 (12 U.S.C. 5381 et seq.) or any other Federal or State insolvency proceeding, and has not failed to generally pay its undisputed debts as they become due during the 90 days preceding the date of borrowing under the program or facility;
(B) Recent audited financial statements of the person or entity; or
(C) Other information that the Board or the Federal Reserve Bank may determine to be relevant.
(v) A person or officer (or successor of either) that submits a written certification under this subparagraph must immediately notify the lending Federal Reserve Bank if the information in the certification changes.
(vi) Upon a finding by the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank that a participant, including a participant that has provided a certification under this paragraph (d)(5), is or has become insolvent, that participant is not eligible for any new extension of credit from a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) until such time as the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank determines that such participant is no longer insolvent.
(vii) If a participant or person has provided a certification under this paragraph (d)(5) or paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section that includes a knowing material misrepresentation in the certification, all extensions of credit made pursuant to this paragraph (d) that are outstanding to the relevant participant shall become immediately due and payable, and all accrued interest, fees and penalties shall become immediately due and payable. The Board or the lending Federal Reserve Bank will also refer the matter to the relevant law enforcement authorities for investigation and action in accordance with applicable criminal and civil law.
(6) Indorsement or other security. (i) All credit extended under a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) must be indorsed or otherwise secured, in each case, to the satisfaction of the lending Federal Reserve Bank.
(ii) In determining whether an extension of credit under any program or facility established under this paragraph (d) is secured to its satisfaction, a Federal Reserve Bank must, prior to or at the time the credit is initially extended, assign a lendable value to all collateral for the program or facility, consistent with sound risk management practices and to ensure protection for the taxpayer.
(7) Penalty rate and fees. (i) The Board will determine the interest rate to be charged on any credit extended through a program or facility established under this section in accordance with this paragraph (d) and the provisions of section 14, subdivision (d) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 357). The Board may determine the interest rate by auction or such other method as the Board determines in accordance with section 14, subdivision (d) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 357).
(ii) The interest rate established for credit extended through a program or facility established under this section will be set at a penalty level that:
(A) Is a premium to the market rate in normal circumstances;
(B) Affords liquidity in unusual and exigent circumstances; and
(C) Encourages repayment of the credit and discourages use of the program or facility as the unusual and exigent circumstances that motivated the program or facility recede and economic conditions normalize.
(iii) In determining the rate, the Board will consider the condition of affected markets and the financial system generally, the historical rate of interest for loans of comparable terms and maturity during normal times, the purpose of the program or facility, the risk of repayment, the collateral supporting the credit, the duration, terms and amount of the credit, and any other factor that the Board determines to be relevant to ensuring that the taxpayer is appropriately compensated for the risks associated with the credit extended under the program or facility and the purposes of this paragraph (d) are fulfilled.
(iv) In addition to the rate established and charged under this paragraph (d)(7), the Board may require the payment of any fees, penalties, charges or other consideration the Board determines to be appropriate to protect and appropriately compensate the taxpayer for the risks associated with the credit extended under the program or facility.
(8) Evidence regarding unavailability of adequate credit accommodation. (i) Each lending Federal Reserve Bank must obtain evidence that, under the prevailing circumstances, participants in a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) are unable to secure adequate credit accommodations from other banking institutions.
(ii) Evidence required under this paragraph (d)(8) may be based on economic conditions in the market or markets intended to be addressed by the program or facility, a written certification from the person or from the chief executive officer or other authorized officer of the entity at the time the person or entity initially borrows under the program or facility, or other evidence from participants or other sources.
(9) Termination of program or facility. (i) A program or facility established under this paragraph (d) shall cease extending new credit no later than one year after the date of the first extension of credit under the program or facility or the date of any extension of the program or facility by the Board under paragraph (d)(9)(ii) of this section.
(ii) A program or facility may be renewed upon the vote of not less than five members of the Board
(iii) The Board shall make the disclosures required under paragraph (d)(3) of this section to the public and the relevant congressional committees no later than 7 days after renewing a program or facility under this paragraph (d)(9).
(iv) The Board may at any time terminate a program or facility established under this paragraph (d). To ensure that the program or facility under this paragraph (d) is terminated in a timely and orderly fashion, the Board will periodically review, no less frequently than once every 6 months, the existence of unusual and exigent circumstances, the extent of usage of the program or facility, the extent to which the continuing authorization of the program or facility facilitates restoring or sustaining confidence in the identified financial markets, the ongoing need for the liquidity support provided by such program or facility, and such other factors as the Board may deem to be appropriate. The Board will terminate lending under a program or facility promptly upon finding that conditions no longer warrant the continuation of the program or facility or that continuation of the program or facility is no longer appropriate.
(v) A program or facility that has been terminated will cease extending new credit and will collect existing loans pursuant to the applicable terms and conditions.
(10) Reporting requirements. The Board will comply with the reporting requirements of 12 U.S.C. 248(s) and 12 U.S.C. 343(3)(C) pursuant to their terms.
(11) No obligation to extend credit. This paragraph (d) does not entitle any person or entity to obtain any credit or any increase, renewal or extension of maturity of any credit from a Federal Reserve Bank.
(12) Participation in programs and facilities and vendor selection. (i) Participation in any program or facility under this paragraph (d) shall not be limited or conditioned on the basis of any legally prohibited basis, such as the race, religion, color, gender, national origin, age or disability of the borrower.
(ii) The selection of any third-party vendor used in the design, marketing or implementation of any program or facility under this paragraph (d) shall be without regard to the race, religion, color, gender, national origin, age or disability of the vendor or any principal shareholder of the vendor, and, to the extent possible and consistent with law, shall involve a process designed to support equal opportunity and diversity.
(13) Short-term emergency credit secured solely by United States or agency obligations. In unusual and exigent circumstances and after consultation with the Board, a Federal Reserve Bank may extend credit under section 13(13) of the Federal Reserve Act if the collateral used to secure such credit consists solely of obligations of, or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States or an agency thereof. Prior to extending credit under this paragraph (d)(13), the Federal Reserve Bank must obtain evidence that credit is not available from other sources and failure to obtain such credit would adversely affect the economy. Credit extended under this paragraph (d)(13) may not be extended for a term exceeding 90 days, must be extended at a rate above the highest rate in effect for advances to depository institutions as determined in accordance with section 14(d) of the Federal Reserve Act, and is subject to such limitations and conditions as provided by the Board.
(e) Term auction facility. (1) A Federal Reserve Bank may make an advance to a depository institution pursuant to an auction conducted under this paragraph and at the rate specified in § 201.51(e) if, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank, the depository institution is in generally sound financial condition and is expected to remain in that condition during the term of the advance. An auction under this paragraph shall be conducted subject to such conditions, including conditions regarding the participants, size and duration of the facility, minimum bid amount, maximum bid amount, term of advance, minimum bid rate, use of proceeds, and schedule of auction dates, as the Board may establish from time to time in connection with the term auction facility. The Board may appoint one or more Reserve Banks or others to conduct the auction.
(2) Authorization for the term auction facility established by § 201.4(e)(1) shall expire on such date as set by the Board.
§ 201.5 Limitations on availability and assessments.
(a) Lending to undercapitalized insured depository institutions. A Federal Reserve Bank may make or have outstanding advances to or discounts for a depository institution that it knows to be an undercapitalized insured depository institution, only:
(1) If, in any 120-day period, advances or discounts from any Federal Reserve Bank to that depository institution are not outstanding for more than 60 days during which the institution is an undercapitalized insured depository institution; or
(2) During the 60 calendar days after the receipt of a written certification from the chairman of the Board of Governors or the head of the appropriate federal banking agency that the borrowing depository institution is viable; or
(3) After consultation with the Board of Governors. In unusual circumstances, when prior consultation with the Board is not possible, a Federal Reserve Bank should consult with the Board as soon as possible after extending credit that requires consultation under this paragraph (a)(3).
(b) Lending to critically undercapitalized insured depository institutions. A Federal Reserve Bank may make or have outstanding advances to or discounts for a depository institution that it knows to be a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution only:
(1) During the 5-day period beginning on the date the institution became a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution; or
(2) After consultation with the Board of Governors. In unusual circumstances, when prior consultation with the Board is not possible, a Federal Reserve Bank should consult with the Board as soon as possible after extending credit that requires consultation under this paragraph (b)(2).
(c) Assessments. The Board of Governors will assess the Federal Reserve Banks for any amount that the Board pays to the FDIC due to any excess loss in accordance with section 10B(b) of the Federal Reserve Act. Each Federal Reserve Bank shall be assessed that portion of the amount that the Board of Governors pays to the FDIC that is attributable to an extension of credit by that Federal Reserve Bank, up to 1 percent of its capital as reported at the beginning of the calendar year in which the assessment is made. The Board of Governors will assess all of the Federal Reserve Banks for the remainder of the amount it pays to the FDIC in the ratio that the capital of each Federal Reserve Bank bears to the total capital of all Federal Reserve Banks at the beginning of the calendar year in which the assessment is made, provided, however, that if any assessment exceeds 50 percent of the total capital and surplus of all Federal Reserve Banks, whether to distribute the excess over such 50 percent shall be made at the discretion of the Board of Governors.
§ 201.51 Interest rates applicable to credit extended by a Federal Reserve Bank.
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(a) Primary credit. The interest rate at each Federal Reserve Bank for primary credit provided to depository institutions under § 201.4(a) is 4.75 percent.
(b) Secondary credit. The interest rate at each Federal Reserve Bank for secondary credit provided to depository institutions under § 201.4(b) is 5.25 percent.
(c) Seasonal credit. The rate for seasonal credit extended to depository institutions under § 201.4(c) is a flexible rate that takes into account rates on market sources of funds.
(d) Primary credit rate in a financial emergency. (1) The primary credit rate at a Federal Reserve Bank is the target federal funds rate of the Federal Open Market Committee or, if the Federal Open Market Committee has set a target range for the federal funds rate, the rate corresponding to the top of the target range, if:
(i) In a financial emergency the Reserve Bank has established the primary credit rate at that rate; and
(ii) The Chairman of the Board of Governors (or, in the Chairman’s absence, his authorized designee) certifies that a quorum of the Board is not available to act on the Reserve Bank’s rate establishment.
(2) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a financial emergency is a significant disruption to the U.S. money markets resulting from an act of war, military or terrorist attack, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event.
(e) Term auction facility. The interest rate on advances to depository institutions made pursuant to an auction under § 201.4(e) is the rate at which all bids at that auction may be fulfilled, up to the maximum auction amount and subject to any minimum bid rate and other conditions as set by the Board.
Interpretations
§ 201.104 Eligibility of consumer loans and finance company paper.
(a) The Board of Governors has clarified and modified its position with respect to the eligibility of consumer loans and finance company paper for discount with and as collateral for advances by the reserve banks.
(b) Section 13, paragraph 2, of the Federal Reserve Act authorizes a Federal Reserve Bank, under certain conditions, to discount for member banks
* * * notes, drafts, and bills of exchange arising out of actual commercial transactions; that is, notes, drafts, and bills of exchange issued or drawn for agricultural, industrial, or commercial purposes, or the proceeds of which have been used, or are to be used, for such purposes, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to have the right to determine or define the character of the paper thus eligible for discount, within the meaning of this Act.
(c) It continues to be the opinion of the Board that borrowing for the purpose of purchasing goods is borrowing for a commercial purpose, whether the borrower intends to use the goods himself or to resell them. Hence, loans made to enable consumers to purchase automobiles or other goods should be included under commercial, agricultural, and industrial paper within the meaning of the Federal Reserve Act, and as such are eligible for discounting with the Reserve Banks and as security for advances from the Reserve Banks under section 13, paragraph 8, of the Federal Reserve Act as long as they conform to requirements with respect to maturity and other matters. This applies equally to loans made directly by banks to consumers and to paper accepted by banks from dealers or finance companies. It also applies to notes of finance companies themselves as long as the proceeds of such notes are used to finance the purchase of consumer goods or for other purposes which are eligible within the meaning of the Federal Reserve Act.
(d) If there is any question as to whether the proceeds of a note of a finance company have been or are to be used for a commercial, agricultural, or industrial purpose, a financial statement of the finance company reflecting an excess of notes receivable which appear eligible for rediscount (without regard to maturity) over total current liabilities (i.e., notes due within 1 year) may be taken as an indication of eligibility. Where information is lacking as to whether direct consumer loans by a finance company are for eligible purposes, it may be assumed that 50 percent of such loans are “notes receivable which appear eligible for rediscount”. In addition, that language should be regarded as including notes given for the purchase of mobile homes that are acquired by a finance company from a dealer-seller of such homes.
(e) The principles stated above apply not only to notes of a finance company engaged in making consumer loans but also to notes of a finance company engaged in making loans for other eligible purposes, including business and agricultural loans. Under section 13a of the Federal Reserve Act, paper representing loans to finance the production, marketing, and carrying of agricultural products or the breeding, raising, fattening, or marketing of livestock is eligible for discount if the paper has a maturity of not exceeding 9 months. Consequently, a note of a finance company the proceeds of which are used by it to make loans for such purposes is eligible for discount or as security for a Federal Reserve advance, and such a note, unlike the note of a finance company making consumer loans, may have a maturity of up to 9 months.
§ 201.107 Eligibility of demand paper for discount and as security for advances by Reserve Banks.
(a) The Board of Governors has reconsidered a ruling made in 1917 that demand notes are ineligible for discount under the provisions of the Federal Reserve Act. (1917 Federal Reserve Bulletin 378.)
(b) The basis of that ruling was the provision in the second paragraph of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act that notes, drafts, and bills of exchange must have a maturity at the time of discount of not more than 90 days, exclusive of grace. The ruling stated that
a demand note or bill is not eligible under the provisions of the act, since it is not in terms payable within the prescribed 90 days, but, at the option of the holder, may not be presented for payment until after that time.
(c) It is well settled as a matter of law, however, that demand paper is due and payable on the date of its issue. The generally accepted legal view is stated in Beutel’s Brannan on Negotiable Instruments Law, at page 305, as follows:
The words on demand serve the same purpose as words making instruments payable at a specified time. They fix maturity of the obligation and do not make demand necessary, but mean that the instrument is due, payable and matured when made and delivered.
(d) Accordingly, the Board has concluded that, since demand paper is due and payable on the date of its issue, it satisfies the maturity requirements of the statute. Demand paper which otherwise meets the eligibility requirements of the Federal Reserve Act and this part Regulation A, therefore, is eligible for discount and as security for advances by Reserve Banks.
§ 201.108 Obligations eligible as collateral for advances.
(a) Section 3(a) of Pub. L. 90-505, approved September 21, 1968, amended the eighth paragraph of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 347) to authorize advances thereunder to member banks “secured by such obligations as are eligible for purchase under section 14(b) of this Act.” The relevant part of such paragraph had previously referred only to “notes * * * eligible * * * for purchase”, which the Board had construed as not including obligations generally regarded as securities. (See 1962 Federal Reserve Bulletin 690, § 201.103(d).)
(b) Under section 14(b) direct obligations of, and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States are eligible for purchase by Reserve Banks. Such obligations include certificates issued by the trustees of Penn Central Transportation Co. that are fully guaranteed by the Secretary of Transportation. Under section 14(b) direct obligations of, and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, any agency of the United States are also eligible for purchase by Reserve Banks. Following are the principal agency obligations eligible as collateral for advances:
(1) Federal Intermediate Credit Bank debentures;
(2) Federal Home Loan Bank notes and bonds;
(3) Federal Land Bank bonds;
(4) Bank for Cooperative debentures;
(5) Federal National Mortgage Association notes, debentures and guaranteed certificates of participation;
(6) Obligations of or fully guaranteed by the Government National Mortgage Association;
(7) Merchant Marine bonds;
(8) Export-Import Bank notes and guaranteed participation certificates;
(9) Farmers Home Administration insured notes;
(10) Notes fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the Small Business Administration;
(11) Federal Housing Administration debentures;
(12) District of Columbia Armory Board bonds;
(13) Tennessee Valley Authority bonds and notes;
(14) Bonds and notes of local urban renewal or public housing agencies fully supported as to principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States pursuant to section 302 of the Housing Act of 1961 (42 U.S.C. 1421a(c), 1452(c)).
(15) Commodity Credit Corporation certificates of interest in a price-support loan pool.
(16) Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation notes, debentures, and guaranteed certificates of participation.
(17) U.S. Postal Service obligations.
(18) Participation certificates evidencing undivided interests in purchase contracts entered into by the General Services Administration.
(19) Obligations entered into by the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare under the Public Health Service Act, as amended by the Medical Facilities Construction and Modernization Amendments of 1970.
(20) Obligations guaranteed by the Overseas Private Investment Corp., pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, as amended.
(c) Nothing less than a full guarantee of principal and interest by a Federal agency will make an obligation eligible. For example, mortgage loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration are not eligible since the insurance contract is not equivalent to an unconditional guarantee and does not fully cover interest payable on the loan. Obligations of international institutions, such as the Inter-American Development Bank and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, are also not eligible, since such institutions are not agencies of the United States.
(d) Also eligible for purchase under section 14(b) are “bills, notes, revenue bonds, and warrants with a maturity from date of purchase of not exceeding 6 months, issued in anticipation of the collection of taxes or in anticipation of the receipt of assured revenues by any State, county, district, political subdivision, or municipality in the continental United States, including irrigation, drainage and reclamation districts.”
§ 201.109 Eligibility for discount of mortgage company notes.
(a) The question has arisen whether notes issued by mortgage banking companies to finance their acquisition and temporary holding of real estate mortgages are eligible for discount by Reserve Banks.
(b) Under section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act the Board has authority to define what are “agricultural, industrial, or commercial purposes”, which is the statutory criterion for determining the eligibility of notes and drafts for discount. However, such definition may not include paper “covering merely investments or issued or drawn for the purpose of carrying or trading in stocks, bonds, or other investment securities”.
(c) The legislative history of section 13 suggests that Congress intended to make eligible for discount “any paper drawn for a legitimate business purpose of any kind”
(d) In providing for the discount of commercial paper by Reserve Banks, Congress obviously intended to facilitate the current financing of agriculture, industry, and commerce, as opposed to long-term investment.
(e) Section 201.3(a) provides that a negotiable note maturing in 90 days or less is not eligible for discount if the proceeds are used “for permanent or fixed investments of any kind, such as land, buildings or machinery, or for any other fixed capital purpose”. However, the proceeds of a mortgage company’s commercial paper are not used by it for any permanent or fixed capital purpose, but only to carry temporarily an inventory of mortgage loans pending their “packaging” for sale to permanent investors that are usually recurrent customers.
(f) In view of the foregoing considerations the Board concluded that notes issued to finance such temporary “warehousing” of real estate mortgage loans are notes issued for an industrial or commercial purpose, that such mortgage loans do not constitute “investment securities”, as that term is used in section 13, and that the temporary holding of such mortgages in these circumstances is not a permanent investment by the mortgage banking company. Accordingly, the Board held that notes having not more than 90 days to run which are issued to finance the temporary holding of mortgage loans are eligible for discount by Reserve Banks.
§ 201.110 Goods held by persons employed by owner.
(a) The Board has been asked to review an Interpretation it issued in 1933 concerning the eligibility for rediscount by a Federal Reserve Bank of bankers’ acceptances issued against field warehouse receipts where the custodian of the goods is a present or former employee of the borrower. [¶ 1445 Published Interpretations, 1933 BULLETIN 188] The Board determined at that time that the acceptances were not eligible because such receipts do not comply with the requirement of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act that a banker’s acceptance be “secured at the time of acceptance by a warehouse receipt or other such document conveying or securing title covering readily marketable staples,” nor with the requirement of section XI of the Board’s Regulation A that it be “secured at the time of acceptance by a warehouse, terminal, or other similar receipt, conveying security title to such staples, issued by a party independent of the customer.”
(b) While bankers’ acceptances secured by field warehouse receipts are rarely offered for rediscount or as collateral for an advance, the issue of “eligibility” is still significant. If an ineligible acceptance is discounted and then sold by a member bank, the proceeds are deemed to be “deposits” under § 204.1(f) of Regulation D and are subject to reserve requirements.
(c) In reviewing this matter, the Board has taken into consideration the changes that have occurred in commercial law and practice since 1933. Modern commercial law, embodied in the Uniform Commercial Code, refers to “perfecting security interests” rather than “securing title” to goods. The Board believes that if, under State law, the issuance of a field warehouse receipt provides the lender with a perfected security interest in the goods, the receipt should be regarded as a document “securing title” to goods for the purposes of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act. It should be noted, however, that the mere existence of a perfected security interest alone is not sufficient; the Act requires that the acceptance be secured by a warehouse receipt or its equivalent.
(d) Under the U.C.C., evidence of an agreement between the secured party and the debtor must exist before a security interest can attach. [U.C.C. section 9-202.] This agreement may be evidence by: (1) A written security agreement signed by the debtor, or (2) the collateral being placed in the possession of the secured party or his agent [U.C.C. section 9-203]. Generally, a security interest is perfected by the filing of a financing statement, [U.C.C. section 9-302.] However, if the collateral is in the possession of a bailee, then perfection can be achieved by:
(1) Having warehouse receipts issued in the name of the secured party; (2) notifying the bailee of the secured party’s interest; or (3) having a financing statement filed. [U.C.C. section 9-304(3).]
(e) If the field warehousing operation is properly conducted, a security interest in the goods is perfected when a warehouse receipt is issued in the name of the secured party (the lending bank). Therefore, warehouse receipts issued pursuant to a bona fide field warehousing operation satisfy the legal requirements of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act. Moreover, in a properly conducted field warehousing operation, the warehouse manager will be trained, bonded, supervised and audited by the field warehousing company. This procedure tends to insure that he will not be impermissibly controlled by his former (or sometimes present) employer, the borrower, even though he may look to the borrower for reemployment at some future time. A prudent lender will, of course, carefully review the field warehousing operation to ensure that stated procedures are satisfactory and that they are actually being followed. The lender may also wish to review the field warehousing company’s fidelity bonds and legal liability insurance policies to ensure that they provide satisfactory protection to the lender.
(f) If the warehousing operation is not conducted properly, however, and the manager remains under the control of the borrower, the security interest may be lost. Consequently, the lender may wish to require a written security agreement and the filing of a financing statement to insure that the lender will have a perfected security interest even if it is later determined that the field warehousing operation was not properly conducted. It should be noted however, that the Federal Reserve Act clearly requires that the bankers’ acceptance be secured by a warehouse receipt in order to satisfy the requirements of eligibility, and a written security agreement and a filed financing statement, while desirable, cannot serve as a substitute for a warehouse receipt.
(g) This Interpretation is based on facts that have been presented in regard to field warehousing operations conducted by established, professional field warehouse companies, and it does not necessarily apply to all field warehousing operations. Thus ¶ 1430 and ¶ 1440 of the Published Interpretations [1918 BULLETIN 31 and 1918 BULLETIN 862] maintain their validity with regard to corporations formed for the purpose of conducting limited field warehousing operations. Furthermore, the prohibition contained in ¶ 1435 Published Interpretations [1918 BULLETIN 634] that “the borrower shall not have access to the premises and shall exercise no control over the goods stored” retains its validity, except that access for inspection purposes is still permitted under ¶ 1450 [1926 BULLETIN 666]. The purpose for the acceptance transaction must be proper and cannot be for speculation [¶ 1400, 1919 BULLETIN 858] or for the purpose of furnishing working capital [¶ 1405, 1922 BULLETIN 52].
(h) This interpretation supersedes only the previous ¶ 1445 of the Published Interpretations [1933 BULLETIN 188], and is not intended to affect any other Board Interpretation regarding field warehousing.
PART 202 – EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT (REGULATION B)
§ 202.1 Authority, scope and purpose.
(a) Authority and scope. This regulation is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.). Except as otherwise provided herein, this regulation applies to all persons who are creditors, as defined in § 202.2(1). Information collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0201.
(b) Purpose. The purpose of this regulation is to promote the availability of credit to all creditworthy applicants without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract); to the fact that all or part of the applicant’s income derives from a public assistance program; or to the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The regulation prohibits creditor practices that discriminate on the basis of any of these factors. The regulation also requires creditors to notify applicants of action taken on their applications; to report credit history in the names of both spouses on an account; to retain records of credit applications; to collect information about the applicant’s race and other personal characteristics in applications for certain dwelling-related loans; and to provide applicants with copies of appraisal reports used in connection with credit transactions.
§ 202.2 Definitions.
For the purposes of this regulation, unless the context indicates otherwise, the following definitions apply.
(a) Account means an extension of credit. When employed in relation to an account, the word use refers only to open-end credit.
(b) Act means the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (title VII of the Consumer Credit Protection Act).
(c) Adverse action. (1) The term means:
(i) A refusal to grant credit in substantially the amount or on substantially the terms requested in an application unless the creditor makes a counteroffer (to grant credit in a different amount or on other terms) and the applicant uses or expressly accepts the credit offered;
(ii) A termination of an account or an unfavorable change in the terms of an account that does not affect all or substantially all of a class of the creditor’s accounts; or
(iii) A refusal to increase the amount of credit available to an applicant who has made an application for an increase.
(2) The term does not include:
(i) A change in the terms of an account expressly agreed to by an applicant.
(ii) Any action or forbearance relating to an account taken in connection with inactivity, default, or delinquency as to that account;
(iii) A refusal or failure to authorize an account transaction at point of sale or loan, except when the refusal is a termination or an unfavorable change in the terms of an account that does not affect all or substantially all of a class of the creditor’s accounts, or when the refusal is a denial of an application for an increase in the amount of credit available under the account;
(iv) A refusal to extend credit because applicable law prohibits the creditor from extending the credit requested; or
(v) A refusal to extend credit because the creditor does not offer the type of credit or credit plan requested.
(3) An action that falls within the definition of both paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section is governed by paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(d) Age refers only to the age of natural persons and means the number of fully elapsed years from the date of an applicant’s birth.
(e) Applicant means any person who requests or who has received an extension of credit from a creditor, and includes any person who is or may become contractually liable regarding an extension of credit. For purposes of § 202.7(d), the term includes guarantors, sureties, endorsers, and similar parties.
(f) Application means an oral or written request for an extension of credit that is made in accordance with procedures used by a creditor for the type of credit requested. The term application does not include the use of an account or line of credit to obtain an amount of credit that is within a previously established credit limit. A completed application means an application in connection with which a creditor has received all the information that the creditor regularly obtains and considers in evaluating applications for the amount and type of credit requested (including, but not limited to, credit reports, any additional information requested from the applicant, and any approvals or reports by governmental agencies or other persons that are necessary to guarantee, insure, or provide security for the credit or collateral). The creditor shall exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining such information.
(g) Business credit refers to extensions of credit primarily for business or commercial (including agricultural) purposes, but excluding extensions of credit of the types described in § 202.3(a)-(d).
(h) Consumer credit means credit extended to a natural person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
(i) Contractually liable means expressly obligated to repay all debts arising on an account by reason of an agreement to that effect.
(j) Credit means the right granted by a creditor to an applicant to defer payment of a debt, incur debt and defer its payment, or purchase property or services and defer payment therefor.
(k) Credit card means any card, plate, coupon book, or other single credit device that may be used from time to time to obtain money, property, or services on credit.
(l) Creditor means a person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly participates in a credit decision, including setting the terms of the credit. The term creditor includes a creditor’s assignee, transferee, or subrogee who so participates. For purposes of § 202.4(a) and (b), the term creditor also includes a person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly refers applicants or prospective applicants to creditors, or selects or offers to select creditors to whom requests for credit may be made. A person is not a creditor regarding any violation of the Act or this regulation committed by another creditor unless the person knew or had reasonable notice of the act, policy, or practice that constituted the violation before becoming involved in the credit transaction. The term does not include a person whose only participation in a credit transaction involves honoring a credit card.
(m) Credit transaction means every aspect of an applicant’s dealings with a creditor regarding an application for credit or an existing extension of credit (including, but not limited to, information requirements; investigation procedures; standards of creditworthiness; terms of credit; furnishing of credit information; revocation, alteration, or termination of credit; and collection procedures).
(n) Discriminate against an applicant means to treat an applicant less favorably than other applicants.
(o) Elderly means age 62 or older.
(p) Empirically derived and other credit scoring systems – (1) A credit scoring system is a system that evaluates an applicant’s creditworthiness mechanically, based on key attributes of the applicant and aspects of the transaction, and that determines, alone or in conjunction with an evaluation of additional information about the applicant, whether an applicant is deemed creditworthy. To qualify as an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system, the system must be:
(i) Based on data that are derived from an empirical comparison of sample groups or the population of creditworthy and noncreditworthy applicants who applied for credit within a reasonable preceding period of time;
(ii) Developed for the purpose of evaluating the creditworthiness of applicants with respect to the legitimate business interests of the creditor utilizing the system (including, but not limited to, minimizing bad debt losses and operating expenses in accordance with the creditor’s business judgment);
(iii) Developed and validated using accepted statistical principles and methodology; and
(iv) Periodically revalidated by the use of appropriate statistical principles and methodology and adjusted as necessary to maintain predictive ability.
(2) A creditor may use an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system obtained from another person or may obtain credit experience from which to develop such a system. Any such system must satisfy the criteria set forth in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section; if the creditor is unable during the development process to validate the system based on its own credit experience in accordance with paragraph (p)(1) of this section, the system must be validated when sufficient credit experience becomes available. A system that fails this validity test is no longer an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system for that creditor.
(q) Extend credit and extension of credit mean the granting of credit in any form (including, but not limited to, credit granted in addition to any existing credit or credit limit; credit granted pursuant to an open-end credit plan; the refinancing or other renewal of credit, including the issuance of a new credit card in place of an expiring credit card or in substitution for an existing credit card; the consolidation of two or more obligations; or the continuance of existing credit without any special effort to collect at or after maturity).
(r) Good faith means honesty in fact in the conduct or transaction.
(s) Inadvertent error means a mechanical, electronic, or clerical error that a creditor demonstrates was not intentional and occurred notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors.
(t) Judgmental system of evaluating applicants means any system for evaluating the creditworthiness of an applicant other than an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system.
(u) Marital status means the state of being unmarried, married, or separated, as defined by applicable state law. The term “unmarried” includes persons who are single, divorced, or widowed.
(v) Negative factor or value, in relation to the age of elderly applicants, means utilizing a factor, value, or weight that is less favorable regarding elderly applicants than the creditor’s experience warrants or is less favorable than the factor, value, or weight assigned to the class of applicants that are not classified as elderly and are most favored by a creditor on the basis of age.
(w) Open-end credit means credit extended under a plan in which a creditor may permit an applicant to make purchases or obtain loans from time to time directly from the creditor or indirectly by use of a credit card, check, or other device.
(x) Person means a natural person, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, trust, estate, partnership, cooperative, or association.
(y) Pertinent element of creditworthiness, in relation to a judgmental system of evaluating applicants, means any information about applicants that a creditor obtains and considers and that has a demonstrable relationship to a determination of creditworthiness.
(z) Prohibited basis means race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); the fact that all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act or any state law upon which an exemption has been granted by the Board.
(aa) State means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States.
§ 202.3 Limited exceptions for certain classes of transactions.
(a) Public utilities credit – (1) Definition. Public utilities credit refers to extensions of credit that involve public utility services provided through pipe, wire, or other connected facilities, or radio or similar transmission (including extensions of such facilities), if the charges for service, delayed payment, and any discount for prompt payment are filed with or regulated by a government unit.
(2) Exceptions. The following provisions of this regulation do not apply to public utilities credit:
(i) Section 202.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status; and
(ii) Section 202.12(b) relating to record retention.
(b) Securities credit – (1) Definition. Securities credit refers to extensions of credit subject to regulation under section 7 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or extensions of credit by a broker or dealer subject to regulation as a broker or dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
(2) Exceptions. The following provisions of this regulation do not apply to securities credit:
(i) Section 202.5(b) concerning information about the sex of an applicant;
(ii) Section 202.5(c) concerning information about a spouse or former spouse;
(iii) Section 202.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status;
(iv) Section 202.7(b) relating to designation of name to the extent necessary to comply with rules regarding an account in which a broker or dealer has an interest, or rules regarding the aggregation of accounts of spouses to determine controlling interests, beneficial interests, beneficial ownership, or purchase limitations and restrictions;
(v) Section 202.7(c) relating to action concerning open-end accounts, to the extent the action taken is on the basis of a change of name or marital status;
(vi) Section 202.7(d) relating to the signature of a spouse or other person;
(vii) Section 202.10 relating to furnishing of credit information; and
(viii) Section 202.12(b) relating to record retention.
(c) Incidental credit – (1) Definition. Incidental credit refers to extensions of consumer credit other than the types described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
(i) That are not made pursuant to the terms of a credit card account;
(ii) That are not subject to a finance charge (as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 226.4); and
(iii) That are not payable by agreement in more than four installments.
(2) Exceptions. The following provisions of this regulation do not apply to incidental credit:
(i) Section 202.5(b) concerning information about the sex of an applicant, but only to the extent necessary for medical records or similar purposes;
(ii) Section 202.5(c) concerning information about a spouse or former spouse;
(iii) Section 202.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status;
(iv) Section 202.5(d)(2) concerning information about income derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments;
(v) Section 202.7(d) relating to the signature of a spouse or other person;
(vi) Section 202.9 relating to notifications;
(vii) Section 202.10 relating to furnishing of credit information; and
(viii) Section 202.12(b) relating to record retention.
(d) Government credit – (1) Definition. Government credit refers to extensions of credit made to governments or governmental subdivisions, agencies, or instrumentalities.
(2) Applicability of regulation. Except for § 202.4(a), the general rule against discrimination on a prohibited basis, the requirements of this regulation do not apply to government credit.
§ 202.4 General rules.
(a) Discrimination. A creditor shall not discriminate against an applicant on a prohibited basis regarding any aspect of a credit transaction.
(b) Discouragement. A creditor shall not make any oral or written statement, in advertising or otherwise, to applicants or prospective applicants that would discourage on a prohibited basis a reasonable person from making or pursuing an application.
(c) Written applications. A creditor shall take written applications for the dwelling-related types of credit covered by § 202.13(a).
(d) Form of disclosures – (1) General rule. A creditor that provides in writing any disclosures or information required by this regulation must provide the disclosures in a clear and conspicuous manner and, except for the disclosures required by §§ 202.5 and 202.13, in a form the applicant may retain.
(2) Disclosures in electronic form. The disclosures required by this part that are required to be given in writing may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq.). Where the disclosures under §§ 202.5(b)(1), 202.5(b)(2), 202.5(d)(1), 202.5(d)(2), 202.13, and 202.14(a)(2)(i) accompany an application accessed by the applicant in electronic form, these disclosures may be provided to the applicant in electronic form on or with the application form, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
(e) Foreign-language disclosures. Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided they are available in English upon request.
§ 202.5 Rules concerning requests for information.
(a) General rules – (1) Requests for information. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor may request any information in connection with a credit transaction.
(2) Required collection of information. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor shall request information for monitoring purposes as required by § 202.13 for credit secured by the applicant’s dwelling. In addition, a creditor may obtain information required by a regulation, order, or agreement issued by, or entered into with, a court or an enforcement agency (including the Attorney General of the United States or a similar state official) to monitor or enforce compliance with the Act, this regulation, or other federal or state statutes or regulations.
(3) Special-purpose credit. A creditor may obtain information that is otherwise restricted to determine eligibility for a special purpose credit program, as provided in § 202.8(b), (c), and (d).
(b) Limitation on information about race, color, religion, national origin, or sex. A creditor shall not inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
(1) Self-test. A creditor may inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction for the purpose of conducting a self-test that meets the requirements of § 202.15. A creditor that makes such an inquiry shall disclose orally or in writing, at the time the information is requested, that:
(i) The applicant will not be required to provide the information;
(ii) The creditor is requesting the information to monitor its compliance with the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act;
(iii) Federal law prohibits the creditor from discriminating on the basis of this information, or on the basis of an applicant’s decision not to furnish the information; and
(iv) If applicable, certain information will be collected based on visual observation or surname if not provided by the applicant or other person.
(2) Sex. An applicant may be requested to designate a title on an application form (such as Ms., Miss, Mr., or Mrs.) if the form discloses that the designation of a title is optional. An application form shall otherwise use only terms that are neutral as to sex.
(c) Information about a spouse or former spouse – (1) General rule. Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor may not request any information concerning the spouse or former spouse of an applicant.
(2) Permissible inquiries. A creditor may request any information concerning an applicant’s spouse (or former spouse under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section) that may be requested about the applicant if:
(i) The spouse will be permitted to use the account;
(ii) The spouse will be contractually liable on the account;
(iii) The applicant is relying on the spouse’s income as a basis for repayment of the credit requested;
(iv) The applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested; or
(v) The applicant is relying on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments from a spouse or former spouse as a basis for repayment of the credit requested.
(3) Other accounts of the applicant. A creditor may request that an applicant list any account on which the applicant is contractually liable and to provide the name and address of the person in whose name the account is held. A creditor may also ask an applicant to list the names in which the applicant has previously received credit.
(d) Other limitations on information requests – (1) Marital status. If an applicant applies for individual unsecured credit, a creditor shall not inquire about the applicant’s marital status unless the applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested. If an application is for other than individual unsecured credit, a creditor may inquire about the applicant’s marital status, but shall use only the terms married, unmarried, and separated. A creditor may explain that the category unmarried includes single, divorced, and widowed persons.
(2) Disclosure about income from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance. A creditor shall not inquire whether income stated in an application is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments unless the creditor discloses to the applicant that such income need not be revealed if the applicant does not want the creditor to consider it in determining the applicant’s creditworthiness.
(3) Childbearing, childrearing. A creditor shall not inquire about birth control practices, intentions concerning the bearing or rearing of children, or capability to bear children. A creditor may inquire about the number and ages of an applicant’s dependents or about dependent-related financial obligations or expenditures, provided such information is requested without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis.
(e) Permanent residency and immigration status. A creditor may inquire about the permanent residency and immigration status of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction.
§ 202.6 Rules concerning evaluation of applications.
(a) General rule concerning use of information. Except as otherwise provided in the Act and this regulation, a creditor may consider any information obtained, so long as the information is not used to discriminate against an applicant on a prohibited basis.
(b) Specific rules concerning use of information. (1) Except as provided in the Act and this regulation, a creditor shall not take a prohibited basis into account in any system of evaluating the creditworthiness of applicants.
(2) Age, receipt of public assistance. (i) Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor shall not take into account an applicant’s age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract) or whether an applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program.
(ii) In an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system, a creditor may use an applicant’s age as a predictive variable, provided that the age of an elderly applicant is not assigned a negative factor or value.
(iii) In a judgmental system of evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor may consider an applicant’s age or whether an applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program only for the purpose of determining a pertinent element of creditworthiness.
(iv) In any system of evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor may consider the age of an elderly applicant when such age is used to favor the elderly applicant in extending credit.
(3) Childbearing, childrearing. In evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor shall not make assumptions or use aggregate statistics relating to the likelihood that any category of persons will bear or rear children or will, for that reason, receive diminished or interrupted income in the future.
(4) Telephone listing. A creditor shall not take into account whether there is a telephone listing in the name of an applicant for consumer credit but may take into account whether there is a telephone in the applicant’s residence.
(5) Income. A creditor shall not discount or exclude from consideration the income of an applicant or the spouse of an applicant because of a prohibited basis or because the income is derived from part-time employment or is an annuity, pension, or other retirement benefit; a creditor may consider the amount and probable continuance of any income in evaluating an applicant’s creditworthiness. When an applicant relies on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments in applying for credit, the creditor shall consider such payments as income to the extent that they are likely to be consistently made.
(6) Credit history. To the extent that a creditor considers credit history in evaluating the creditworthiness of similarly qualified applicants for a similar type and amount of credit, in evaluating an applicant’s creditworthiness a creditor shall consider:
(i) The credit history, when available, of accounts designated as accounts that the applicant and the applicant’s spouse are permitted to use or for which both are contractually liable;
(ii) On the applicant’s request, any information the applicant may present that tends to indicate the credit history being considered by the creditor does not accurately reflect the applicant’s creditworthiness; and
(iii) On the applicant’s request, the credit history, when available, of any account reported in the name of the applicant’s spouse or former spouse that the applicant can demonstrate accurately reflects the applicant’s creditworthiness.
(7) Immigration status. A creditor may consider the applicant’s immigration status or status as a permanent resident of the United States, and any additional information that may be necessary to ascertain the creditor’s rights and remedies regarding repayment.
(8) Marital status. Except as otherwise permitted or required by law, a creditor shall evaluate married and unmarried applicants by the same standards; and in evaluating joint applicants, a creditor shall not treat applicants differently based on the existence, absence, or likelihood of a marital relationship between the parties.
(9) Race, color, religion, national origin, sex. Except as otherwise permitted or required by law, a creditor shall not consider race, color, religion, national origin, or sex (or an applicant’s or other person’s decision not to provide the information) in any aspect of a credit transaction.
(c) State property laws. A creditor’s consideration or application of state property laws directly or indirectly affecting creditworthiness does not constitute unlawful discrimination for the purposes of the Act or this regulation.
§ 202.7 Rules concerning extensions of credit.
(a) Individual accounts. A creditor shall not refuse to grant an individual account to a creditworthy applicant on the basis of sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis.
(b) Designation of name. A creditor shall not refuse to allow an applicant to open or maintain an account in a birth-given first name and a surname that is the applicant’s birth-given surname, the spouse’s surname, or a combined surname.
(c) Action concerning existing open-end accounts – (1) Limitations. In the absence of evidence of the applicant’s inability or unwillingness to repay, a creditor shall not take any of the following actions regarding an applicant who is contractually liable on an existing open-end account on the basis of the applicant’s reaching a certain age or retiring or on the basis of a change in the applicant’s name or marital status:
(i) Require a reapplication, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
(ii) Change the terms of the account; or
(iii) Terminate the account.
(2) Requiring reapplication. A creditor may require a reapplication for an open-end account on the basis of a change in the marital status of an applicant who is contractually liable if the credit granted was based in whole or in part on income of the applicant’s spouse and if information available to the creditor indicates that the applicant’s income may not support the amount of credit currently available.
(d) Signature of spouse or other person – (1) Rule for qualified applicant. Except as provided in this paragraph, a creditor shall not require the signature of an applicant’s spouse or other person, other than a joint applicant, on any credit instrument if the applicant qualifies under the creditor’s standards of creditworthiness for the amount and terms of the credit requested. A creditor shall not deem the submission of a joint financial statement or other evidence of jointly held assets as an application for joint credit.
(2) Unsecured credit. If an applicant requests unsecured credit and relies in part upon property that the applicant owns jointly with another person to satisfy the creditor’s standards of creditworthiness, the creditor may require the signature of the other person only on the instrument(s) necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under the law of the state in which the property is located, to enable the creditor to reach the property being relied upon in the event of the death or default of the applicant.
(3) Unsecured credit – community property states. If a married applicant requests unsecured credit and resides in a community property state, or if the applicant is relying on property located in such a state, a creditor may require the signature of the spouse on any instrument necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under applicable state law to make the community property available to satisfy the debt in the event of default if:
(i) Applicable state law denies the applicant power to manage or control sufficient community property to qualify for the credit requested under the creditor’s standards of creditworthiness; and
(ii) The applicant does not have sufficient separate property to qualify for the credit requested without regard to community property.
(4) Secured credit. If an applicant requests secured credit, a creditor may require the signature of the applicant’s spouse or other person on any instrument necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under applicable state law to make the property being offered as security available to satisfy the debt in the event of default, for example, an instrument to create a valid lien, pass clear title, waive inchoate rights, or assign earnings.
(5) Additional parties. If, under a creditor’s standards of creditworthiness, the personal liability of an additional party is necessary to support the credit requested, a creditor may request a cosigner, guarantor, endorser, or similar party. The applicant’s spouse may serve as an additional party, but the creditor shall not require that the spouse be the additional party.
(6) Rights of additional parties. A creditor shall not impose requirements upon an additional party that the creditor is prohibited from imposing upon an applicant under this section.
(e) Insurance. A creditor shall not refuse to extend credit and shall not terminate an account because credit life, health, accident, disability, or other credit-related insurance is not available on the basis of the applicant’s age.
§ 202.8 Special purpose credit programs.
(a) Standards for programs. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Act and this regulation permit a creditor to extend special purpose credit to applicants who meet eligibility requirements under the following types of credit programs:
(1) Any credit assistance program expressly authorized by federal or state law for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons;
(2) Any credit assistance program offered by a not-for-profit organization, as defined under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, for the benefit of its members or for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons; or
(3) Any special purpose credit program offered by a for-profit organization, or in which such an organization participates to meet special social needs, if:
(i) The program is established and administered pursuant to a written plan that identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit and sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit pursuant to the program; and
(ii) The program is established and administered to extend credit to a class of persons who, under the organization’s customary standards of creditworthiness, probably would not receive such credit or would receive it on less favorable terms than are ordinarily available to other applicants applying to the organization for a similar type and amount of credit.
(b) Rules in other sections – (1) General applicability. All the provisions of this regulation apply to each of the special purpose credit programs described in paragraph (a) of this section except as modified by this section.
(2) Common characteristics. A program described in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section qualifies as a special purpose credit program only if it was established and is administered so as not to discriminate against an applicant on any prohibited basis; however, all program participants may be required to share one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) so long as the program was not established and is not administered with the purpose of evading the requirements of the Act or this regulation.
(c) Special rule concerning requests and use of information. If participants in a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section are required to possess one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) and if the program otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a creditor may request and consider information regarding the common characteristic(s) in determining the applicant’s eligibility for the program.
(d) Special rule in the case of financial need. If financial need is one of the criteria under a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section, the creditor may request and consider, in determining an applicant’s eligibility for the program, information regarding the applicant’s marital status; alimony, child support, and separate maintenance income; and the spouse’s financial resources. In addition, a creditor may obtain the signature of an applicant’s spouse or other person on an application or credit instrument relating to a special purpose credit program if the signature is required by federal or state law.
§ 202.9 Notifications.
(a) Notification of action taken, ECOA notice, and statement of specific reasons – (1) When notification is required. A creditor shall notify an applicant of action taken within:
(i) 30 days after receiving a completed application concerning the creditor’s approval of, counteroffer to, or adverse action on the application;
(ii) 30 days after taking adverse action on an incomplete application, unless notice is provided in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section;
(iii) 30 days after taking adverse action on an existing account; or
(iv) 90 days after notifying the applicant of a counteroffer if the applicant does not expressly accept or use the credit offered.
(2) Content of notification when adverse action is taken. A notification given to an applicant when adverse action is taken shall be in writing and shall contain a statement of the action taken; the name and address of the creditor; a statement of the provisions of § 701(a) of the Act; the name and address of the federal agency that administers compliance with respect to the creditor; and either:
(i) A statement of specific reasons for the action taken; or
(ii) A disclosure of the applicant’s right to a statement of specific reasons within 30 days, if the statement is requested within 60 days of the creditor’s notification. The disclosure shall include the name, address, and telephone number of the person or office from which the statement of reasons can be obtained. If the creditor chooses to provide the reasons orally, the creditor shall also disclose the applicant’s right to have them confirmed in writing within 30 days of receiving the applicant’s written request for confirmation.
(3) Notification to business credit applicants. For business credit, a creditor shall comply with the notification requirements of this section in the following manner:
(i) With regard to a business that had gross revenues of $1 million or less in its preceding fiscal year (other than an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit), a creditor shall comply with paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, except that:
(A) The statement of the action taken may be given orally or in writing, when adverse action is taken;
(B) Disclosure of an applicant’s right to a statement of reasons may be given at the time of application, instead of when adverse action is taken, provided the disclosure contains the information required by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section and the ECOA notice specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
(C) For an application made entirely by telephone, a creditor satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section by an oral statement of the action taken and of the applicant’s right to a statement of reasons for adverse action.
(ii) With regard to a business that had gross revenues in excess of $1 million in its preceding fiscal year or an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit, a creditor shall:
(A) Notify the applicant, within a reasonable time, orally or in writing, of the action taken; and
(B) Provide a written statement of the reasons for adverse action and the ECOA notice specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the applicant makes a written request for the reasons within 60 days of the creditor’s notification.
(b) Form of ECOA notice and statement of specific reasons – (1) ECOA notice. To satisfy the disclosure requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section regarding section 701(a) of the Act, the creditor shall provide a notice that is substantially similar to the following: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A of this regulation].
(2) Statement of specific reasons. The statement of reasons for adverse action required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be specific and indicate the principal reason(s) for the adverse action. Statements that the adverse action was based on the creditor’s internal standards or policies or that the applicant, joint applicant, or similar party failed to achieve a qualifying score on the creditor’s credit scoring system are insufficient.
(c) Incomplete applications – (1) Notice alternatives. Within 30 days after receiving an application that is incomplete regarding matters that an applicant can complete, the creditor shall notify the applicant either:
(i) Of action taken, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section; or
(ii) Of the incompleteness, in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(2) Notice of incompleteness. If additional information is needed from an applicant, the creditor shall send a written notice to the applicant specifying the information needed, designating a reasonable period of time for the applicant to provide the information, and informing the applicant that failure to provide the information requested will result in no further consideration being given to the application. The creditor shall have no further obligation under this section if the applicant fails to respond within the designated time period. If the applicant supplies the requested information within the designated time period, the creditor shall take action on the application and notify the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
(3) Oral request for information. At its option, a creditor may inform the applicant orally of the need for additional information. If the application remains incomplete the creditor shall send a notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(d) Oral notifications by small-volume creditors. In the case of a creditor that did not receive more than 150 applications during the preceding calendar year, the requirements of this section (including statements of specific reasons) are satisfied by oral notifications.
(e) Withdrawal of approved application. When an applicant submits an application and the parties contemplate that the applicant will inquire about its status, if the creditor approves the application and the applicant has not inquired within 30 days after applying, the creditor may treat the application as withdrawn and need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(f) Multiple applicants. When an application involves more than one applicant, notification need only be given to one of them but must be given to the primary applicant where one is readily apparent.
(g) Applications submitted through a third party. When an application is made on behalf of an applicant to more than one creditor and the applicant expressly accepts or uses credit offered by one of the creditors, notification of action taken by any of the other creditors is not required. If no credit is offered or if the applicant does not expressly accept or use the credit offered, each creditor taking adverse action must comply with this section, directly or through a third party. A notice given by a third party shall disclose the identity of each creditor on whose behalf the notice is given.
§ 202.10 Furnishing of credit information.
(a) Designation of accounts. A creditor that furnishes credit information shall designate:
(1) Any new account to reflect the participation of both spouses if the applicant’s spouse is permitted to use or is contractually liable on the account (other than as a guarantor, surety, endorser, or similar party); and
(2) Any existing account to reflect such participation, within 90 days after receiving a written request to do so from one of the spouses.
(b) Routine reports to consumer reporting agency. If a creditor furnishes credit information to a consumer reporting agency concerning an account designated to reflect the participation of both spouses, the creditor shall furnish the information in a manner that will enable the agency to provide access to the information in the name of each spouse.
(c) Reporting in response to inquiry. If a creditor furnishes credit information in response to an inquiry, concerning an account designated to reflect the participation of both spouses, the creditor shall furnish the information in the name of the spouse about whom the information is requested.
§ 202.11 Relation to state law.
(a) Inconsistent state laws. Except as otherwise provided in this section, this regulation alters, affects, or preempts only those state laws that are inconsistent with the Act and this regulation and then only to the extent of the inconsistency. A state law is not inconsistent if it is more protective of an applicant.
(b) Preempted provisions of state law. (1) A state law is deemed to be inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this regulation and less protective of an applicant within the meaning of section 705(f) of the Act to the extent that the law:
(i) Requires or permits a practice or act prohibited by the Act or this regulation;
(ii) Prohibits the individual extension of consumer credit to both parties to a marriage if each spouse individually and voluntarily applies for such credit;
(iii) Prohibits inquiries or collection of data required to comply with the Act or this regulation;
(iv) Prohibits asking about or considering age in an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system to determine a pertinent element of creditworthiness, or to favor an elderly applicant; or
(v) Prohibits inquiries necessary to establish or administer a special purpose credit program as defined by § 202.8.
(2) A creditor, state, or other interested party may request that the Board determine whether a state law is inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this regulation.
(c) Laws on finance charges, loan ceilings. If married applicants voluntarily apply for and obtain individual accounts with the same creditor, the accounts shall not be aggregated or otherwise combined for purposes of determining permissible finance charges or loan ceilings under any federal or state law. Permissible loan ceiling laws shall be construed to permit each spouse to become individually liable up to the amount of the loan ceilings, less the amount for which the applicant is jointly liable.
(d) State and federal laws not affected. This section does not alter or annul any provision of state property laws, laws relating to the disposition of decedents’ estates, or federal or state banking regulations directed only toward insuring the solvency of financial institutions.
(e) Exemption for state-regulated transactions – (1) Applications. A state may apply to the Board for an exemption from the requirements of the Act and this regulation for any class of credit transactions within the state. The Board will grant such an exemption if the Board determines that:
(i) The class of credit transactions is subject to state law requirements substantially similar to those of the Act and this regulation or that applicants are afforded greater protection under state law; and
(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement.
(2) Liability and enforcement. (i) No exemption will extend to the civil liability provisions of section 706 of the Act or the administrative enforcement provisions of section 704 of the Act.
(ii) After an exemption has been granted, the requirements of the applicable state law (except for additional requirements not imposed by federal law) will constitute the requirements of the Act and this regulation.
§ 202.12 Record retention.
(a) Retention of prohibited information. A creditor may retain in its files information that is prohibited by the Act or this regulation for use in evaluating applications, without violating the Act or this regulation, if the information was obtained:
(1) From any source prior to March 23, 1977;
(2) From consumer reporting agencies, an applicant, or others without the specific request of the creditor; or
(3) As required to monitor compliance with the Act and this regulation or other federal or state statutes or regulations.
(b) Preservation of records – (1) Applications. For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) after the date that a creditor notifies an applicant of action taken on an application or of incompleteness, the creditor shall retain in original form or a copy thereof:
(i) Any application that it receives, any information required to be obtained concerning characteristics of the applicant to monitor compliance with the Act and this regulation or other similar law, and any other written or recorded information used in evaluating the application and not returned to the applicant at the applicant’s request;
(ii) A copy of the following documents if furnished to the applicant in written form (or, if furnished orally, any notation or memorandum made by the creditor):
(A) The notification of action taken; and
(B) The statement of specific reasons for adverse action; and
(iii) Any written statement submitted by the applicant alleging a violation of the Act or this regulation.
(2) Existing accounts. For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) after the date that a creditor notifies an applicant of adverse action regarding an existing account, the creditor shall retain as to that account, in original form or a copy thereof:
(i) Any written or recorded information concerning the adverse action; and
(ii) Any written statement submitted by the applicant alleging a violation of the Act or this regulation.
(3) Other applications. For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) after the date that a creditor receives an application for which the creditor is not required to comply with the notification requirements of § 202.9, the creditor shall retain all written or recorded information in its possession concerning the applicant, including any notation of action taken.
(4) Enforcement proceedings and investigations. A creditor shall retain the information beyond 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) if the creditor has actual notice that it is under investigation or is subject to an enforcement proceeding for an alleged violation of the Act or this part, by the Attorney General of the United States or by an enforcement agency charged with monitoring that creditor’s compliance with the Act and this regulation, or if it has been served with notice of an action filed pursuant to section 706 of the Act and § 202.16 of this part. The creditor shall retain the information until final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by order of the agency or court.
(5) Special rule for certain business credit applications. With regard to a business that had gross revenues in excess of $1 million in its preceding fiscal year, or an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit, the creditor shall retain records for at least 60 days after notifying the applicant of the action taken. If within that time period the applicant requests in writing the reasons for adverse action or that records be retained, the creditor shall retain records for 12 months.
(6) Self-tests. For 25 months after a self-test (as defined in § 202.15) has been completed, the creditor shall retain all written or recorded information about the self-test. A creditor shall retain information beyond 25 months if it has actual notice that it is under investigation or is subject to an enforcement proceeding for an alleged violation, or if it has been served with notice of a civil action. In such cases, the creditor shall retain the information until final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by the appropriate agency or court order.
(7) Prescreened solicitations. For 25 months after the date on which an offer of credit is made to potential customers (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section), the creditor shall retain in original form or a copy thereof:
(i) The text of any prescreened solicitation;
(ii) The list of criteria the creditor used to select potential recipients of the solicitation; and
(iii) Any correspondence related to complaints (formal or informal) about the solicitation.
§ 202.13 Information for monitoring purposes.
(a) Information to be requested. (1) A creditor that receives an application for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling occupied or to be occupied by the applicant as a principal residence, where the extension of credit will be secured by the dwelling, shall request as part of the application the following information regarding the applicant(s):
(i) Ethnicity, using the categories Hispanic or Latino, and not Hispanic or Latino; and race, using the categories American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, and White;
(ii) Sex;
(iii) Marital status, using the categories married, unmarried, and separated; and
(iv) Age.
(2) Dwelling means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes, but is not limited to, an individual condominium or cooperative unit and a mobile or other manufactured home.
(b) Obtaining information. Questions regarding ethnicity, race, sex, marital status, and age may be listed, at the creditor’s option, on the application form or on a separate form that refers to the application. The applicant(s) shall be asked but not required to supply the requested information. If the applicant(s) chooses not to provide the information or any part of it, that fact shall be noted on the form. The creditor shall then also note on the form, to the extent possible, the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant(s) on the basis of visual observation or surname.
(c) Disclosure to applicant(s). The creditor shall inform the applicant(s) that the information regarding ethnicity, race, sex, marital status, and age is being requested by the federal government for the purpose of monitoring compliance with federal statutes that prohibit creditors from discriminating against applicants on those bases. The creditor shall also inform the applicant(s) that if the applicant(s) chooses not to provide the information, the creditor is required to note the ethnicity, race and sex on the basis of visual observation or surname.
(d) Substitute monitoring program. A monitoring program required by an agency charged with administrative enforcement under section 704 of the Act may be substituted for the requirements contained in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
§ 202.14 Rules on providing appraisal reports.
(a) Providing appraisals. A creditor shall provide a copy of an appraisal report used in connection with an application for credit that is to be secured by a lien on a dwelling. A creditor shall comply with either paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section.
(1) Routine delivery. A creditor may routinely provide a copy of an appraisal report to an applicant (whether credit is granted or denied or the application is withdrawn).
(2) Upon request. A creditor that does not routinely provide appraisal reports shall provide a copy upon an applicant’s written request.
(i) Notice. A creditor that provides appraisal reports only upon request shall notify an applicant in writing of the right to receive a copy of an appraisal report. The notice may be given at any time during the application process but no later than when the creditor provides notice of action taken under § 202.9 of this regulation. The notice shall specify that the applicant’s request must be in writing, give the creditor’s mailing address, and state the time for making the request as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
(ii) Delivery. A creditor shall mail or deliver a copy of the appraisal report promptly (generally within 30 days) after the creditor receives an applicant’s request, receives the report, or receives reimbursement from the applicant for the report, whichever is last to occur. A creditor need not provide a copy when the applicant’s request is received more than 90 days after the creditor has provided notice of action taken on the application under § 202.9 of this regulation or 90 days after the application is withdrawn.
(b) Credit unions. A creditor that is subject to the regulations of the National Credit Union Administration on making copies of appraisal reports available is not subject to this section.
(c) Definitions. For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the term dwelling means a residential structure that contains one to four units whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes, but is not limited to, an individual condominium or cooperative unit, and a mobile or other manufactured home. The term appraisal report means the document(s) relied upon by a creditor in evaluating the value of the dwelling.
§ 202.15 Incentives for self-testing and self-correction.
(a) General rules – (1) Voluntary self-testing and correction. The report or results of a self-test that a creditor voluntarily conducts (or authorizes) are privileged as provided in this section. Data collection required by law or by any governmental authority is not a voluntary self-test.
(2) Corrective action required. The privilege in this section applies only if the creditor has taken or is taking appropriate corrective action.
(3) Other privileges. The privilege created by this section does not preclude the assertion of any other privilege that may also apply.
(b) Self-test defined – (1) Definition. A self-test is any program, practice, or study that:
(i) Is designed and used specifically to determine the extent or effectiveness of a creditor’s compliance with the Act or this regulation; and
(ii) Creates data or factual information that is not available and cannot be derived from loan or application files or other records related to credit transactions.
(2) Types of information privileged. The privilege under this section applies to the report or results of the self-test, data or factual information created by the self-test, and any analysis, opinions, and conclusions pertaining to the self-test report or results. The privilege covers workpapers or draft documents as well as final documents.
(3) Types of information not privileged. The privilege under this section does not apply to:
(i) Information about whether a creditor conducted a self-test, the methodology used or the scope of the self-test, the time period covered by the self-test, or the dates it was conducted; or
(ii) Loan and application files or other business records related to credit transactions, and information derived from such files and records, even if the information has been aggregated, summarized, or reorganized to facilitate analysis.
(c) Appropriate corrective action – (1) General requirement. For the privilege in this section to apply, appropriate corrective action is required when the self-test shows that it is more likely than not that a violation occurred, even though no violation has been formally adjudicated.
(2) Determining the scope of appropriate corrective action. A creditor must take corrective action that is reasonably likely to remedy the cause and effect of a likely violation by:
(i) Identifying the policies or practices that are the likely cause of the violation; and
(ii) Assessing the extent and scope of any violation.
(3) Types of relief. Appropriate corrective action may include both prospective and remedial relief, except that to establish a privilege under this section:
(i) A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to a tester used in a self-test;
(ii) A creditor is only required to provide remedial relief to an applicant identified by the self-test as one whose rights were more likely than not violated; and
(iii) A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to a particular applicant if the statute of limitations applicable to the violation expired before the creditor obtained the results of the self-test or the applicant is otherwise ineligible for such relief.
(4) No admission of violation. Taking corrective action is not an admission that a violation occurred.
(d) Scope of privilege – (1) General rule. The report or results of a privileged self-test may not be obtained or used:
(i) By a government agency in any examination or investigation relating to compliance with the Act or this regulation; or
(ii) By a government agency or an applicant (including a prospective applicant who alleges a violation of § 202.4(b)) in any proceeding or civil action in which a violation of the Act or this regulation is alleged.
(2) Loss of privilege. The report or results of a self-test are not privileged under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if the creditor or a person with lawful access to the report or results:
(i) Voluntarily discloses any part of the report or results, or any other information privileged under this section, to an applicant or government agency or to the public;
(ii) Discloses any part of the report or results, or any other information privileged under this section, as a defense to charges that the creditor has violated the Act or regulation; or
(iii) Fails or is unable to produce written or recorded information about the self-test that is required to be retained under § 202.12(b)(6) when the information is needed to determine whether the privilege applies. This paragraph does not limit any other penalty or remedy that may be available for a violation of § 202.12.
(3) Limited use of privileged information. Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the self-test report or results and any other information privileged under this section may be obtained and used by an applicant or government agency solely to determine a penalty or remedy after a violation of the Act or this regulation has been adjudicated or admitted. Disclosures for this limited purpose may be used only for the particular proceeding in which the adjudication or admission was made. Information disclosed under this paragraph (d)(3) remains privileged under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
§ 202.16 Enforcement, penalties and liabilities.
(a) Administrative enforcement. (1) As set forth more fully in section 704 of the Act, administrative enforcement of the Act and this regulation regarding certain creditors is assigned to the Comptroller of the Currency, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Office of Thrift Supervision, National Credit Union Administration, Surface Transportation Board, Secretary of Agriculture, Farm Credit Administration, Securities and Exchange Commission, Small Business Administration, and Secretary of Transportation.
(2) Except to the extent that administrative enforcement is specifically assigned to other authorities, compliance with the requirements imposed under the Act and this regulation is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission.
(b) Penalties and liabilities. (1) Sections 702(g) and 706(a) and (b) of the Act provide that any creditor that fails to comply with a requirement imposed by the Act or this regulation is subject to civil liability for actual and punitive damages in individual or class actions. Pursuant to sections 702(g) and 704(b), (c), and (d) of the Act, violations of the Act or this regulation also constitute violations of other federal laws. Liability for punitive damages can apply only to nongovernmental entities and is limited to $10,000 in individual actions and the lesser of $500,000 or 1 percent of the creditor’s net worth in class actions. Section 706(c) provides for equitable and declaratory relief and section 706(d) authorizes the awarding of costs and reasonable attorney’s fees to an aggrieved applicant in a successful action.
(2) As provided in section 706(f), a civil action under the Act or this regulation may be brought in the appropriate United States district court without regard to the amount in controversy or in any other court of competent jurisdiction within two years after the date of the occurrence of the violation, or within one year after the commencement of an administrative enforcement proceeding or of a civil action brought by the Attorney General of the United States within two years after the alleged violation.
(3) If an agency responsible for administrative enforcement is unable to obtain compliance with the Act or this regulation, it may refer the matter to the Attorney General of the United States. If the Board, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of Thrift Supervision, or the National Credit Union Administration has reason to believe that one or more creditors have engaged in a pattern or practice of discouraging or denying applications in violation of the Act or this regulation, the agency shall refer the matter to the Attorney General. If the agency has reason to believe that one or more creditors violated section 701(a) of the Act, the agency may refer a matter to the Attorney General.
(4) On referral, or whenever the Attorney General has reason to believe that one or more creditors have engaged in a pattern or practice in violation of the Act or this regulation, the Attorney General may bring a civil action for such relief as may be appropriate, including actual and punitive damages and injunctive relief.
(5) If the Board, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of Thrift Supervision, or the National Credit Union Administration has reason to believe (as a result of a consumer complaint, a consumer compliance examination, or some other basis) that a violation of the Act or this regulation has occurred which is also a violation of the Fair Housing Act, and the matter is not referred to the Attorney General, the agency shall:
(i) Notify the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development; and
(ii) Inform the applicant that the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development has been notified and that remedies may be available under the Fair Housing Act.
(c) Failure of compliance. A creditor’s failure to comply with §§ 202.6(b)(6), 202.9, 202.10, 202.12 or 202.13 is not a violation if it results from an inadvertent error. On discovering an error under §§ 202.9 and 202.10, the creditor shall correct it as soon as possible. If a creditor inadvertently obtains the monitoring information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant in a dwelling-related transaction not covered by § 202.13, the creditor may retain information and act on the application without violating the regulation.
§ 202.17 Data collection for credit applications by women-owned, minority-owned, or small businesses.
No motor vehicle dealer covered by section 1029(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5519(a), shall be required to comply with the requirements of section 704B of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691c-2, until the effective date of final rules issued by the Board to implement section 704B of the Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691c-2. This paragraph shall not be construed to affect the effective date of section 704B of the Act for any person other than a motor vehicle dealer covered by section 1029(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
Appendix A to Part 202 – Federal Enforcement Agencies
The following list indicates the federal agencies that enforce Regulation B for particular classes of creditors. Any questions concerning a particular creditor should be directed to its enforcement agency. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
National banks, and federal branches and federal agencies of foreign banks: Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Customer Assistance Group, 1301 McKinney Street, Suite 3450, Houston, TX 77010-9050
State member banks, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than federal branches, federal agencies, and insured state branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act: Federal Reserve Consumer Help Center, P.O. Box 1200, Minneapolis, MN 55480.
Nonmember Insured Banks and Insured State Branches of Foreign Banks: FDIC Consumer Response Center, 1100 Walnut Street, Box #11, Kansas City, MO 64106.
Savings institutions under the Savings Association Insurance Fund of the FDIC and federally chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund of the FDIC (but not including state-chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund): Office of Thrift Supervision, Consumer Response Unit, 1700 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20552.
Appendix B to Part 202 – Model Application Forms
1. This appendix contains five model credit application forms, each designated for use in a particular type of consumer credit transaction as indicated by the bracketed caption on each form. The first sample form is intended for use in open-end, unsecured transactions; the second for closed-end, secured transactions; the third for closed-end transactions, whether unsecured or secured; the fourth in transactions involving community property or occurring in community property states; and the fifth in residential mortgage transactions which contains a model disclosure for use in complying with § 202.13 for certain dwelling-related loans. All forms contained in this appendix are models; their use by creditors is optional.
2. The use or modification of these forms is governed by the following instructions. A creditor may change the forms: by asking for additional information not prohibited by § 202.5; by deleting any information request; or by rearranging the format without modifying the substance of the inquiries. In any of these three instances, however, the appropriate notices regarding the optional nature of courtesy titles, the option to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance, and the limitation concerning marital status inquiries must be included in the appropriate places if the items to which they relate appear on the creditor’s form.
3. If a creditor uses an appropriate Appendix B model form, or modifies a form in accordance with the above instructions, that creditor shall be deemed to be acting in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of § 202.5 of this regulation.
Appendix C to Part 202 – Sample Notification Forms
1. This appendix contains ten sample notification forms. Forms C-1 through C-4 are intended for use in notifying an applicant that adverse action has been taken on an application or account under §§ 202.9(a)(1) and (2)(i) of this regulation. Form C-5 is a notice of disclosure of the right to request specific reasons for adverse action under §§ 202.9(a)(1) and (2)(ii). Form C-6 is designed for use in notifying an applicant, under § 202.9(c)(2), that an application is incomplete. Forms C-7 and C-8 are intended for use in connection with applications for business credit under § 202.9(a)(3). Form C-9 is designed for use in notifying an applicant of the right to receive a copy of an appraisal under § 202.14. Form C-10 is designed for use in notifying an applicant for nonmortgage credit that the creditor is requesting applicant characteristic information.
2. Form C-1 contains the Fair Credit Reporting Act disclosure as required by sections 615(a) and (b) of that act. Forms C-2 through C-5 contain only the section 615(a) disclosure (that a creditor obtained information from a consumer reporting agency that was considered in the credit decision and, as applicable, a credit score used in taking adverse action along with related information). A creditor must provide the section 615(a) disclosure when adverse action is taken against a consumer based on information from a consumer reporting agency. A creditor must provide the section 615(b) disclosure when adverse action is taken based on information from an outside source other than a consumer reporting agency. In addition, a creditor must provide the section 615(b) disclosure if the creditor obtained information from an affiliate other than information in a consumer report or other than information concerning the affiliate’s own transactions or experiences with the consumer. Creditors may comply with the disclosure requirements for adverse action based on information in a consumer report obtained from an affiliate by providing either the section 615(a) or section 615(b) disclosure. Optional language in Forms C-1 through C-5 may be used to direct the consumer to the entity that provided the credit score for any questions about the credit score, along with the entity’s contact information. Creditors may use or not use this additional language without losing the safe harbor, since the language is optional.
3. The sample forms are illustrative and may not be appropriate for all creditors. They were designed to include some of the factors that creditors most commonly consider. If a creditor chooses to use the checklist of reasons provided in one of the sample forms in this appendix and if reasons commonly used by the creditor are not provided on the form, the creditor should modify the checklist by substituting or adding other reasons. For example, if “inadequate down payment” or “no deposit relationship with us” are common reasons for taking adverse action on an application, the creditor ought to add or substitute such reasons for those presently contained on the sample forms.
4. If the reasons listed on the forms are not the factors actually used, a creditor will not satisfy the notice requirement by simply checking the closest identifiable factor listed. For example, some creditors consider only references from banks or other depository institutions and disregard finance company references altogether; their statement of reasons should disclose “insufficient bank references,” not “insufficient credit references.” Similarly, a creditor that considers bank references and other credit references as distinct factors should treat the two factors separately and disclose them as appropriate. The creditor should either add such other factors to the form or check “other” and include the appropriate explanation. The creditor need not, however, describe how or why a factor adversely affected the application. For example, the notice may say “length of residence” rather than “too short a period of residence.”
5. A creditor may design its own notification forms or use all or a portion of the forms contained in this appendix. Proper use of Forms C-1 through C-4 will satisfy the requirement of § 202.9(a)(2)(i). Proper use of Forms C-5 and C-6 constitutes full compliance with §§ 202.9(a)(2)(ii) and 202.9(c)(2), respectively. Proper use of Forms C-7 and C-8 will satisfy the requirements of § 202.9(a)(2)(i) and (ii), respectively, for applications for business credit. Proper use of Form C-9 will satisfy the requirements of § 202.14 of this part. Proper use of Form C-10 will satisfy the requirements of § 202.5(b)(1).
This section must be completed in all instances.
____Credit application incomplete
____Insufficient number of credit references provided
____Unacceptable type of credit references provided
____Unable to verify credit references
____Temporary or irregular employment
____Unable to verify employment
____Length of employment
____Income insufficient for amount of credit requested
____Excessive obligations in relation to income
____Unable to verify income
____Length of residence
____Temporary residence
____Unable to verify residence
____No credit file
____Limited credit experience
____Poor credit performance with us
____Delinquent past or present credit obligations with others
____Collection action or judgment
____Garnishment or attachment
____Foreclosure or repossession
____Bankruptcy
____Number of recent inquiries on credit bureau report
____Value or type of collateral not sufficient
____Other, specify:____________
This section should be completed if the credit decision was based in whole or in part on information that has been obtained from an outside source.
____Our credit decision was based in whole or in part on information obtained in a report from the consumer reporting agency listed below. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
____Our credit decision was based in whole or in part on information obtained from an affiliate or from an outside source other than a consumer reporting agency. Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, you have the right to make a written request, no later than 60 days after you receive this notice, for disclosure of the nature of this information.
If you have any questions regarding this notice, you should contact:
The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
Dear Applicant: Thank you for your recent application. Your request for [a loan/a credit card/an increase in your credit limit] was carefully considered, and we regret that we are unable to approve your application at this time, for the following reason(s):
The consumer reporting agency contacted that provided information that influenced our decision in whole or in part was [name, address and [toll-free] telephone number of the reporting agency]. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency. Any questions regarding such information should be directed to [consumer reporting agency]. If you have any questions regarding this letter, you should contact us at [creditor’s name, address and telephone number].
[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
Dear Applicant: Thank you for your recent application for ________. We regret that we are unable to approve your request.
[
Your application was processed by a [credit scoring] system that assigns a numerical value to the various items of information we consider in evaluating an application. These numerical values are based upon the results of analyses of repayment histories of large numbers of customers.
The information you provided in your application did not score a sufficient number of points for approval of the application. The reasons you did not score well compared with other applicants were
• Insufficient bank references
• Type of occupation
• Insufficient credit experience
• Number of recent inquiries on credit bureau report
[
In evaluating your application the consumer reporting agency listed below provided us with information that in whole or in part influenced our decision. The consumer reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. It can be obtained by contacting: [name, address, and [toll-free] telephone number of the consumer reporting agency]. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
[
We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
If you have any questions regarding this letter, you should contact us at
Sincerely,
The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (with certain limited exceptions); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application for ________. We are unable to offer you credit on the terms that you requested for the following reason(s):
We can, however, offer you credit on the following terms:
If this offer is acceptable to you, please notify us within [amount of time] at the following address: ________.
Our credit decision on your application was based in whole or in part on information obtained in a report from [name, address and [toll-free] telephone number of the consumer reporting agency]. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
Scores range from a low of ____________ to a high of ____________
Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
You should know that the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors, such as ourselves, from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of their race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract), because they receive income from a public assistance program, or because they may have exercised their rights under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. If you believe there has been discrimination in handling your application you should contact the [name and address of the appropriate federal enforcement agency listed in appendix A].
Sincerely,
Dear Applicant: Thank you for applying to us for ________.
After carefully reviewing your application, we are sorry to advise you that we cannot [open an account for you/grant a loan to you/increase your credit limit] at this time. If you would like a statement of specific reasons why your application was denied, please contact [our credit service manager] shown below within 60 days of the date of this letter. We will provide you with the statement of reasons within 30 days after receiving your request.
If we obtained information from a consumer reporting agency as part of our consideration of your application, its name, address, and [toll-free] telephone number is shown below. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. [You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency.] You have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you received is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency. You can find out about the information contained in your file (if one was used) by contacting:
[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
Sincerely,
Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application for credit. The following information is needed to make a decision on your application: __________
We need to receive this information by __________(date). If we do not receive it by that date, we will regrettably be unable to give further consideration to your credit request.
Sincerely,
Dear Applicant: Thank you for applying to us for credit. We have given your request careful consideration, and regret that we are unable to extend credit to you at this time for the following reasons:
(Insert appropriate reason, such as: Value or type of collateral not sufficient; Lack of established earnings record; Slow or past due in trade or loan payments)
Sincerely,
Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A].
If your application for business credit is denied, you have the right to a written statement of the specific reasons for the denial. To obtain the statement, please contact [name, address and telephone number of the person or office from which the statement of reasons can be obtained] within 60 days from the date you are notified of our decision. We will send you a written statement of reasons for the denial within 30 days of receiving your request for the statement.
Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant’s income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A].
You have the right to a copy of the appraisal report used in connection with your application for credit. If you wish a copy, please write to us at the mailing address we have provided. We must hear from you no later than 90 days after we notify you about the action taken on your credit application or you withdraw your application.
[In your letter, give us the following information:]
We are requesting the following information to monitor our compliance with the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act, which prohibits unlawful discrimination. You are not required to provide this information. We will not take this information (or your decision not to provide this information) into account in connection with your application or credit transaction. The law provides that a creditor may not discriminate based on this information, or based on whether or not you choose to provide it. [If you choose not to provide the information, we will note it by visual observation or surname].
Appendix D to Part 202 – Issuance of Staff Interpretations
1. Official Staff Interpretations. Officials in the Board’s Division of Consumer and Community Affairs are authorized to issue official staff interpretations of this regulation. These interpretations provide the protection afforded under section 706(e) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to the regulation, which will be amended periodically.
2. Requests for Issuance of Official Staff Interpretations. A request for an official staff interpretation should be in writing and addressed to the Director, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request should contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
3. Scope of Interpretations. No staff interpretations will be issued approving creditors’ forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.
Supplement I to Part 202 – Official Staff Interpretations
Following is an official staff interpretation of Regulation B (12 CFR part 202) issued under authority delegated by the Federal Reserve Board to officials in the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs. References are to sections of the regulation or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.).
1. Official status. Section 706(e) of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act protects a creditor from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with an interpretation issued by a duly authorized official of the Federal Reserve Board. This commentary is the means by which the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs of the Federal Reserve Board issues official staff interpretations of Regulation B. Good-faith compliance with this commentary affords a creditor protection under section 706(e) of the Act.
2. Issuance of interpretations. Under Appendix D to the regulation, any person may request an official staff interpretation. Interpretations will be issued at the discretion of designated officials and incorporated in this commentary following publication for comment in the
3. Status of previous interpretations. Interpretations of Regulation B previously issued by the Federal Reserve Board and its staff have been incorporated into this commentary as appropriate. All other previous Board and staff interpretations, official and unofficial, are superseded by this commentary.
4. Footnotes. Footnotes in the regulation have the same legal effect as the text of the regulation, whether they are explanatory or illustrative in nature.
5. Comment designations. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that it interprets. For example, comments to § 202.2(c) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 2(c)(1)(ii)-1 and comment 2(c)(2)(ii)-1.
1(a) Authority and scope.
1. Scope. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act and Regulation B apply to all credit – commercial as well as personal – without regard to the nature or type of the credit or the creditor. If a transaction provides for the deferral of the payment of a debt, it is credit covered by Regulation B even though it may not be a credit transaction covered by Regulation Z (Truth in Lending) (12 CFR part 226). Further, the definition of creditor is not restricted to the party or person to whom the obligation is initially payable, as is the case under Regulation Z. Moreover, the Act and regulation apply to all methods of credit evaluation, whether performed judgmentally or by use of a credit scoring system.
2. Foreign applicability. Regulation B generally does not apply to lending activities that occur outside the United States. The regulation does apply to lending activities that take place within the United States (as well as the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico and any territory or possession of the United States), whether or not the applicant is a citizen.
3. Board. The term Board, as used in this regulation, means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
2(c) Adverse action.
1. Application for credit. If the applicant applied in accordance with the creditor’s procedures, a refusal to refinance or extend the term of a business or other loan is adverse action.
1. Move from service area. If a credit card issuer terminates the open-end account of a customer because the customer has moved out of the card issuer’s service area, the termination is adverse action unless termination on this ground was explicitly provided for in the credit agreement between the parties. In cases where termination is adverse action, notification is required under § 202.9.
2. Termination based on credit limit. If a creditor terminates credit accounts that have low credit limits (for example, under $400) but keeps open accounts with higher credit limits, the termination is adverse action and notification is required under § 202.9.
1. Default – exercise of due-on-sale clause. If a mortgagor sells or transfers mortgaged property without the consent of the mortgagee, and the mortgagee exercises its contractual right to accelerate the mortgage loan, the mortgagee may treat the mortgagor as being in default. An adverse action notice need not be given to the mortgagor or the transferee. (See comment 2(e)-1 for treatment of a purchaser who requests to assume the loan.)
2. Current delinquency or default. The term adverse action does not include a creditor’s termination of an account when the accountholder is currently in default or delinquent on that account. Notification in accordance with § 202.9 of the regulation generally is required, however, if the creditor’s action is based on a past delinquency or default on the account.
1. Point-of-sale transactions. Denial of credit at point of sale is not adverse action except under those circumstances specified in the regulation. For example, denial at point of sale is not adverse action in the following situations:
i. A credit cardholder presents an expired card or a card that has been reported to the card issuer as lost or stolen.
ii. The amount of a transaction exceeds a cash advance or credit limit.
iii. The circumstances (such as excessive use of a credit card in a short period of time) suggest that fraud is involved.
iv. The authorization facilities are not functioning.
v. Billing statements have been returned to the creditor for lack of a forwarding address.
2. Application for increase in available credit. A refusal or failure to authorize an account transaction at the point of sale or loan is not adverse action except when the refusal is a denial of an application, submitted in accordance with the creditor’s procedures, for an increase in the amount of credit.
1. Terms of credit versus type of credit offered. When an applicant applies for credit and the creditor does not offer the credit terms requested by the applicant (for example, the interest rate, length of maturity, collateral, or amount of downpayment), a denial of the application for that reason is adverse action (unless the creditor makes a counteroffer that is accepted by the applicant) and the applicant is entitled to notification under § 202.9.
2(e) Applicant.
1. Request to assume loan. If a mortgagor sells or transfers the mortgaged property and the buyer makes an application to the creditor to assume the mortgage loan, the mortgagee must treat the buyer as an applicant unless its policy is not to permit assumptions.
2(f) Application.
1. General. A creditor has the latitude under the regulation to establish its own application process and to decide the type and amount of information it will require from credit applicants.
2. Procedures used. The term “procedures” refers to the actual practices followed by a creditor for making credit decisions as well as its stated application procedures. For example, if a creditor’s stated policy is to require all applications to be in writing on the creditor’s application form, but the creditor also makes credit decisions based on oral requests, the creditor’s procedures are to accept both oral and written applications.
3. When an inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application. A creditor is encouraged to provide consumers with information about loan terms. However, if in giving information to the consumer the creditor also evaluates information about the consumer, decides to decline the request, and communicates this to the consumer, the creditor has treated the inquiry or prequalification request as an application and must then comply with the notification requirements under § 202.9. Whether the inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application depends on how the creditor responds to the consumer, not on what the consumer says or asks. (See comment 9-5 for further discussion of prequalification requests; see comment 2(f)-5 for a discussion of preapproval requests.)
4. Examples of inquiries that are not applications. The following examples illustrate situations in which only an inquiry has taken place:
i. A consumer calls to ask about loan terms and an employee explains the creditor’s basic loan terms, such as interest rates, loan-to-value ratio, and debt-to-income ratio.
ii. A consumer calls to ask about interest rates for car loans, and, in order to quote the appropriate rate, the loan officer asks for the make and sales price of the car and the amount of the downpayment, then gives the consumer the rate.
iii. A consumer asks about terms for a loan to purchase a home and tells the loan officer her income and intended downpayment, but the loan officer only explains the creditor’s loan-to-value ratio policy and other basic lending policies, without telling the consumer whether she qualifies for the loan.
iv. A consumer calls to ask about terms for a loan to purchase vacant land and states his income and the sales price of the property to be financed, and asks whether he qualifies for a loan; the employee responds by describing the general lending policies, explaining that he would need to look at all of the consumer’s qualifications before making a decision, and offering to send an application form to the consumer.
5. Examples of an application. An application for credit includes the following situations:
i. A person asks a financial institution to “preapprove” her for a loan (for example, to finance a house or a vehicle she plans to buy) and the institution reviews the request under a program in which the institution, after a comprehensive analysis of her creditworthiness, issues a written commitment valid for a designated period of time to extend a loan up to a specified amount. The written commitment may not be subject to conditions other than conditions that require the identification of adequate collateral, conditions that require no material change in the applicant’s financial condition or creditworthiness prior to funding the loan, and limited conditions that are not related to the financial condition or creditworthiness of the applicant that the lender ordinarily attaches to a traditional application (such as certification of a clear termite inspection for a home purchase loan, or a maximum mileage requirement for a used car loan). But if the creditor’s program does not provide for giving written commitments, requests for preapprovals are treated as prequalification requests for purposes of the regulation.
ii. Under the same facts as above, the financial institution evaluates the person’s creditworthiness and determines that she does not qualify for a preapproval.
6. Completed application – diligence requirement. The regulation defines a completed application in terms that give a creditor the latitude to establish its own information requirements. Nevertheless, the creditor must act with reasonable diligence to collect information needed to complete the application. For example, the creditor should request information from third parties, such as a credit report, promptly after receiving the application. If additional information is needed from the applicant, such as an address or a telephone number to verify employment, the creditor should contact the applicant promptly. (But see comment 9(a)(1)-3, which discusses the creditor’s option to deny an application on the basis of incompleteness.)
2(g) Business credit.
1. Definition. The test for deciding whether a transaction qualifies as business credit is one of primary purpose. For example, an open-end credit account used for both personal and business purposes is not business credit unless the primary purpose of the account is business-related. A creditor may rely on an applicant’s statement of the purpose for the credit requested.
2(j) Credit.
1. General. Regulation B covers a wider range of credit transactions than Regulation Z (Truth in Lending). Under Regulation B, a transaction is credit if there is a right to defer payment of a debt – regardless of whether the credit is for personal or commercial purposes, the number of installments required for repayment, or whether the transaction is subject to a finance charge.
2(l) Creditor.
1. Assignees. The term creditor includes all persons participating in the credit decision. This may include an assignee or a potential purchaser of the obligation who influences the credit decision by indicating whether or not it will purchase the obligation if the transaction is consummated.
2. Referrals to creditors. For certain purposes, the term creditor includes persons such as real estate brokers, automobile dealers, home builders, and home-improvement contractors who do not participate in credit decisions but who only accept applications and refer applicants to creditors, or select or offer to select creditors to whom credit requests can be made. These persons must comply with § 202.4(a), the general rule prohibiting discrimination, and with § 202.4(b), the general rule against discouraging applications.
2(p) Empirically derived and other credit scoring systems.
1. Purpose of definition. The definition under § 202.2(p)(1)(i) through (iv) sets the criteria that a credit system must meet in order to use age as a predictive factor. Credit systems that do not meet these criteria are judgmental systems and may consider age only for the purpose of determining a “pertinent element of creditworthiness.” (Both types of systems may favor an elderly applicant. See § 202.6(b)(2).)
2. Periodic revalidation. The regulation does not specify how often credit scoring systems must be revalidated. The credit scoring system must be revalidated frequently enough to ensure that it continues to meet recognized professional statistical standards for statistical soundness. To ensure that predictive ability is being maintained, the creditor must periodically review the performance of the system. This could be done, for example, by analyzing the loan portfolio to determine the delinquency rate for each score interval, or by analyzing population stability over time to detect deviations of recent applications from the applicant population used to validate the system. If this analysis indicates that the system no longer predicts risk with statistical soundness, the system must be adjusted as necessary to reestablish its predictive ability. A creditor is responsible for ensuring its system is validated and revalidated based on the creditor’s own data.
3. Pooled data scoring systems. A scoring system or the data from which to develop such a system may be obtained from either a single credit grantor or multiple credit grantors. The resulting system will qualify as an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system provided the criteria set forth in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section are met. A creditor is responsible for ensuring its system is validated and revalidated based on the creditor’s own data when it becomes available.
4. Effects test and disparate treatment. An empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system may include age as a predictive factor (provided that the age of an elderly applicant is not assigned a negative factor or value). Besides age, no other prohibited basis may be used as a variable. Generally, credit scoring systems treat all applicants objectively and thus avoid problems of disparate treatment. In cases where a credit scoring system is used in conjunction with individual discretion, disparate treatment could conceivably occur in the evaluation process. In addition, neutral factors used in credit scoring systems could nonetheless be subject to challenge under the effects test. (See comment 6(a)-2 for a discussion of the effects test).
2(w) Open-end credit.
1. Open-end real estate mortgages. The term “open-end credit” does not include negotiated advances under an open-end real estate mortgage or a letter of credit.
2(z) Prohibited basis.
1. Persons associated with applicant. As used in this regulation, prohibited basis refers not only to characteristics – the race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age – of an applicant (or officers of an applicant in the case of a corporation) but also to the characteristics of individuals with whom an applicant is affiliated or with whom the applicant associates. This means, for example, that under the general rule stated in § 202.4(a), a creditor may not discriminate against an applicant because of that person’s personal or business dealings with members of a certain religion, because of the national origin of any persons associated with the extension of credit (such as the tenants in the apartment complex being financed), or because of the race of other residents in the neighborhood where the property offered as collateral is located.
2. National origin. A creditor may not refuse to grant credit because an applicant comes from a particular country but may take the applicant’s immigration status into account. A creditor may also take into account any applicable law, regulation, or executive order restricting dealings with citizens (or the government) of a particular country or imposing limitations regarding credit extended for their use.
3. Public assistance program. Any federal, state, or local governmental assistance program that provides a continuing, periodic income supplement, whether premised on entitlement or need, is “public assistance” for purposes of the regulation. The term includes (but is not limited to) Temporary Aid to Needy Families, food stamps, rent and mortgage supplement or assistance programs, social security and supplemental security income, and unemployment compensation. Only physicians, hospitals, and others to whom the benefits are payable need consider Medicare and Medicaid as public assistance.
1. Scope. Under this section, procedural requirements of the regulation do not apply to certain types of credit. All classes of transactions remain subject to § 202.4(a), the general rule barring discrimination on a prohibited basis, and to any other provision not specifically excepted.
3(a) Public-utilities credit.
1. Definition. This definition applies only to credit for the purchase of a utility service, such as electricity, gas, or telephone service. Credit provided or offered by a public utility for some other purpose – such as for financing the purchase of a gas dryer, telephone equipment, or other durable goods, or for insulation or other home improvements – is not excepted.
2. Security deposits. A utility company is a creditor when it supplies utility service and bills the user after the service has been provided. Thus, any credit term (such as a requirement for a security deposit) is subject to the regulation’s bar against discrimination on a prohibited basis.
3. Telephone companies. A telephone company’s credit transactions qualify for the exceptions provided in § 202.3(a)(2) only if the company is regulated by a government unit or files the charges for service, delayed payment, or any discount for prompt payment with a government unit.
3(c) Incidental credit.
1. Examples. If a service provider (such as a hospital, doctor, lawyer, or merchant) allows the client or customer to defer the payment of a bill, this deferral of debt is credit for purposes of the regulation, even though there is no finance charge and no agreement for payment in installments. Because of the exceptions provided by this section, however, these particular credit extensions are excepted from compliance with certain procedural requirements as specified in § 202.3(c).
3(d) Government credit.
1. Credit to governments. The exception relates to credit extended to (not by) governmental entities. For example, credit extended to a local government is covered by this exception, but credit extended to consumers by a federal or state housing agency does not qualify for special treatment under this category.
1. Scope of rule. The general rule stated in § 202.4(a) covers all dealings, without exception, between an applicant and a creditor, whether or not addressed by other provisions of the regulation. Other provisions of the regulation identify specific practices that the Board has decided are impermissible because they could result in credit discrimination on a basis prohibited by the Act. The general rule covers, for example, application procedures, criteria used to evaluate creditworthiness, administration of accounts, and treatment of delinquent or slow accounts. Thus, whether or not specifically prohibited elsewhere in the regulation, a credit practice that treats applicants differently on a prohibited basis violates the law because it violates the general rule. Disparate treatment on a prohibited basis is illegal whether or not it results from a conscious intent to discriminate.
2. Examples.
i. Disparate treatment would exist, for example, in the following situations:
A. A creditor provides information only on “subprime” and similar products to minority applicants who request information about the creditor’s mortgage products, but provides information on a wider variety of mortgage products to similarly situated nonminority applicants.
B. A creditor provides more comprehensive information to men than to similarly situated women.
C. A creditor requires a minority applicant to provide greater documentation to obtain a loan than a similarly situated nonminority applicant.
D. A creditor waives or relaxes credit standards for a nonminority applicant but not for a similarly situated minority applicant.
ii. Treating applicants differently on a prohibited basis is unlawful if the creditor lacks a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason for its action, or if the asserted reason is found to be a pretext for discrimination.
1. Prospective applicants. Generally, the regulation’s protections apply only to persons who have requested or received an extension of credit. In keeping with the purpose of the Act – to promote the availability of credit on a nondiscriminatory basis – § 202.4(b) covers acts or practices directed at prospective applicants that could discourage a reasonable person, on a prohibited basis, from applying for credit. Practices prohibited by this section include:
i. A statement that the applicant should not bother to apply, after the applicant states that he is retired.
ii. The use of words, symbols, models or other forms of communication in advertising that express, imply, or suggest a discriminatory preference or a policy of exclusion in violation of the Act.
iii. The use of interview scripts that discourage applications on a prohibited basis.
2. Affirmative advertising. A creditor may affirmatively solicit or encourage members of traditionally disadvantaged groups to apply for credit, especially groups that might not normally seek credit from that creditor.
1. Requirement for written applications. Model application forms are provided in Appendix B to the regulation, although use of a printed form is not required. A creditor will satisfy the requirement by writing down the information that it normally considers in making a credit decision. The creditor may complete an application on behalf of an applicant and need not require the applicant to sign the application.
2. Telephone applications. A creditor that accepts applications by telephone for dwelling-related credit covered by § 202.13 can meet the requirement for written applications by writing down pertinent information that is provided by the applicant.
3. Computerized entry. Information entered directly into and retained by a computerized system qualifies as a written application under this paragraph. (See the commentary to § 202.13(b), Applications through electronic media and Applications through video.)
1. Clear and conspicuous. This standard requires that disclosures be presented in a reasonably understandable format in a way that does not obscure the required information. No minimum type size is mandated, but the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
2. Form of disclosures. Whether the disclosures required to be on or with an application must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
i. If an applicant accesses a credit application electronically (other than as described under ii below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its website) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the applicant, this requirement would not be met.
ii. In contrast, if an applicant is physically present in the creditor’s office, and accesses a credit application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the applicant uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.
5(a) General rules.
1. Requests for information. This section governs the types of information that a creditor may gather. Section 202.6 governs how information may be used.
1. Local laws. Information that a creditor is allowed to collect pursuant to a “state” statute or regulation includes information required by a local statute, regulation, or ordinance.
2. Information required by Regulation C. Regulation C generally requires creditors covered by the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) to collect and report information about the race, ethnicity, and sex of applicants for home-improvement loans and home-purchase loans, including some types of loans not covered by § 202.13.
3. Collecting information on behalf of creditors. Persons such as loan brokers and correspondents do not violate the ECOA or Regulation B if they collect information that they are otherwise prohibited from collecting, where the purpose of collecting the information is to provide it to a creditor that is subject to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act or another federal or state statute or regulation requiring data collection.
5(d) Other limitations on information requests.
1. Indirect disclosure of prohibited information. The fact that certain credit-related information may indirectly disclose marital status does not bar a creditor from seeking such information. For example, the creditor may ask about:
i. The applicant’s obligation to pay alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income.
ii. The source of income to be used as the basis for repaying the credit requested, which could disclose that it is the income of a spouse.
iii. Whether any obligation disclosed by the applicant has a co-obligor, which could disclose that the co-obligor is a spouse or former spouse.
iv. The ownership of assets, which could disclose the interest of a spouse.
1. Disclosure about income. The sample application forms in appendix B to the regulation illustrate how a creditor may inform an applicant of the right not to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income.
2. General inquiry about source of income. Since a general inquiry about the source of income may lead an applicant to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income, a creditor making such an inquiry on an application form should preface the request with the disclosure required by this paragraph.
3. Specific inquiry about sources of income. A creditor need not give the disclosure if the inquiry about income is specific and worded in a way that is unlikely to lead the applicant to disclose the fact that income is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments. For example, an application form that asks about specific types of income such as salary, wages, or investment income need not include the disclosure.
6(a) General rule concerning use of information.
1. General. When evaluating an application for credit, a creditor generally may consider any information obtained. However, a creditor may not consider in its evaluation of creditworthiness any information that it is barred by § 202.5 from obtaining or from using for any purpose other than to conduct a self-test under § 202.15.
2. Effects test. The effects test is a judicial doctrine that was developed in a series of employment cases decided by the U.S. Supreme Court under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e et seq.), and the burdens of proof for such employment cases were codified by Congress in the Civil Rights Act of 1991 (42 U.S.C. 2000e-2). Congressional intent that this doctrine apply to the credit area is documented in the Senate Report that accompanied H.R. 6516, No. 94-589, pp. 4-5; and in the House Report that accompanied H.R. 6516, No. 94-210, p.5. The Act and regulation may prohibit a creditor practice that is discriminatory in effect because it has a disproportionately negative impact on a prohibited basis, even though the creditor has no intent to discriminate and the practice appears neutral on its face, unless the creditor practice meets a legitimate business need that cannot reasonably be achieved as well by means that are less disparate in their impact. For example, requiring that applicants have income in excess of a certain amount to qualify for an overdraft line of credit could mean that women and minority applicants will be rejected at a higher rate than men and nonminority applicants. If there is a demonstrable relationship between the income requirement and creditworthiness for the level of credit involved, however, use of the income standard would likely be permissible.
6(b) Specific rules concerning use of information.
1. Prohibited basis – special purpose credit. In a special purpose credit program, a creditor may consider a prohibited basis to determine whether the applicant possesses a characteristic needed for eligibility. (See § 202.8.)
1. Favoring the elderly. Any system of evaluating creditworthiness may favor a credit applicant who is age 62 or older. A credit program that offers more favorable credit terms to applicants age 62 or older is also permissible; a program that offers more favorable credit terms to applicants at an age lower than 62 is permissible only if it meets the special-purpose credit requirements of § 202.8.
2. Consideration of age in a credit scoring system. Age may be taken directly into account in a credit scoring system that is “demonstrably and statistically sound,” as defined in § 202.2(p), with one limitation: applicants age 62 years or older must be treated at least as favorably as applicants who are under age 62. If age is scored by assigning points to an applicant’s age category, elderly applicants must receive the same or a greater number of points as the most favored class of nonelderly applicants.
i. Age-split scorecards. Some credit systems segment the population and use different scorecards based on the age of an applicant. In such a system, one card may cover a narrow age range (for example, applicants in their twenties or younger) who are evaluated under attributes predictive for that age group. A second card may cover all other applicants, who are evaluated under the attributes predictive for that broader class. When a system uses a card covering a wide age range that encompasses elderly applicants, the credit scoring system is not deemed to score age. Thus, the system does not raise the issue of assigning a negative factor or value to the age of elderly applicants. But if a system segments the population by age into multiple scorecards, and includes elderly applicants in a narrower age range, the credit scoring system does score age. To comply with the Act and regulation in such a case, the creditor must ensure that the system does not assign a negative factor or value to the age of elderly applicants as a class.
3. Consideration of age in a judgmental system. In a judgmental system, defined in § 202.2(t), a creditor may not decide whether to extend credit or set the terms and conditions of credit based on age or information related exclusively to age. Age or age-related information may be considered only in evaluating other “pertinent elements of creditworthiness” that are drawn from the particular facts and circumstances concerning the applicant. For example, a creditor may not reject an application or terminate an account because the applicant is 60 years old. But a creditor that uses a judgmental system may relate the applicant’s age to other information about the applicant that the creditor considers in evaluating creditworthiness. As the following examples illustrate, the evaluation must be made in an individualized, case-by-case manner:
i. A creditor may consider the applicant’s occupation and length of time to retirement to ascertain whether the applicant’s income (including retirement income) will support the extension of credit to its maturity.
ii. A creditor may consider the adequacy of any security offered when the term of the credit extension exceeds the life expectancy of the applicant and the cost of realizing on the collateral could exceed the applicant’s equity. An elderly applicant might not qualify for a 5 percent down, 30-year mortgage loan but might qualify with a larger downpayment or a shorter loan maturity.
iii. A creditor may consider the applicant’s age to assess the significance of length of employment (a young applicant may have just entered the job market) or length of time at an address (an elderly applicant may recently have retired and moved from a long-term residence).
4. Consideration of age in a reverse mortgage. A reverse mortgage is a home-secured loan in which the borrower receives payments from the creditor, and does not become obligated to repay these amounts (other than in the case of default) until the borrower dies, moves permanently from the home, or transfers title to the home, or upon a specified maturity date. Disbursements to the borrower under a reverse mortgage typically are determined by considering the value of the borrower’s home, the current interest rate, and the borrower’s life expectancy. A reverse mortgage program that requires borrowers to be age 62 or older is permissible under § 202.6(b)(2)(iv). In addition, under § 202.6(b)(2)(iii), a creditor may consider a borrower’s age to evaluate a pertinent element of creditworthiness, such as the amount of the credit or monthly payments that the borrower will receive, or the estimated repayment date.
5. Consideration of age in a combined system. A creditor using a credit scoring system that qualifies as “empirically derived” under § 202.2(p) may consider other factors (such as a credit report or the applicant’s cash flow) on a judgmental basis. Doing so will not negate the classification of the credit scoring component of the combined system as “demonstrably and statistically sound.” While age could be used in the credit scoring portion, however, in the judgmental portion age may not be considered directly. It may be used only for the purpose of determining a “pertinent element of creditworthiness.” (See comment 6(b)(2)-3.)
6. Consideration of public assistance. When considering income derived from a public assistance program, a creditor may take into account, for example:
i. The length of time an applicant will likely remain eligible to receive such income.
ii. Whether the applicant will continue to qualify for benefits based on the status of the applicant’s dependents (as in the case of Temporary Aid to Needy Families, or social security payments to a minor).
iii. Whether the creditor can attach or garnish the income to assure payment of the debt in the event of default.
1. Consideration of an individual applicant. A creditor must evaluate income derived from part-time employment, alimony, child support, separate maintenance payments, retirement benefits, or public assistance on an individual basis, not on the basis of aggregate statistics; and must assess its reliability or unreliability by analyzing the applicant’s actual circumstances, not by analyzing statistical measures derived from a group.
2. Payments consistently made. In determining the likelihood of consistent payments of alimony, child support, or separate maintenance, a creditor may consider factors such as whether payments are received pursuant to a written agreement or court decree; the length of time that the payments have been received; whether the payments are regularly received by the applicant; the availability of court or other procedures to compel payment; and the creditworthiness of the payor, including the credit history of the payor when it is available to the creditor.
3. Consideration of income.
i. A creditor need not consider income at all in evaluating creditworthiness. If a creditor does consider income, there are several acceptable methods, whether in a credit scoring or a judgmental system:
A. A creditor may score or take into account the total sum of all income stated by the applicant without taking steps to evaluate the income for reliability.
B. A creditor may evaluate each component of the applicant’s income, and then score or take into account income determined to be reliable separately from other income; or the creditor may disregard that portion of income that is not reliable when it aggregates reliable income.
C. A creditor that does not evaluate all income components for reliability must treat as reliable any component of protected income that is not evaluated.
ii. In considering the separate components of an applicant’s income, the creditor may not automatically discount or exclude from consideration any protected income. Any discounting or exclusion must be based on the applicant’s actual circumstances.
4. Part-time employment, sources of income. A creditor may score or take into account the fact that an applicant has more than one source of earned income – a full-time and a part-time job or two part-time jobs. A creditor may also score or treat earned income from a secondary source differently than earned income from a primary source. The creditor may not, however, score or otherwise take into account the number of sources for income such as retirement income, social security, supplemental security income, and alimony. Nor may the creditor treat negatively the fact that an applicant’s only earned income is derived from, for example, a part-time job.
1. Types of credit references. A creditor may restrict the types of credit history and credit references that it will consider, provided that the restrictions are applied to all credit applicants without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. On the applicant’s request, however, a creditor must consider credit information not reported through a credit bureau when the information relates to the same types of credit references and history that the creditor would consider if reported through a credit bureau.
1. National origin – immigration status. The applicant’s immigration status and ties to the community (such as employment and continued residence in the area) could have a bearing on a creditor’s ability to obtain repayment. Accordingly, the creditor may consider immigration status and differentiate, for example, between a noncitizen who is a long-time resident with permanent resident status and a noncitizen who is temporarily in this country on a student visa.
2. National origin – citizenship. A denial of credit on the ground that an applicant is not a United States citizen is not per se discrimination based on national origin.
1. Prohibited basis – marital status. A creditor may consider the marital status of an applicant or joint applicant for the purpose of ascertaining the creditor’s rights and remedies applicable to the particular extension of credit. For example, in a secured transaction involving real property, a creditor could take into account whether state law gives the applicant’s spouse an interest in the property being offered as collateral.
7(a) Individual accounts.
1. Open-end credit – authorized user. A creditor may not require a creditworthy applicant seeking an individual credit account to provide additional signatures. But the creditor may condition the designation of an authorized user by the account holder on the authorized user’s becoming contractually liable for the account, as long as the creditor does not differentiate on any prohibited basis in imposing this requirement.
2. Open-end credit – choice of authorized user. A creditor that permits an account holder to designate an authorized user may not restrict this designation on a prohibited basis. For example, if the creditor allows the designation of spouses as authorized users, the creditor may not refuse to accept a nonspouse as an authorized user.
3. Overdraft authority on transaction accounts. If a transaction account (such as a checking account or NOW account) includes an overdraft line of credit, the creditor may require that all persons authorized to draw on the transaction account assume liability for any overdraft.
7(b) Designation of name.
1. Single name on account. A creditor may require that joint applicants on an account designate a single name for purposes of administering the account and that a single name be embossed on any credit cards issued on the account. But the creditor may not require that the name be the husband’s name. (See § 202.10 for rules governing the furnishing of credit history on accounts held by spouses.)
7(c) Action concerning existing open-end accounts.
1. Termination coincidental with marital status change. When an account holder’s marital status changes, a creditor generally may not terminate the account unless it has evidence that the account holder is now unable or unwilling to repay. But the creditor may terminate an account on which both spouses are jointly liable, even if the action coincides with a change in marital status, when one or both spouses:
i. Repudiate responsibility for future charges on the joint account.
ii. Request separate accounts in their own names.
iii. Request that the joint account be closed.
2. Updating information. A creditor may periodically request updated information from applicants but may not use events related to a prohibited basis – such as an applicant’s retirement or reaching a particular age, or a change in name or marital status – to trigger such a request.
1. Procedure pending reapplication. A creditor may require a reapplication from an account holder, even when there is no evidence of unwillingness or inability to repay, if (1) the credit was based on the qualifications of a person who is no longer available to support the credit and (2) the creditor has information indicating that the account holder’s income may be insufficient to support the credit. While a reapplication is pending, the creditor must allow the account holder full access to the account under the existing contract terms. The creditor may specify a reasonable time period within which the account holder must submit the required information.
7(d) Signature of spouse or other person.
1. Qualified applicant. The signature rules ensure that qualified applicants are able to obtain credit in their own names. Thus, when an applicant requests individual credit, a creditor generally may not require the signature of another person unless the creditor has first determined that the applicant alone does not qualify for the credit requested.
2. Unqualified applicant. When an applicant requests individual credit but does not meet a creditor’s standards, the creditor may require a cosigner, guarantor, endorser, or similar partie – but cannot require that it be the spouse. (See commentary to § 202.7(d)(5) and (6).)
1. Signature of another person. It is impermissible for a creditor to require an applicant who is individually creditworthy to provide a cosigner – even if the creditor applies the requirement without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. (But see comment 7(d)(6)-1 concerning guarantors of closely held corporations.)
2. Joint applicant. The term “joint applicant” refers to someone who applies contemporaneously with the applicant for shared or joint credit. It does not refer to someone whose signature is required by the creditor as a condition for granting the credit requested.
3. Evidence of joint application. A person’s intent to be a joint applicant must be evidenced at the time of application. Signatures on a promissory note may not be used to show intent to apply for joint credit. On the other hand, signatures or initials on a credit application affirming applicants’ intent to apply for joint credit may be used to establish intent to apply for joint credit. (See Appendix B). The method used to establish intent must be distinct from the means used by individuals to affirm the accuracy of information. For example, signatures on a joint financial statement affirming the veracity of information are not sufficient to establish intent to apply for joint credit.
1. Jointly owned property. If an applicant requests unsecured credit, does not own sufficient separate property, and relies on joint property to establish creditworthiness, the creditor must value the applicant’s interest in the jointly owned property. A creditor may not request that a nonapplicant joint owner sign any instrument as a condition of the credit extension unless the applicant’s interest does not support the amount and terms of the credit sought.
i. Valuation of applicant’s interest. In determining the value of an applicant’s interest in jointly owned property, a creditor may consider factors such as the form of ownership and the property’s susceptibility to attachment, execution, severance, or partition; the value of the applicant’s interest after such action; and the cost associated with the action. This determination must be based on the existing form of ownership, and not on the possibility of a subsequent change. For example, in determining whether a married applicant’s interest in jointly owned property is sufficient to satisfy the creditor’s standards of creditworthiness for individual credit, a creditor may not consider that the applicant’s separate property could be transferred into tenancy by the entirety after consummation. Similarly, a creditor may not consider the possibility that the couple may divorce. Accordingly, a creditor may not require the signature of the nonapplicant spouse in these or similar circumstances.
ii. Other options to support credit. If the applicant’s interest in jointly owned property does not support the amount and terms of credit sought, the creditor may offer the applicant other options to qualify for the extension of credit. For example:
A. Providing a co-signer or other party (§ 202.7(d)(5));
B. Requesting that the credit be granted on a secured basis (§ 202.7(d)(4)); or
C. Providing the signature of the joint owner on an instrument that ensures access to the property in the event of the applicant’s death or default, but does not impose personal liability unless necessary under state law (such as a limited guarantee). A creditor may not routinely require, however, that a joint owner sign an instrument (such as a quitclaim deed) that would result in the forfeiture of the joint owner’s interest in the property.
2. Need for signature – reasonable belief. A creditor’s reasonable belief as to what instruments need to be signed by a person other than the applicant should be supported by a thorough review of pertinent statutory and decisional law or an opinion of the state attorney general.
1. Residency. In assessing the creditworthiness of a person who applies for credit in a community property state, a creditor may assume that the applicant is a resident of the state unless the applicant indicates otherwise.
1. Creation of enforceable lien. Some state laws require that both spouses join in executing any instrument by which real property is encumbered. If an applicant offers such property as security for credit, a creditor may require the applicant’s spouse to sign the instruments necessary to create a valid security interest in the property. The creditor may not require the spouse to sign the note evidencing the credit obligation if signing only the mortgage or other security agreement is sufficient to make the property available to satisfy the debt in the event of default. However, if under state law both spouses must sign the note to create an enforceable lien, the creditor may require the signatures.
2. Need for signature – reasonable belief. Generally, a signature to make the secured property available will only be needed on a security agreement. A creditor’s reasonable belief that, to ensure access to the property, the spouse’s signature is needed on an instrument that imposes personal liability should be supported by a thorough review of pertinent statutory and decisional law or an opinion of the state attorney general.
3. Integrated instruments. When a creditor uses an integrated instrument that combines the note and the security agreement, the spouse cannot be asked to sign the integrated instrument if the signature is only needed to grant a security interest. But the spouse could be asked to sign an integrated instrument that makes clear – for example, by a legend placed next to the spouse’s signature – that the spouse’s signature is only to grant a security interest and that signing the instrument does not impose personal liability.
1. Qualifications of additional parties. In establishing guidelines for eligibility of guarantors, cosigners, or similar additional parties, a creditor may restrict the applicant’s choice of additional parties but may not discriminate on the basis of sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. For example, the creditor could require that the additional party live in the creditor’s market area.
2. Reliance on income of another person – individual credit. An applicant who requests individual credit relying on the income of another person (including a spouse in a non-community property state) may be required to provide the signature of the other person to make the income available to pay the debt. In community property states, the signature of a spouse may be required if the applicant relies on the spouse’s separate income. If the applicant relies on the spouse’s future earnings that as a matter of state law cannot be characterized as community property until earned, the creditor may require the spouse’s signature, but need not do so – even if it is the creditor’s practice to require the signature when an applicant relies on the future earnings of a person other than a spouse. (See § 202.6(c) on consideration of state property laws.)
3. Renewals. If the borrower’s creditworthiness is reevaluated when a credit obligation is renewed, the creditor must determine whether an additional party is still warranted and, if not warranted, release the additional party.
1. Guarantees. A guarantee on an extension of credit is part of a credit transaction and therefore subject to the regulation. A creditor may require the personal guarantee of the partners, directors, or officers of a business, and the shareholders of a closely held corporation, even if the business or corporation is creditworthy. The requirement must be based on the guarantor’s relationship with the business or corporation, however, and not on a prohibited basis. For example, a creditor may not require guarantees only for women-owned or minority-owned businesses. Similarly, a creditor may not require guarantees only of the married officers of a business or the married shareholders of a closely held corporation.
2. Spousal guarantees. The rules in § 202.7(d) bar a creditor from requiring the signature of a guarantor’s spouse just as they bar the creditor from requiring the signature of an applicant’s spouse. For example, although a creditor may require all officers of a closely held corporation to personally guarantee a corporate loan, the creditor may not automatically require that spouses of married officers also sign the guarantee. If an evaluation of the financial circumstances of an officer indicates that an additional signature is necessary, however, the creditor may require the signature of another person in appropriate circumstances in accordance with § 202.7(d)(2).
7(e) Insurance.
1. Differences in terms. Differences in the availability, rates, and other terms on which credit-related casualty insurance or credit life, health, accident, or disability insurance is offered or provided to an applicant does not violate Regulation B.
2. Insurance information. A creditor may obtain information about an applicant’s age, sex, or marital status for insurance purposes. The information may only be used for determining eligibility and premium rates for insurance, however, and not in making the credit decision.
8(a) Standards for programs.
1. Determining qualified programs. The Board does not determine whether individual programs qualify for special purpose credit status, or whether a particular program benefits an “economically disadvantaged class of persons.” The agency or creditor administering or offering the loan program must make these decisions regarding the status of its program.
2. Compliance with a program authorized by federal or state law. A creditor does not violate Regulation B when it complies in good faith with a regulation promulgated by a government agency implementing a special purpose credit program under § 202.8(a)(1). It is the agency’s responsibility to promulgate a regulation that is consistent with federal and state law.
3. Expressly authorized. Credit programs authorized by federal or state law include programs offered pursuant to federal, state, or local statute, regulation or ordinance, or pursuant to judicial or administrative order.
4. Creditor liability. A refusal to grant credit to an applicant is not a violation of the Act or regulation if the applicant does not meet the eligibility requirements under a special purpose credit program.
5. Determining need. In designing a special purpose credit program under § 202.8(a), a for-profit organization must determine that the program will benefit a class of people who would otherwise be denied credit or would receive it on less favorable terms. This determination can be based on a broad analysis using the organization’s own research or data from outside sources, including governmental reports and studies. For example, a creditor might design new products to reach consumers who would not meet, or have not met, its traditional standards of creditworthiness due to such factors as credit inexperience or the use of credit sources that may not report to consumer reporting agencies. Or, a bank could review Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data along with demographic data for its assessment area and conclude that there is a need for a special purpose credit program for low-income minority borrowers.
6. Elements of the program. The written plan must contain information that supports the need for the particular program. The plan also must either state a specific period of time for which the program will last, or contain a statement regarding when the program will be reevaluated to determine if there is a continuing need for it.
8(b) Rules in other sections.
1. Applicability of rules. A creditor that rejects an application because the applicant does not meet the eligibility requirements (common characteristic or financial need, for example) must nevertheless notify the applicant of action taken as required by § 202.9.
8(c) Special rule concerning requests and use of information.
1. Request of prohibited basis information. This section permits a creditor to request and consider certain information that would otherwise be prohibited by §§ 202.5 and 202.6 to determine an applicant’s eligibility for a particular program.
2. Examples. Examples of programs under which the creditor can ask for and consider information about a prohibited basis are:
i. Energy conservation programs to assist the elderly, for which the creditor must consider the applicant’s age.
ii. Programs under a Minority Enterprise Small Business Investment Corporation, for which a creditor must consider the applicant’s minority status.
8(d) Special rule in the case of financial need.
1. Request of prohibited basis information. This section permits a creditor to request and consider certain information that would otherwise be prohibited by §§ 202.5 and 202.6, and to require signatures that would otherwise be prohibited by § 202.7(d).
2. Examples. Examples of programs in which financial need is a criterion are:
i. Subsidized housing programs for low- to moderate-income households, for which a creditor may have to consider the applicant’s receipt of alimony or child support, the spouse’s or parents’ income, etc.
ii. Student loan programs based on the family’s financial need, for which a creditor may have to consider the spouse’s or parents’ financial resources.
3. Student loans. In a guaranteed student loan program, a creditor may obtain the signature of a parent as a guarantor when required by federal or state law or agency regulation, or when the student does not meet the creditor’s standards of creditworthiness. (See § 202.7(d)(1) and (5).) The creditor may not require an additional signature when a student has a work or credit history that satisfies the creditor’s standards.
1. Use of the term adverse action. The regulation does not require that a creditor use the term adverse action in communicating to an applicant that a request for an extension of credit has not been approved. In notifying an applicant of adverse action as defined by § 202.2(c)(1), a creditor may use any words or phrases that describe the action taken on the application.
2. Expressly withdrawn applications. When an applicant expressly withdraws a credit application, the creditor is not required to comply with the notification requirements under § 202.9. (The creditor must comply, however, with the record retention requirements of the regulation. See § 202.12(b)(3).)
3. When notification occurs. Notification occurs when a creditor delivers or mails a notice to the applicant’s last known address or, in the case of an oral notification, when the creditor communicates the credit decision to the applicant.
4. Location of notice. The notifications required under § 202.9 may appear on either or both sides of a form or letter.
5. Prequalification requests. Whether a creditor must provide a notice of action taken for a prequalification request depends on the creditor’s response to the request, as discussed in comment 2(f)-3. For instance, a creditor may treat the request as an inquiry if the creditor evaluates specific information about the consumer and tells the consumer the loan amount, rate, and other terms of credit the consumer could qualify for under various loan programs, explaining the process the consumer must follow to submit a mortgage application and the information the creditor will analyze in reaching a credit decision. On the other hand, a creditor has treated a request as an application, and is subject to the adverse action notice requirements of § 202.9 if, after evaluating information, the creditor decides that it will not approve the request and communicates that decision to the consumer. For example, if the creditor tells the consumer that it would not approve an application for a mortgage because of a bankruptcy in the consumer’s record, the creditor has denied an application for credit.
9(a) Notification of action taken, ECOA notice, and statement of specific reasons.
1. Timing of notice – when an application is complete. Once a creditor has obtained all the information it normally considers in making a credit decision, the application is complete and the creditor has 30 days in which to notify the applicant of the credit decision. (See also comment 2(f)-6.)
2. Notification of approval. Notification of approval may be express or by implication. For example, the creditor will satisfy the notification requirement when it gives the applicant the credit card, money, property, or services requested.
3. Incomplete application – denial for incompleteness. When an application is incomplete regarding information that the applicant can provide and the creditor lacks sufficient data for a credit decision, the creditor may deny the application giving as the reason for denial that the application is incomplete. The creditor has the option, alternatively, of providing a notice of incompleteness under § 202.9(c).
4. Incomplete application – denial for reasons other than incompleteness. When an application is missing information but provides sufficient data for a credit decision, the creditor may evaluate the application, make its credit decision, and notify the applicant accordingly. If credit is denied, the applicant must be given the specific reasons for the credit denial (or notice of the right to receive the reasons); in this instance missing information or “incomplete application” cannot be given as the reason for the denial.
5. Length of counteroffer. Section 202.9(a)(1)(iv) does not require a creditor to hold a counteroffer open for 90 days or any other particular length of time.
6. Counteroffer combined with adverse action notice. A creditor that gives the applicant a combined counteroffer and adverse action notice that complies with § 202.9(a)(2) need not send a second adverse action notice if the applicant does not accept the counteroffer. A sample of a combined notice is contained in form C-4 of Appendix C to the regulation.
7. Denial of a telephone application. When an application is made by telephone and adverse action is taken, the creditor must request the applicant’s name and address in order to provide written notification under this section. If the applicant declines to provide that information, then the creditor has no further notification responsibility.
1. Coverage. In determining which rules in this paragraph apply to a given business credit application, a creditor may rely on the applicant’s assertion about the revenue size of the business. (Applications to start a business are governed by the rules in § 202.9(a)(3)(i).) If an applicant applies for credit as a sole proprietor, the revenues of the sole proprietorship will determine which rules govern the application. However, if an applicant applies for business credit as an individual, the rules in § 202.9(a)(3)(i) apply unless the application is for trade or similar credit.
2. Trade credit. The term trade credit generally is limited to a financing arrangement that involves a buyer and a seller – such as a supplier who finances the sale of equipment, supplies, or inventory; it does not apply to an extension of credit by a bank or other financial institution for the financing of such items.
3. Factoring. Factoring refers to a purchase of accounts receivable, and thus is not subject to the Act or regulation. If there is a credit extension incident to the factoring arrangement, the notification rules in § 202.9(a)(3)(ii) apply, as do other relevant sections of the Act and regulation.
4. Manner of compliance. In complying with the notice provisions of the Act and regulation, creditors offering business credit may follow the rules governing consumer credit. Similarly, creditors may elect to treat all business credit the same (irrespective of revenue size) by providing notice in accordance with § 202.9(a)(3)(i).
5. Timing of notification. A creditor subject to § 202.9(a)(3)(ii)(A) is required to notify a business credit applicant, orally or in writing, of action taken on an application within a reasonable time of receiving a completed application. Notice provided in accordance with the timing requirements of § 202.9(a)(1) is deemed reasonable in all instances.
9(b) Form of ECOA notice and statement of specific reasons.
1. Substantially similar notice. The ECOA notice sent with a notification of a credit denial or other adverse action will comply with the regulation if it is “substantially similar” to the notice contained in § 202.9(b)(1). For example, a creditor may add a reference to the fact that the ECOA permits age to be considered in certain credit scoring systems, or add a reference to a similar state statute or regulation and to a state enforcement agency.
1. Number of specific reasons. A creditor must disclose the principal reasons for denying an application or taking other adverse action. The regulation does not mandate that a specific number of reasons be disclosed, but disclosure of more than four reasons is not likely to be helpful to the applicant.
2. Source of specific reasons. The specific reasons disclosed under §§ 202.9(a)(2) and (b)(2) must relate to and accurately describe the factors actually considered or scored by a creditor.
3. Description of reasons. A creditor need not describe how or why a factor adversely affected an applicant. For example, the notice may say “length of residence” rather than “too short a period of residence.”
4. Credit scoring system. If a creditor bases the denial or other adverse action on a credit scoring system, the reasons disclosed must relate only to those factors actually scored in the system. Moreover, no factor that was a principal reason for adverse action may be excluded from disclosure. The creditor must disclose the actual reasons for denial (for example, “age of automobile”) even if the relationship of that factor to predicting creditworthiness may not be clear to the applicant.
5. Credit scoring – method for selecting reasons. The regulation does not require that any one method be used for selecting reasons for a credit denial or other adverse action that is based on a credit scoring system. Various methods will meet the requirements of the regulation. One method is to identify the factors for which the applicant’s score fell furthest below the average score for each of those factors achieved by applicants whose total score was at or slightly above the minimum passing score. Another method is to identify the factors for which the applicant’s score fell furthest below the average score for each of those factors achieved by all applicants. These average scores could be calculated during the development or use of the system. Any other method that produces results substantially similar to either of these methods is also acceptable under the regulation.
6. Judgmental system. If a creditor uses a judgmental system, the reasons for the denial or other adverse action must relate to those factors in the applicant’s record actually reviewed by the person making the decision.
7. Combined credit scoring and judgmental system. If a creditor denies an application based on a credit evaluation system that employs both credit scoring and judgmental components, the reasons for the denial must come from the component of the system that the applicant failed. For example, if a creditor initially credit scores an application and denies the credit request as a result of that scoring, the reasons disclosed to the applicant must relate to the factors scored in the system. If the application passes the credit scoring stage but the creditor then denies the credit request based on a judgmental assessment of the applicant’s record, the reasons disclosed must relate to the factors reviewed judgmentally, even if the factors were also considered in the credit scoring component. If the application is not approved or denied as a result of the credit scoring, but falls into a gray band, and the creditor performs a judgmental assessment and denies the credit after that assessment, the reasons disclosed must come from both components of the system. The same result applies where a judgmental assessment is the first component of the combined system. As provided in comment 9(b)(2)-1, disclosure of more than a combined total of four reasons is not likely to be helpful to the applicant.
8. Automatic denial. Some credit decision methods contain features that call for automatic denial because of one or more negative factors in the applicant’s record (such as the applicant’s previous bad credit history with that creditor, the applicant’s declaration of bankruptcy, or the fact that the applicant is a minor). When a creditor denies the credit request because of an automatic-denial factor, the creditor must disclose that specific factor.
9. Combined ECOA-FCRA disclosures. The ECOA requires disclosure of the principal reasons for denying or taking other adverse action on an application for an extension of credit. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) requires a creditor to disclose when it has based its decision in whole or in part on information from a source other than the applicant or its own files. Disclosing that a consumer report was obtained and used in the denial of the application, as the FCRA requires, does not satisfy the ECOA requirement to disclose specific reasons. For example, if the applicant’s credit history reveals delinquent credit obligations and the application is denied for that reason, to satisfy § 202.9(b)(2) the creditor must disclose that the application was denied because of the applicant’s delinquent credit obligations. The FCRA also requires a creditor to disclose, as applicable, a credit score it used in taking adverse action along with related information, including up to four key factors that adversely affected the consumer’s credit score (or up to five factors if the number of inquiries made with respect to that consumer report is a key factor). Disclosing the key factors that adversely affected the consumer’s credit score does not satisfy the ECOA requirement to disclose specific reasons for denying or taking other adverse action on an application or extension of credit. Sample forms C-1 through C-5 of appendix C of the regulation provide for both the ECOA and FCRA disclosures. See also comment 9(a)(2)-1.
9(c) Incomplete applications.
1. Exception for preapprovals. The requirement to provide a notice of incompleteness does not apply to preapprovals that constitute applications under § 202.2(f).
1. Reapplication. If information requested by a creditor is submitted by an applicant after the expiration of the time period designated by the creditor, the creditor may require the applicant to make a new application.
1. Oral inquiries for additional information. If an applicant fails to provide the information in response to an oral request, a creditor must send a written notice to the applicant within the 30-day period specified in § 202.9(c)(1) and (2). If the applicant provides the information, the creditor must take action on the application and notify the applicant in accordance with § 202.9(a).
9(g) Applications submitted through a third party.
1. Third parties. The notification of adverse action may be given by one of the creditors to whom an application was submitted, or by a noncreditor third party. If one notification is provided on behalf of multiple creditors, the notice must contain the name and address of each creditor. The notice must either disclose the applicant’s right to a statement of specific reasons within 30 days, or give the primary reasons each creditor relied upon in taking the adverse action – clearly indicating which reasons relate to which creditor.
2. Third party notice – enforcement agency. If a single adverse action notice is being provided to an applicant on behalf of several creditors and they are under the jurisdiction of different federal enforcement agencies, the notice need not name each agency; disclosure of any one of them will suffice.
3. Third-party notice – liability. When a notice is to be provided through a third party, a creditor is not liable for an act or omission of the third party that constitutes a violation of the regulation if the creditor accurately and in a timely manner provided the third party with the information necessary for the notification and maintains reasonable procedures adapted to prevent such violations.
1. Scope. The requirements of § 202.10 for designating and reporting credit information apply only to consumer credit transactions. Moreover, they apply only to creditors that opt to furnish credit information to credit bureaus or to other creditors; there is no requirement that a creditor furnish credit information on its accounts.
2. Reporting on all accounts. The requirements of § 202.10 apply only to accounts held or used by spouses. However, a creditor has the option to designate all joint accounts (or all accounts with an authorized user) to reflect the participation of both parties, whether or not the accounts are held by persons married to each other.
3. Designating accounts. In designating accounts and reporting credit information, a creditor need not distinguish between accounts on which the spouse is an authorized user and accounts on which the spouse is a contractually liable party.
4. File and index systems. The regulation does not require the creation or maintenance of separate files in the name of each participant on a joint or user account, or require any other particular system of recordkeeping or indexing. It requires only that a creditor be able to report information in the name of each spouse on accounts covered by § 202.10. Thus, if a creditor receives a credit inquiry about the wife, it should be able to locate her credit file without asking the husband’s name.
10(a) Designation of accounts.
1. New parties. When new parties who are spouses undertake a legal obligation on an account, as in the case of a mortgage loan assumption, the creditor must change the designation on the account to reflect the new parties and must furnish subsequent credit information on the account in the new names.
2. Request to change designation of account. A request to change the manner in which information concerning an account is furnished does not alter the legal liability of either spouse on the account and does not require a creditor to change the name in which the account is maintained.
11(a) Inconsistent state laws.
1. Preemption determination – New York. The Board has determined that the following provisions in the state law of New York are preempted by the federal law, effective November 11, 1988:
i. Article 15, section 296a(1)(b) – Unlawful discriminatory practices in relation to credit on the basis of race, creed, color, national origin, age, sex, marital status, or disability. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars taking a prohibited basis into account when establishing eligibility for certain special-purpose credit programs.
ii. Article 15, section 296a(1)(c)’Unlawful discriminatory practice to make any record or inquiry based on race, creed, color, national origin, age, sex, marital status, or disability. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars a creditor from requesting and considering information regarding the particular characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) required for eligibility for special-purpose credit programs.
2. Preemption determination – Ohio. The Board has determined that the following provision in the state law of Ohio is preempted by the federal law, effective July 23, 1990:
i. Section 4112.021(B)(1) – Unlawful discriminatory practices in credit transactions. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars asking or favorably considering the age of an elderly applicant; prohibits the consideration of age in a credit scoring system; permits without limitation the consideration of age in real estate transactions; and limits the consideration of age in special-purpose credit programs to certain government-sponsored programs identified in the state law.
12(a) Retention of prohibited information.
1. Receipt of prohibited information. Unless the creditor specifically requested such information, a creditor does not violate this section when it receives prohibited information from a consumer reporting agency.
2. Use of retained information. Although a creditor may keep in its files prohibited information as provided in § 202.12(a), the creditor may use the information in evaluating credit applications only if permitted to do so by § 202.6.
12(b) Preservation of records.
1. Copies. Copies of the original record include carbon copies, photocopies, microfilm or microfiche copies, or copies produced by any other accurate retrieval system, such as documents stored and reproduced by computer. A creditor that uses a computerized or mechanized system need not keep a paper copy of a document (for example, of an adverse action notice) if it can regenerate all pertinent information in a timely manner for examination or other purposes.
2. Computerized decisions. A creditor that enters information items from a written application into a computerized or mechanized system and makes the credit decision mechanically, based only on the items of information entered into the system, may comply with § 202.12(b) by retaining the information actually entered. It is not required to store the complete written application, nor is it required to enter the remaining items of information into the system. If the transaction is subject to § 202.13, however, the creditor is required to enter and retain the data on personal characteristics in order to comply with the requirements of that section.
1. Withdrawn and brokered applications. In most cases, the 25-month retention period for applications runs from the date a notification is sent to the applicant granting or denying the credit requested. In certain transactions, a creditor is not obligated to provide a notice of the action taken. (See, for example, comment 9-2.) In such cases, the 25-month requirement runs from the date of application, as when:
i. An application is withdrawn by the applicant.
ii. An application is submitted to more than one creditor on behalf of the applicant, and the application is approved by one of the other creditors.
12(b)(6) Self-tests
1. The rule requires all written or recorded information about a self-test to be retained for 25 months after a self-test has been completed. For this purpose, a self-test is completed after the creditor has obtained the results and made a determination about what corrective action, if any, is appropriate. Creditors are required to retain information about the scope of the self-test, the methodology used and time period covered by the self-test, the report or results of the self-test including any analysis or conclusions, and any corrective action taken in response to the self-test.
12(b)(7) Preapplication marketing information.
1. Prescreened credit solicitations. The rule requires creditors to retain copies of prescreened credit solicitations. For purposes of this regulation, a prescreened solicitation is an “offer of credit” as described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(1) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act. A creditor complies with this rule if it retains a copy of each solicitation mailing that contains different terms, such as the amount of credit offered, annual percentage rate, or annual fee.
2. List of criteria. A creditor must retain the list of criteria used to select potential recipients. This includes the criteria used by the creditor both to determine the potential recipients of the particular solicitation and to determine who will actually be offered credit.
3. Correspondence. A creditor may retain correspondence relating to consumers’ complaints about prescreened solicitations in any manner that is reasonably accessible and is understandable to examiners. There is no requirement to establish a separate database or set of files for such correspondence, or to match consumer complaints with specific solicitation programs.
13(a) Information to be requested.
1. Natural person. Section 202.13 applies only to applications from natural persons.
2. Principal residence. The requirements of § 202.13 apply only if an application relates to a dwelling that is or will be occupied by the applicant as the principal residence. A credit application related to a vacation home or a rental unit is not covered. In the case of a two- to four-unit dwelling, the application is covered if the applicant intends to occupy one of the units as a principal residence.
3. Temporary financing. An application for temporary financing to construct a dwelling is not subject to § 202.13. But an application for both a temporary loan to finance construction of a dwelling and a permanent mortgage loan to take effect upon the completion of construction is subject to § 202.13.
4. New principal residence. A person can have only one principal residence at a time. However, if a person buys or builds a new dwelling that will become that person’s principal residence within a year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal residence for purposes of § 202.13.
5. Transactions not covered. The information-collection requirements of this section apply to applications for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling that is or will become the applicant’s principal residence. Therefore, applications for credit secured by the applicant’s principal residence but made primarily for a purpose other than the purchase or refinancing of the principal residence (such as loans for home improvement and debt consolidation) are not subject to the information-collection requirements. An application for an open-end home equity line of credit is not subject to this section unless it is readily apparent to the creditor when the application is taken that the primary purpose of the line is for the purchase or refinancing of a principal dwelling.
6. Refinancings. A refinancing occurs when an existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same borrower. A creditor that receives an application to refinance an existing extension of credit made by that creditor for the purchase of the applicant’s dwelling may request the monitoring information again but is not required to do so if it was obtained in the earlier transaction.
7. Data collection under Regulation C. See comment 5(a)(2)-2.
13(b) Obtaining of information.
1. Forms for collecting data. A creditor may collect the information specified in § 202.13(a) either on an application form or on a separate form referring to the application. The applicant must be offered the option to select more than one racial designation.
2. Written applications. The regulation requires written applications for the types of credit covered by § 202.13. A creditor can satisfy this requirement by recording on paper or by means of computer the information that the applicant provides orally and that the creditor normally considers in a credit decision.
3. Telephone, mail applications.
i. A creditor that accepts an application by telephone or mail must request the monitoring information.
ii. A creditor that accepts an application by mail need not make a special request for the monitoring information if the applicant has failed to provide it on the application form returned to the creditor.
iii. If it is not evident on the face of an application that it was received by mail, telephone, or via an electronic medium, the creditor should indicate on the form or other application record how the application was received.
4. Video and other electronic-application processes.
i. If a creditor takes an application through an electronic medium that allows the creditor to see the applicant, the creditor must treat the application as taken in person. The creditor must note the monitoring information on the basis of visual observation or surname, if the applicant chooses not to provide the information.
ii. If an applicant applies through an electronic medium without video capability, the creditor treats the application as if it were received by mail.
5. Applications through loan-shopping services. When a creditor receives an application through an unaffiliated loan-shopping service, it does not have to request the monitoring information for purposes of the ECOA or Regulation B. Creditors subject to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act should be aware, however, that data collection may be called for under Regulation C (12 CFR part 203), which generally requires creditors to report, among other things, the sex and race of an applicant on brokered applications or applications received through a correspondent.
6. Inadvertent notation. If a creditor inadvertently obtains the monitoring information in a dwelling-related transaction not covered by § 202.13, the creditor may process and retain the application without violating the regulation.
13(c) Disclosure to applicants.
1. Procedures for providing disclosures. The disclosure to an applicant regarding the monitoring information may be provided in writing. Appendix B contains a sample disclosure. A creditor may devise its own disclosure so long as it is substantially similar. The creditor need not orally request the monitoring information if it is requested in writing.
13(d) Substitute monitoring program.
1. Substitute program. An enforcement agency may adopt, under its established rulemaking or enforcement procedures, a program requiring creditors under its jurisdiction to collect information in addition to information required by this section.
14(a) Providing appraisals.
1. Coverage. This section covers applications for credit to be secured by a lien on a dwelling, as that term is defined in § 202.14(c), whether the credit is for a business purpose (for example, a loan to start a business) or a consumer purpose (for example, a loan to finance a child’s education).
2. Renewals. This section applies when an applicant requests the renewal of an existing extension of credit and the creditor obtains a new appraisal report. This section does not apply when a creditor uses the appraisal report previously obtained to evaluate the renewal request.
14(a)(2)(i) Notice.
1. Multiple applicants. When an application that is subject to this section involves more than one applicant, the notice about the appraisal report need only be given to one applicant, but it must be given to the primary applicant where one is readily apparent.
14(a)(2)(ii) Delivery.
1. Reimbursement. Creditors may charge for photocopy and postage costs incurred in providing a copy of the appraisal report, unless prohibited by state or other law. If the consumer has already paid for the report – for example, as part of an application fee – the creditor may not require additional fees for the appraisal (other than photocopy and postage costs).
14(c) Definitions.
1. Appraisal reports. Examples of appraisal reports are:
i. A report prepared by an appraiser (whether or not licensed or certified), including written comments and other documents submitted to the creditor in support of the appraiser’s estimate or opinion of the property’s value.
ii. A document prepared by the creditor’s staff that assigns value to the property, if a third-party appraisal report has not been used.
iii. An internal review document reflecting that the creditor’s valuation is different from a valuation in a third party’s appraisal report (or different from valuations that are publicly available or valuations such as manufacturers’ invoices for mobile homes).
2. Other reports. The term “appraisal report” does not cover all documents relating to the value of the applicant’s property. Examples of reports not covered are:
i. Internal documents, if a third-party appraisal report was used to establish the value of the property.
ii. Governmental agency statements of appraised value.
iii. Valuations lists that are publicly available (such as published sales prices or mortgage amounts, tax assessments, and retail price ranges) and valuations such as manufacturers’ invoices for mobile homes.
15(a) General rules.
15(a)(1) Voluntary self-testing and correction.
1. Activities required by any governmental authority are not voluntary self-tests. A governmental authority includes both administrative and judicial authorities for federal, state, and local governments.
15(a)(2) Corrective action required.
1. To qualify for the privilege, appropriate corrective action is required when the results of a self-test show that it is more likely than not that there has been a violation of the ECOA or this regulation. A self-test is also privileged when it identifies no violations.
2. In some cases, the issue of whether certain information is privileged may arise before the self-test is complete or corrective actions are fully under way. This would not necessarily prevent a creditor from asserting the privilege. In situations where the self-test is not complete, for the privilege to apply the lender must satisfy the regulation’s requirements within a reasonable period of time. To assert the privilege where the self-test shows a likely violation, the rule requires, at a minimum, that the creditor establish a plan for corrective action and a method to demonstrate progress in implementing the plan. Creditors must take appropriate corrective action on a timely basis after the results of the self-test are known.
3. A creditor’s determination about the type of corrective action needed, or a finding that no corrective action is required, is not conclusive in determining whether the requirements of this paragraph have been satisfied. If a creditor’s claim of privilege is challenged, an assessment of the need for corrective action or the type of corrective action that is appropriate must be based on a review of the self-testing results, which may require an in camera inspection of the privileged documents.
15(a)(3) Other privileges.
1. A creditor may assert the privilege established under this section in addition to asserting any other privilege that may apply, such as the attorney-client privilege or the work-product privilege. Self-testing data may be privileged under this section whether or not the creditor’s assertion of another privilege is upheld.
15(b) Self-test defined.
15(b)(1) Definition.
1. To qualify for the privilege, a self-test must be sufficient to constitute a determination of the extent or effectiveness of the creditor’s compliance with the Act and Regulation B. Accordingly, a self-test is only privileged if it was designed and used for that purpose. A self-test that is designed or used to determine compliance with other laws or regulations or for other purposes is not privileged under this rule. For example, a self-test designed to evaluate employee efficiency or customers’ satisfaction with the level of service provided by the creditor is not privileged even if evidence of discrimination is uncovered incidentally. If a self-test is designed for multiple purposes, only the portion designed to determine compliance with the ECOA is eligible for the privilege.
1. The principal attribute of self-testing is that it constitutes a voluntary undertaking by the creditor to produce new data or factual information that otherwise would not be available and could not be derived from loan or application files or other records related to credit transactions. Self-testing includes, but is not limited to, the practice of using fictitious applicants for credit (testers), either with or without the use of matched pairs. A creditor may elect to test a defined segment of its business, for example, loan applications processed by a specific branch or loan officer, or applications made for a particular type of credit or loan program. A creditor also may use other methods of generating information that is not available in loan and application files, such as surveying mortgage loan applicants. To the extent permitted by law, creditors might also develop new methods that go beyond traditional pre-application testing, such as hiring testers to submit fictitious loan applications for processing.
2. The privilege does not protect a creditor’s analysis performed as part of processing or underwriting a credit application. A creditor’s evaluation or analysis of its loan files, Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data, or similar types of records (such as broker or loan officer compensation records) does not produce new information about a creditor’s compliance and is not a self-test for purposes of this section. Similarly, a statistical analysis of data derived from existing loan files is not privileged.
15(b)(3) Types of information not privileged.
1. The information listed in this paragraph is not privileged and may be used to determine whether the prerequisites for the privilege have been satisfied. Accordingly, a creditor might be asked to identify the self-testing method, for example, whether preapplication testers were used or data were compiled by surveying loan applicants. Information about the scope of the self-test (such as the types of credit transactions examined, or the geographic area covered by the test) also is not privileged.
1. Property appraisal reports, minutes of loan committee meetings or other documents reflecting the basis for a decision to approve or deny an application, loan policies or procedures, underwriting standards, and broker compensation records are examples of the types of records that are not privileged. If a creditor arranges for testers to submit loan applications for processing, the records are not related to actual credit transactions for purposes of this paragraph and may be privileged self-testing records.
15(c) Appropriate corrective action.
1. The rule only addresses the corrective actions required for a creditor to take advantage of the privilege in this section. A creditor may be required to take other actions or provide additional relief if a formal finding of discrimination is made.
15(c)(1) General requirement.
1. Appropriate corrective action is required even though no violation has been formally adjudicated or admitted by the creditor. In determining whether it is more likely than not that a violation occurred, a creditor must treat testers as if they are actual applicants for credit. A creditor may not refuse to take appropriate corrective action under this section because the self-test used fictitious loan applicants. The fact that a tester’s agreement with the creditor waives the tester’s legal right to assert a violation does not eliminate the requirement for the creditor to take corrective action, although no remedial relief for the tester is required under paragraph 15(c)(3).
15(c)(2) Determining the scope of appropriate corrective action.
1. Whether a creditor has taken or is taking corrective action that is appropriate will be determined on a case-by-case basis. Generally, the scope of the corrective action that is needed to preserve the privilege is governed by the scope of the self-test. For example, a creditor that self-tests mortgage loans and discovers evidence of discrimination may focus its corrective actions on mortgage loans, and is not required to expand its testing to other types of loans.
2. In identifying the policies or practices that are a likely cause of the violation, a creditor might identify inadequate or improper lending policies, failure to implement established policies, employee conduct, or other causes. The extent and scope of a likely violation may be assessed by determining which areas of operations are likely to be affected by those policies and practices, for example, by determining the types of loans and stages of the application process involved and the branches or offices where the violations may have occurred.
3. Depending on the method and scope of the self-test and the results of the test, appropriate corrective action may include one or more of the following:
i. If the self-test identifies individuals whose applications were inappropriately processed, offering to extend credit if the application was improperly denied and compensating such persons for out-of-pocket costs and other compensatory damages;
ii. Correcting institutional policies or procedures that may have contributed to the likely violation, and adopting new policies as appropriate;
iii. Identifying and then training and/or disciplining the employees involved;
iv. Developing outreach programs, marketing strategies, or loan products to serve more effectively segments of the lender’s markets that may have been affected by the likely discrimination; and
v. Improving audit and oversight systems to avoid a recurrence of the likely violations.
15(c)(3) Types of relief.
1. The use of pre-application testers to identify policies and practices that illegally discriminate does not require creditors to review existing loan files for the purpose of identifying and compensating applicants who might have been adversely affected.
2. If a self-test identifies a specific applicant who was discriminated against on a prohibited basis, to qualify for the privilege in this section the creditor must provide appropriate remedial relief to that applicant; the creditor is not required to identify other applicants who might also have been adversely affected.
1. A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to an applicant that would not be available by law. An applicant might also be ineligible for certain types of relief due to changed circumstances. For example, a creditor is not required to offer credit to a denied applicant if the applicant no longer qualifies for the credit due to a change in financial circumstances, although some other type of relief might be appropriate.
15(d)(1) Scope of privilege.
1. The privilege applies with respect to any examination, investigation or proceeding by federal, state, or local government agencies relating to compliance with the Act or this regulation. Accordingly, in a case brought under the ECOA, the privilege established under this section preempts any inconsistent laws or court rules to the extent they might require disclosure of privileged self-testing data. The privilege does not apply in other cases (such as in litigation filed solely under a state’s fair lending statute). In such cases, if a court orders a creditor to disclose self-test results, the disclosure is not a voluntary disclosure or waiver of the privilege for purposes of paragraph 15(d)(2); a creditor may protect the information by seeking a protective order to limit availability and use of the self-testing data and prevent dissemination beyond what is necessary in that case. Paragraph 15(d)(1) precludes a party who has obtained privileged information from using it in a case brought under the ECOA, provided the creditor has not lost the privilege through voluntary disclosure under paragraph 15(d)(2).
15(d)(2) Loss of privilege.
1. A creditor’s corrective action, by itself, is not considered a voluntary disclosure of the self-test report or results. For example, a creditor does not disclose the results of a self-test merely by offering to extend credit to a denied applicant or by inviting the applicant to reapply for credit. Voluntary disclosure could occur under this paragraph, however, if the creditor disclosed the self-test results in connection with a new offer of credit.
2. The disclosure of self-testing results to an independent contractor acting as an auditor or consultant for the creditor on compliance matters does not result in loss of the privilege.
1. The privilege is lost if the creditor discloses privileged information, such as the results of the self-test. The privilege is not lost if the creditor merely reveals or refers to the existence of the self-test.
1. A creditor’s claim of privilege may be challenged in a court or administrative law proceeding with appropriate jurisdiction. In resolving the issue, the presiding officer may require the creditor to produce privileged information about the self-test.
1. A creditor may be required to produce privileged documents for the purpose of determining a penalty or remedy after a violation of the ECOA or Regulation B has been formally adjudicated or admitted. A creditor’s compliance with such a requirement does not evidence the creditor’s intent to forfeit the privilege.
17(c) Failure of compliance.
1. Inadvertent errors. Inadvertent errors include, but are not limited to, clerical mistake, calculation error, computer malfunction, and printing error. An error of legal judgment is not an inadvertent error under the regulation.
2. Correction of error. For inadvertent errors that occur under §§ 202.12 and 202.13, this section requires that they be corrected prospectively.
1. Freddie Mac/Fannie Mae form – residential loan application. The uniform residential loan application form (Freddie Mac 65/Fannie Mae 1003), including supplemental form (Freddie Mac 65A/Fannie Mae 1003A), prepared by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and the Federal National Mortgage Association and dated October 1992 may be used by creditors without violating this regulation. Creditors that are governed by the monitoring requirements of this regulation (which limits collection to applications primarily for the purchase or refinancing of the applicant’s principal residence) should delete, strike, or modify the data-collection section on the form when using it for transactions not covered by § 202.13(a) to ensure that they do not collect the information. Creditors that are subject to more extensive collection requirements by a substitute monitoring program under § 202.13(d) or by the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) may use the form as issued, in compliance with the substitute program or HMDA.
2. FHLMC/FNMA form – home improvement loan application. The home-improvement and energy loan application form (FHLMC 703/FNMA 1012), prepared by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and the Federal National Mortgage Association and dated October 1986, complies with the requirements of the regulation for some creditors but not others because of the form’s section “Information for Government Monitoring Purposes.” Creditors that are governed by § 202.13(a) of the regulation (which limits collection to applications primarily for the purchase or refinancing of the applicant’s principal residence) should delete, strike, or modify the data-collection section on the form when using it for transactions not covered by § 202.13(a) to ensure that they do not collect the information. Creditors that are subject to more extensive collection requirements by a substitute monitoring program under § 202.13(d) may use the form as issued, in compliance with that substitute program.
1. Form C-9. Creditors may design their own form, add to, or modify the model form to reflect their individual policies and procedures. For example, a creditor may want to add:
i. A telephone number that applicants may call to leave their name and the address to which an appraisal report should be sent.
ii. A notice of the cost the applicant will be required to pay the creditor for the appraisal or a copy of the report.
PART 203 [RESERVED]
PART 204 – RESERVE REQUIREMENTS OF DEPOSITORY INSTITUTIONS (REGULATION D)
§ 204.1 Authority, purpose and scope.
(a) Authority. This part is issued under the authority of section 19 (12 U.S.C. 461 et seq.) and other provisions of the Federal Reserve Act and of section 7 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3105).
(b) Purpose. This part relates to reserve requirements imposed on depository institutions for the purpose of facilitating the implementation of monetary policy by the Federal Reserve System.
(c) Scope. (1) The following depository institutions are required to maintain reserves in accordance with this part:
(i) Any insured bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) or any bank that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1815);
(ii) Any savings bank or mutual savings bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(f), (g));
(iii) Any insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)) or any credit union that is eligible to apply to become an insured credit union under section 201 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1781);
(iv) Any member as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(4)); and
(v) Any insured institution as defined in section 401 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1724(a)) or any institution which is eligible to apply to become an insured institution under section 403 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1726).
(2) Except as may be otherwise provided by the Board, a foreign bank’s branch or agency located in the United States is required to comply with the provisions of this part in the same manner and to the same extent as if the branch or agency were a member bank, if its parent foreign bank (i) has total worldwide consolidated bank assets in excess of $1 billion; or (ii) is controlled by a foreign company or by a group of foreign companies that own or control foreign banks that in the aggregate have total worldwide consolidated bank assets in excess of $1 billion. In addition, any other foreign bank’s branch located in the United States that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1815) is required to maintain reserves in accordance with this part as a nonmember depository institution.
(3) Except as may be otherwise provided by the Board, an Edge Corporation (12 U.S.C. 611 et seq.) or an Agreement Corporation (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq.) is required to comply with the provisions of this part in the same manner and to the same extent as a member bank.
(4) This part does not apply to any financial institution that (i) is organized solely to do business with other financial institutions; (ii) is owned primarily by the financial institutions with which it does business; and (iii) does not do business with the general public.
(5) The provisions of this part do not apply to any deposit that is payable only at an office located outside the United States.
§ 204.2 Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply unless otherwise specified:
(a)(1) Deposit means:
(i) The unpaid balance of money or its equivalent received or held by a depository institution in the usual course of business and for which it has given or is obligated to give credit, either conditionally or unconditionally, to an account, including interest credited, or which is evidenced by an instrument on which the depository institution is primarily liable;
(ii) Money received or held by a depository institution, or the credit given for money or its equivalent received or held by the depository institution in the usual course of business for a special or specific purpose, regardless of the legal relationships established thereby, including escrow funds, funds held as security for securities loaned by the depository institution, funds deposited as advance payment on subscriptions to United States government securities, and funds held to meet its acceptances;
(iii) An outstanding teller’s check, or an outstanding draft, certified check, cashier’s check, money order, or officer’s check drawn on the depository institution, issued in the usual course of business for any purpose, including payment for services, dividends or purchases;
(iv) Any due bill or other liability or undertaking on the part of a depository institution to sell or deliver securities to, or purchase securities for the account of, any customer (including another depository institution), involving either the receipt of funds by the depository institution, regardless of the use of the proceeds, or a debit to an account of the customer before the securities are delivered. A deposit arises thereafter, if after three business days from the date of issuance of the obligation, the depository institution does not deliver the securities purchased or does not fully collateralize its obligation with securities similar to the securities purchased. A security is similar if it is of the same type and if it is of comparable maturity to that purchased by the customer;
(v) Any liability of a depository institution’s affiliate that is not a depository institution, on any promissory note, acknowledgment of advance, due bill, or similar obligation (written or oral), with a maturity of less than one and one-half years, to the extent that the proceeds are used to supply or to maintain the availability of funds (other than capital) to the depository institution, except any such obligation that, had it been issued directly by the depository institution, would not constitute a deposit. If an obligation of an affiliate of a depository institution is regarded as a deposit and is used to purchase assets from the depository institution, the maturity of the deposit is determined by the shorter of the maturity of the obligation issued or the remaining maturity of the assets purchased. If the proceeds from an affiliate’s obligation are placed in the depository institution in the form of a reservable deposit, no reserves need be maintained against the obligation of the affiliate since reserves are required to be maintained against the deposit issued by the depository institution. However, the maturity of the deposit issued to the affiliate shall be the shorter of the maturity of the affiliate’s obligation or the maturity of the deposit;
(vi) Credit balances;
(vii) Any liability of a depository institution on any promissory note, acknowledgment of advance, bankers’ acceptance, or similar obligation (written or oral), including mortgage-backed bonds, that is issued or undertaken by a depository institution as a means of obtaining funds, except any such obligation that:
(A) Is issued or undertaken and held for the account of:
(1) An office located in the United States of another depository institution, foreign bank, Edge or Agreement Corporation, or New York Investment (Article XII) Company;
(2) The United States government or an agency thereof; or
(3) The Export-Import Bank of the United States, Minbanc Capital Corporation, the Government Development Bank for Puerto Rico, a Federal Reserve Bank, a Federal Home Loan Bank, or the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility;
(B) Arises from a transfer of direct obligations of, or obligations that are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States Government or any agency thereof that the depository institution is obligated to repurchase;
(C) Is not insured by a Federal agency, is subordinated to the claims of depositors, has a weighted average maturity of five years or more, and is issued by a depository institution with the approval of, or under the rules and regulations of, its primary Federal supervisor;
(D) Arises from a borrowing by a depository institution from a dealer in securities, for one business day, of proceeds of a transfer of deposit credit in a Federal Reserve Bank or other immediately available funds (commonly referred to as Federal funds), received by such dealer on the date of the loan in connection with clearance of securities transactions; or
(E) Arises from the creation, discount and subsequent sale by a depository institution of its bankers’ acceptance of the type described in paragraph 7 of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372).
(viii) Any liability of a depository institution that arises from the creation after June 20, 1983, of a bankers’ acceptance that is not of the type described in paragraph 7 of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372) except any such liability held for the account of an entity specified in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A); or
(2) Deposit does not include:
(i) Trust funds received or held by the depository institution that it keeps properly segregated as trust funds and apart from its general assets or which it deposits in another institution to the credit of itself as trustee or other fiduciary. If trust funds are deposited with the commercial department of the depository institution or otherwise mingled with its general assets, a deposit liability of the institution is created;
(ii) An obligation that represents a conditional, contingent or endorser’s liability;
(iii) Obligations, the proceeds of which are not used by the depository institution for purposes of making loans, investments, or maintaining liquid assets such as cash or “due from” depository institutions or other similar purposes. An obligation issued for the purpose of raising funds to purchase business premises, equipment, supplies, or similar assets is not a deposit;
(iv) Accounts payable;
(v) Hypothecated deposits created by payments on an installment loan where (A) the amounts received are not used immediately to reduce the unpaid balance due on the loan until the sum of the payments equals the entire amount of loan principal and interest; (B) and where such amounts are irrevocably assigned to the depository institution and cannot be reached by the borrower or creditors of the borrower;
(vi) Dealer reserve and differential accounts that arise from the financing of dealer installment accounts receivable, and which provide that the dealer may not have access to the funds in the account until the installment loans are repaid, as long as the depository institution is not actually (as distinguished from contingently) obligated to make credit or funds available to the dealer;
(vii) A dividend declared by a depository institution for the period intervening between the date of the declaration of the dividend and the date on which it is paid;
(viii) An obligation representing a pass through account, as defined in this section;
(ix) An obligation arising from the retention by the depository institution of no more than a 10 per cent interest in a pool of conventional 1-4 family mortgages that are sold to third parties;
(x) An obligation issued to a State or municipal housing authority under a loan-to-lender program involving the issuance of tax exempt bonds and the subsequent lending of the proceeds to the depository institution for housing finance purposes;
(xi) Shares of a credit union held by the National Credit Union Administration or the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility under a statutorily authorized assistance program; and
(xii) Any liability of a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank to another United States branch or agency of the same foreign bank, or the liability of the United States office of an Edge Corporation to another United States office of the same Edge Corporation.
(b)(1) Demand deposit means a deposit that is payable on demand, or a deposit issued with an original maturity or required notice period of less than seven days, or a deposit representing funds for which the depository institution does not reserve the right to require at least seven days’ written notice of an intended withdrawal. Demand deposits may be in the form of:
(i) Checking accounts;
(ii) Certified, cashier’s, teller’s, and officer’s checks (including such checks issued in payment of dividends);
(iii) Traveler’s checks and money orders that are primary obligations of the issuing institution;
(iv) Checks or drafts drawn by, or on behalf of, a non-United States office of a depository institution on an account maintained at any of the institution’s United States offices;
(v) Letters of credit sold for cash or its equivalent;
(vi) Withheld taxes, withheld insurance and other withheld funds;
(vii) Time deposits that have matured or time deposits upon which the contractually required notice of withdrawal as given and the notice period has expired and which have not been renewed (either by action of the depositor or automatically under the terms of the deposit agreement); and
(viii) An obligation to pay, on demand or within six days, a check (or other instrument, device, or arrangement for the transfer of funds) drawn on the depository institution, where the account of the institution’s customer already has been debited.
(2) The term demand deposit also means deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days’ written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and from which the depositor is authorized to make withdrawals or transfers in excess of the withdrawal or transfer limitations specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section for such an account and the account is not a NOW account, or an ATS account or other account that meets the criteria specified in either paragraph (b)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section.
(3) Demand deposit does not include:
(i) Any account that is a time deposit or a savings deposit under this part;
(ii) Any deposit or account on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days’ written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and either –
(A) Is subject to check, draft, negotiable order of withdrawal, share draft, or similar item, such as an account authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1832(a) (NOW account) and a savings deposit described in § 204.2(d)(2), provided that the depositor is eligible to hold a NOW account; or
(B) From which the depositor is authorized to make transfers by preauthorized transfer or telephonic (including data transmission) agreement, order or instruction to another account or to a third party, provided that the depositor is eligible to hold a NOW account;
(iii) Any deposit or account on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days’ written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and from which withdrawals may be made automatically through payment to the depository institution itself or through transfer of credit to a demand deposit or other account in order to cover checks or drafts drawn upon the institution or to maintain a specified balance in, or to make periodic transfers to such other account, such as accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 371a (automatic transfer account or ATS account), provided that the depositor is eligible to hold an ATS account; or
(iv) IBF time deposits meeting the requirements of § 204.8(a)(2).
(c)(1) Time deposit means:
(i) A deposit that the depositor does not have a right and is not permitted to make withdrawals from within six days after the date of deposit unless the deposit is subject to an early withdrawal penalty of at least seven days’ simple interest on amounts withdrawn within the first six days after deposit.
(a) Where the time deposit is maintained in an individual retirement account established in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 408 and is paid within seven days after establishment of the individual retirement account pursuant to 26 CFR 1.408-6(d)(4), where it is maintained in a Keogh (H.R. 10) plan, or where it is maintained in a 401(k) plan under 26 U.S.C. 401(k); Provided that the depositor forfeits an amount at least equal to the simple interest earned on the amount withdrawn;
(b) Where the depository institution pays all or a portion of a time deposit representing funds contributed to an individual retirement account or a Keogh (H.R.10) plan established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 408 or 26 U.S.C. 401 or to a 401(k) plan established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 401(k) when the individual for whose benefit the account is maintained attains age 59
(c) Where the depository institution pays that portion of a time deposit on which federal deposit insurance has been lost as a result of the merger of two or more federally insured banks in which the depositor previously maintained separate time deposits, for a period of one year from the date of the merger;
(d) Upon the death of any owner of the time deposit funds;
(e) When any owner of the time deposit is determined to be legally incompetent by a court or other administrative body of competent jurisdiction; or
(f) Where a time deposit is withdrawn within ten days after a specified maturity date even though the deposit contract provided for automatic renewal at the maturity date.
(A) Payable on a specified date not less than seven days after the date of deposit;
(B) Payable at the expiration of a specified time not less than seven days after the date of deposit;
(C) Payable only upon written notice that is actually required to be given by the depositor not less than seven days prior to withdrawal;
(D) Held in club accounts (such as Christmas club accounts and vacation club accounts that are not maintained as savings deposits) that are deposited under written contracts providing that no withdrawal shall be made until a certain number of periodic deposits have been made during a period of not less than three months even though some of the deposits may be made within six days from the end of the period; or
(E) Share certificates and certificates of indebtedness issued by credit unions, and certificate accounts and notice accounts issued by savings and loan associations;
(ii) An IBF time deposit meeting the requirements of § 204.8(a)(2); and
(iii) Borrowings, regardless of maturity, represented by a promissory note, an acknowledgment of advance, or similar obligation described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii) that is issued to, or any bankers’ acceptance (other than the type described in 12 U.S.C. 372) of the depository institution held by –
(A) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution or Edge or agreement corporation organized under the laws of the United States;
(B) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
(C) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof,
(D) An international entity of which the United States is a member; or
(E) Any other foreign, international, or supranational entity specifically designated by the Board.
(2) A time deposit may be represented by a transferable or nontransferable, or a negotiable or nonnegotiable, certificate, instrument, passbook, or statement, or by book entry or otherwise.
(d)(1) Savings deposit means a deposit or account with respect to which the depositor is not required by the deposit contract but may at any time be required by the depository institution to give written notice of an intended withdrawal not less than seven days before withdrawal is made, and that is not payable on a specified date or at the expiration of a specified time after the date of deposit. The term savings deposit includes a regular share account at a credit union and a regular account at a savings and loan association.
(2) The term “savings deposit” also means: A deposit or account, such as an account commonly known as a passbook savings account, a statement savings account, or as a money market deposit account (MMDA), that otherwise meets the requirements in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and from which, under the terms of the deposit contract or by practice of the depository institution, the depositor may be permitted or authorized to make transfers and withdrawals to another account (including a transaction account) of the depositor at the same institution or to a third party, regardless of the number of such transfers and withdrawals or the manner in which such transfers and withdrawals are made.
(3) A deposit may continue to be classified as a savings deposit even if the depository institution exercises its right to require notice of withdrawal.
(4) Savings deposit does not include funds deposited to the credit of the depository institution’s own trust department where the funds involved are utilized to cover checks or drafts. Such funds are transaction accounts.
(e) Transaction account means a deposit or account from which the depositor or account holder is permitted to make transfers or withdrawals by negotiable or transferable instrument, payment order of withdrawal, telephone transfer, or other similar device for the purpose of making payments or transfers to third persons or others or from which the depositor may make third party payments at an automated teller machine (ATM) or a remote service unit, or other electronic device, including by debit card. Transaction account includes:
(1) Demand deposits;
(2) Deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days’ written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and that are subject to check, draft, negotiable order of withdrawal, share draft, or other similar item, including accounts described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section (savings deposits) and including accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1832(a) (NOW accounts).
(3) Deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days’ written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and from which withdrawals may be made automatically through payment to the depository institution itself or through transfer or credit to a demand deposit or other account in order to cover checks or drafts drawn upon the institution or to maintain a specified balance in, or to make periodic transfers to such accounts, including accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 371a (automatic transfer accounts or ATS accounts).
(4) Deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days’ written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and under the terms of which, or by practice of the depository institution, the depositor is permitted or authorized to make withdrawals for the purposes of transferring funds to another account of the depositor at the same institution (including transaction account) or for making payment to a third party, regardless of the number of such transfers and withdrawals and regardless of the manner in which such transfers and withdrawals are made.
(5) Deposits or accounts maintained in connection with an arrangement that permits the depositor to obtain credit directly or indirectly through the drawing of a negotiable or nonnegotiable check, draft, order or instruction or other similar device (including telephone or electronic order or instruction) on the issuing institution that can be used for the purpose of making payments or transfers to third persons or others or to a deposit account of the depositor.
(6) All deposits other than time deposits, including those accounts that are time deposits in form but that the Board has determined, by rule or order, to be transaction accounts.
(f)(1) Nonpersonal time deposit means:
(i) A time deposit, including an MMDA or any other savings deposit, representing funds in which any beneficial interest is held by a depositor which is not a natural person;
(ii) A time deposit, including an MMDA or any other savings deposit, that represents funds deposited to the credit of a depositor that is not a natural person, other than a deposit to the credit of a trustee or other fiduciary if the entire beneficial interest in the deposit is held by one or more natural persons;
(iii) A transferable time deposit. A time deposit is transferable unless it contains a specific statement on the certificate, instrument, passbook, statement or other form representing the account that it is not transferable. A time deposit that contains a specific statement that it is not transferable is not regarded as transferable even if the following transactions can be effected: a pledge as collateral for a loan, a transaction that occurs due to circumstances arising from death, incompetency, marriage, divorce, attachment, or otherwise by operation of law or a transfer on the books or records of the institution; and
(iv) A time deposit represented by a promissory note, an acknowledgment of advance, or similar obligation described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section that is issued to, or any bankers’ acceptance (other than the type described in 12 U.S.C. 372) of the depository institution held by:
(A) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution or Edge or agreement corporation organized under the laws of the United States;
(B) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
(C) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof,
(D) An international entity of which the United States is a member; or
(E) Any other foreign, international, or supranational entity specifically designated by the Board.
(2) Nonpersonal time deposit does not include nontransferable time deposits to the credit of or in which the entire beneficial interest is held by an individual pursuant to an individual retirement account or Keogh (H.R. 10) plan under 26 U.S.C. 408, 401, or non-transferable time deposits held by an employer as part of an unfunded deferred-compensation plan established pursuant to subtitle D of the Revenue Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-600, 92 Stat. 2763), or a 401(k) plan under 26 U.S.C. 401(k).
(g) Natural person means an individual or a sole proprietorship. The term does not mean a corporation owned by an individual, a partnership or other association.
(h) Eurocurrency liabilities means:
(1) For a depository institution or an Edge or Agreement Corporation organized under the laws of the United States, the sum, if positive, of the following:
(i) Net balances due to its non-United States offices and its international banking facilities (IBFs) from its United States offices;
(ii)(A) For a depository institution organized under the laws of the United States, assets (including participations) acquired from its United States offices and held by its non-United States offices, by its IBF, or by non-United States offices of an affiliated Edge or Agreement Corporation;
(B) For an Edge or Agreement Corporation, assets (including participations) acquired from its United States offices and held by its non-United States offices, by its IBF, by non-United States offices of its U.S. or foreign parent institution, or by non-United States offices of an affiliated Edge or Agreement Corporation; and
(iii) Credit outstanding from its non-United States offices to United States residents (other than assets acquired and net balances due from its United States offices), except credit extended (A) from its non-United States offices in the aggregate amount of $100,000 or less to any United States resident, (B) by a non-United States office that at no time during the computation period had credit outstanding to United States residents exceeding $1 million, (C) to an international banking facility, or (D) to an institution that will be maintaining reserves on such credit pursuant to this part. Credit extended from non-United States offices or from IBFs to a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate of other foreign establishment (foreign affiliate) controlled by one or more domestic corporations is not regarded as credit extended to a United States resident if the proceeds will be used to finance the operations outside the United States of the borrower or of other foreign affiliates of the controlling domestic corporation(s).
(2) For a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank, the sum, if positive, of the following:
(i) Net balances due to its foreign bank (including offices thereof located outside the United States) and its international banking facility after deducting an amount equal to 8 per cent of the following: the United States branch’s or agency’s total assets less the sum of (A) cash items in process of collection; (B) unposted debits; (C) demand balances due from depository institutions organized under the laws of the United States and from other foreign banks; (D) balances due from foreign central banks; and (E) positive net balances due from its IBF, its foreign bank, and the foreign bank’s United States and non-United States offices; and
(ii) Assets (including participations) acquired from the United States branch or agency (other than assets required to be sold by Federal or State supervisory authorities) and held by its foreign bank (including offices thereof located outside the United States), by its parent holding company, by non-United States offices or an IBF of an affiliated Edge or Agreement Corporation, or by its IBFs.
(i)(1) Cash item in process of collection means:
(i) Checks in the process of collection, drawn on a bank or other depository institution that are payable immediately upon presentation in the United States, including checks forwarded to a Federal Reserve Bank in process of collection and checks on hand that will be presented for payment or forwarded for collection on the following business day;
(ii) Government checks drawn on the Treasury of the United States that are in the process of collection; and
(iii) Such other items in the process of collection, that are payable immediately upon presentation in the United States and that are customarily cleared or collected by depository institutions as cash items, including:
(A) Drafts payable through another depository institution;
(B) Matured bonds and coupons (including bonds and coupons that have been called and are payable on presentation);
(C) Food coupons and certificates;
(D) Postal and other money orders, and traveler’s checks;
(E) Amounts credited to deposit accounts in connection with automated payment arrangements where such credits are made one business day prior to the scheduled payment date to insure that funds are available on the payment date;
(F) Commodity or bill of lading drafts payable immediately upon presentation in the United States;
(G) Returned items and unposted debits; and
(H) Broker security drafts.
(2) Cash item in process of collection does not include items handled as noncash collections and credit card sales slips and drafts.
(j) Net transaction accounts means the total amount of a depository institution’s transaction accounts less the deductions allowed under the provisions of § 204.3.
(k)(1) Vault cash means United States currency and coin owned and booked as an asset by a depository institution that may, at any time, be used to satisfy claims of that depository institution’s depositors and that meets the requirements of paragraph (k)(2)(i) or (k)(2)(ii) of this section.
(2) Vault cash must be either:
(i) Held at a physical location of the depository institution (including the depository institution’s proprietary ATMs) from which the institution’s depositors may make cash withdrawals; or
(ii) Held at an alternate physical location if –
(A) The depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash at all times retains full rights of ownership in and to the currency and coin held at the alternate physical location;
(B) The depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash at all times books the currency and coin held at the alternate physical location as an asset of the depository institution;
(C) No other depository institution claims the currency and coin held at the alternate physical location as vault cash in satisfaction of that other depository institution’s reserve requirements;
(D) The currency and coin held at the alternate physical location is reasonably nearby a location of the depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash at which its depositors may make cash withdrawals (an alternate physical location is considered “reasonably nearby” if the depository institution that claims the currency and coin as vault cash can recall the currency and coin from the alternate physical location by 10 a.m. and, relying solely on ground transportation, receive the currency and coin not later than 4 p.m. on the same calendar day at a location of the depository institution at which its depositors may make cash withdrawals); and
(E) The depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash has in place a written cash delivery plan and written contractual arrangements necessary to implement that plan that demonstrate that the currency and coin can be recalled and received in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (k)(2)(ii)(D) of this section at any time. The depository institution shall provide copies of the written cash delivery plan and written contractual arrangements to the Federal Reserve Bank that holds its account or to the Board upon request.
(3) “Vault cash” includes United States currency and coin in transit to a Federal Reserve Bank or a correspondent depository institution for which the reporting depository institution has not yet received credit, and United States currency and coin in transit from a Federal Reserve Bank or a correspondent depository institution when the reporting depository institution’s account at the Federal Reserve or correspondent bank has been charged for such shipment.
(4) Silver and gold coin and other currency and coin whose numismatic or bullion value is substantially in excess of face value is not vault cash for purposes of this part.
(l) Pass-through account means a balance maintained by a depository institution with a correspondent institution under § 204.5(d).
(m)(1) Depository institution means:
(i) Any insured bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) or any bank that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1815);
(ii) Any savings bank or mutual savings bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(f), (g));
(iii) Any insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)) or any credit union that is eligible to apply to become an insured credit union under section 201 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1781);
(iv) Any member as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(4)); and
(v) Any insured institution as defined in section 401 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1724(a)) or any institution which is eligible to apply to become an insured institution under section 403 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1726).
(2) Depository institution does not include international organizations such as the World Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank, and the Asian Development Bank.
(n) Member bank means a depository institution that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
(o) Foreign bank means any bank or other similar institution organized under the laws of any country other than the United States or organized under the laws of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, or other territory or possession of the United States.
(p) [Reserved]
(q) Affiliate includes any corporation, association, or other organization:
(1) Of which a depository institution, directly or indirectly, owns or controls either a majority of the voting shares or more than 50 percent of the numbers of shares voted for the election of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions;
(2) Of which control is held, directly or indirectly, through stock ownership or in any other manner, by the shareholders of a depository institution who own or control either a majority of the shares of such depository institution or more than 50 percent of the number of shares voted for the election of directors of such depository institution at the preceding election, or by trustees for the benefit of the shareholders of any such depository institution;
(3) Of which a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions are directors of any one depository institution; or
(4) Which owns or controls, directly or indirectly, either a majority of the shares of capital stock of a depository institution or more than 50 percent of the number of shares voted for the election of directors, trustees or other persons exercising similar functions of a depository institution at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions of a depository institution, or for the benefit of whose shareholders or members all or substantially all the capital stock of a depository institution is held by trustees.
(r) United States means the States of the United States and the District of Columbia.
(s) United States resident means (1) any individual residing (at the time of the transaction) in the United States; (2) any corporation, partnership, association or other entity organized in the United States (domestic corporation); and (3) any branch or office located in the United States of any entity that is not organized in the United States.
(t) Any deposit that is payable only at an office located outside the United States means (1) a deposit of a United States resident
(u) Teller’s check means a check drawn by a depository institution on another depository institution, a Federal Reserve Bank, or a Federal Home Loan Bank, or payable at or through a depository institution, a Federal Reserve Bank, or a Federal Home Loan Bank, and which the drawing depository institution engages or is obliged to pay upon dishonor.
(v)-(x) [Reserved]
(y) Eligible institution means –
(1) Any depository institution as described in § 204.1(c) of this part;
(2) Any trust company;
(3) Any corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 et seq.) or having an agreement with the Board under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq.); and
(4) Any branch or agency of a foreign bank (as defined in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978, 12 U.S.C. 3101(b)).
(z) Excess balance means the average balance maintained in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank by or on behalf of an institution over a reserve maintenance period that exceeds the top of the penalty-free band.
(aa) Excess balance account means an account at a Reserve Bank pursuant to § 204.10(d) of this chapter that is established by one or more eligible institutions through an agent and in which only balances of the participating eligible institutions may at any time be maintained. An excess balance account is not a “pass-through account” for purposes of this part.
(bb) Balance maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement means the average balance held in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank by or on behalf of an institution over a reserve maintenance period to satisfy a reserve balance requirement of this part.
(cc) Targeted federal funds rate means the federal funds rate established from time to time by the Federal Open Market Committee.
(dd) Term deposit means those funds of an eligible institution that are maintained by that institution for a specified maturity at a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to section 204.10(e) of this part.
(ee) Reserve balance requirement means the balance that a depository institution is required to maintain on average over a reserve maintenance period in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank if vault cash does not fully satisfy the depository institution’s reserve requirement imposed by this part.
(ff) Deficiency means the bottom of the penalty-free band less the average balance maintained in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank by or on behalf of an institution over a reserve maintenance period.
(gg) Top of the penalty-free band means an amount equal to an institution’s reserve balance requirement plus an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of the institution’s reserve balance requirement or $50,000. The top of the penalty-free band for a pass-through correspondent is an amount equal to the aggregate reserve balance requirement of the correspondent (if any) and all of its respondents plus an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of that aggregate reserve balance requirement or $50,000.
(hh) Bottom of the penalty-free band means an amount equal to an institution’s reserve balance requirement less an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of the institution’s reserve balance requirement or $50,000. The bottom of the penalty-free band for a pass-through correspondent is an amount equal to the aggregate reserve balance requirement of the correspondent (if any) and all of its respondents less an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of that aggregate reserve balance requirement or $50,000. In no case will the penalty-free band be less than zero.
§ 204.3 Reporting and location.
(a) Every depository institution, U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, and Edge or Agreement corporation shall file a report of deposits (or any other form or statement that may be required by the Board or by a Federal Reserve Bank) with the Federal Reserve Bank in the Federal Reserve District in which it is located, regardless of the manner in which it chooses to maintain required reserve balances.
(b) A foreign bank’s U.S. branches and agencies and an Edge or Agreement corporation’s offices operating within the same State and the same Federal Reserve District shall prepare and file a report of deposits on an aggregated basis.
(c) For purposes of this part, the obligations of a majority-owned (50 percent or more) U.S. subsidiary (except an Edge or Agreement corporation) of a depository institution shall be regarded as obligations of the parent depository institution.
(d) A depository institution, a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement corporation shall, if possible, assign the low reserve tranche and reserve requirement exemption prescribed in § 204.4(f) to only one office or to a group of offices filing a single aggregated report of deposits. The amount of the reserve requirement exemption allocated to an office or group of offices may not exceed the amount of the low reserve tranche allocated to such office or offices. If the low reserve tranche or reserve requirement exemption cannot be fully utilized by a single office or by a group of offices filing a single report of deposits, the unused portion of the tranche or exemption may be assigned to other offices or groups of offices of the same institution until the amount of the tranche (or net transaction accounts) or exemption (or reservable liabilities) is exhausted. The tranche or exemption may be reallocated each year concurrent with implementation of the indexed tranche and exemption, or, if necessary during the course of the year to avoid underutilization of the tranche or exemption, at the beginning of a reserve computation period.
(e) Computation of transaction accounts. Overdrafts in demand deposit or other transaction accounts are not to be treated as negative demand deposits or negative transaction accounts and shall not be netted since overdrafts are properly reflected on an institution’s books as assets. However, where a customer maintains multiple transaction accounts with a depository institution, overdrafts in one account pursuant to a bona fide cash management arrangement are permitted to be netted against balances in other related transaction accounts for reserve requirement purposes.
(f) The Board and the Federal Reserve Banks will not hold a pass-through correspondent responsible for guaranteeing the accuracy of the reports of deposits submitted by its respondents.
(g)(1) For purposes of this section, a depository institution, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement corporation is located in the Federal Reserve District that contains the location specified in the institution’s charter, organizing certificate, license, or articles of incorporation, or as specified by the institution’s primary regulator, or if no such location is specified, the location of its head office, unless otherwise determined by the Board under paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
(2) If the location specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in the Board’s judgment, is ambiguous, would impede the ability of the Board or the Federal Reserve Banks to perform their functions under the Federal Reserve Act, or would impede the ability of the institution to operate efficiently, the Board will determine the Federal Reserve District in which the institution is located, after consultation with the institution and the relevant Federal Reserve Banks. The relevant Federal Reserve Banks are the Federal Reserve Bank whose District contains the location specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section and the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the institution is proposed to be located. In making this determination, the Board will consider any applicable laws, the business needs of the institution, the location of the institution’s head office, the locations where the institution performs its business, and the locations that would allow the institution, the Board, and the Federal Reserve Banks to perform their functions efficiently and effectively.
§ 204.4 Computation of required reserves.
(a) In determining the reserve requirement under this part, the amount of cash items in process of collection and balances subject to immediate withdrawal due from other depository institutions located in the United States (including such amounts due from United States branches and agencies of foreign banks and Edge and Agreement corporations) may be deducted from the amount of gross transaction accounts. The amount that may be deducted may not exceed the amount of gross transaction accounts.
(b) United States branches and agencies of a foreign bank may not deduct balances due from another United States branch or agency of the same foreign bank, and United States offices of an Edge or Agreement Corporation may not deduct balances due from another United States office of the same Edge or Agreement Corporation.
(c) Balances “due from other depository institutions” do not include balances due from Federal Reserve Banks, pass-through accounts, or balances (payable in dollars or otherwise) due from banking offices located outside the United States. An institution exercising fiduciary powers may not include in balances “due from other depository institutions” amounts of trust funds deposited with other banks and due to it as a trustee or other fiduciary.
(d) For institutions that file a report of deposits weekly, reserve requirements are computed on the basis of the institution’s daily average balances of deposits and Eurocurrency liabilities during a 14-day computation period ending every second Monday.
(e) For institutions that file a report of deposits quarterly, reserve requirements are computed on the basis of the institution’s daily average balances of deposits and Eurocurrency liabilities during the 7-day computation period that begins on the third Tuesday of March, June, September, and December.
(f) For all depository institutions, Edge and Agreement corporations, and United States branches and agencies of foreign banks, required reserves are computed by applying the reserve requirement ratios in table 1 to this paragraph (f) to net transaction accounts, nonpersonal time deposits, and Eurocurrency liabilities of the institution during the computation period.
Table 1 to Paragraph
| Reservable liability | Reserve requirement |
|---|---|
| Net Transaction Accounts: | |
| $0 to reserve requirement exemption amount ($36.1 million) | 0 percent of amount. |
| Over reserve requirement exemption amount ($36.1 million) and up to low reserve tranche ($691.7 million) | 0 percent of amount. |
| Over low reserve tranche ($691.7 million) | $0 plus 0 percent of amount over $691.7 million. |
| Nonpersonal time deposits | 0 percent. |
| Eurocurrency liabilities | 0 percent. |
§ 204.5 Maintenance of required reserves.
(a)(1) A depository institution, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, and an Edge or Agreement corporation shall satisfy reserve requirements by maintaining vault cash and, if vault cash does not fully satisfy the institution’s reserve requirement, in the form of a balance maintained
(i) In the institution’s account at the Federal Reserve Bank in the Federal Reserve District in which the institution is located, or
(ii) With a pass-through correspondent in accordance with § 204.5(d).
(2) Each individual institution subject to this part is responsible for satisfying its reserve balance requirement, if any, either directly with a Federal Reserve Bank or through a pass-through correspondent.
(b)(1) For institutions that file a report of deposits weekly, the balances maintained to satisfy reserve balance requirements shall be maintained during a 14-day maintenance period that begins on the third Thursday following the end of a given computation period.
(2) For institutions that file a report of deposits quarterly, the balances maintained to satisfy reserve balance requirements shall be maintained during an interval of either six or seven consecutive 14-day maintenance periods, depending on when the interval begins and ends. The interval will begin on the fourth Thursday following the end of each quarterly reporting period if that Thursday is the first day of a 14-day maintenance period. If the fourth Thursday following the end of a quarterly reporting period is not the first day of a 14-day maintenance period, then the interval will begin on the fifth Thursday following the end of the quarterly reporting period. The interval will end on the fourth Wednesday following the end of the subsequent quarterly reporting period if that Wednesday is the last day of a 14-day maintenance period. If the fourth Wednesday following the end of the subsequent quarterly reporting period is not the last day of a 14-day maintenance period, then the interval will conclude on the fifth Wednesday following the end of the subsequent quarterly reporting period.
(c) Cash items forwarded to a Federal Reserve Bank for collection and credit are not included in an institution’s balance maintained to satisfy its reserve balance requirement until the expiration of the time specified in the appropriate time schedule established under Regulation J, “Collection of Checks and Other Items by Federal Reserve Banks and Funds Transfers Through Fedwire” (12 CFR part 210). If a depository institution draws against items before that time, the charge will be made to its account if the balance is sufficient to pay it; any resulting deficiency in balances maintained to satisfy the institution’s reserve balance requirement will be subject to the penalties provided by law and to the deficiency charges provided by this part. However, the Federal Reserve Bank may, at its discretion, refuse to permit the withdrawal or other use of credit given in an account for any time for which the Federal Reserve Bank has not received payment in actually and finally collected funds.
(d)(1) A depository institution, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement corporation with a reserve balance requirement (“respondent”) may select only one pass-through correspondent under this section, unless otherwise permitted by the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the respondent is located. Eligible pass-through correspondents are Federal Home Loan Banks, the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility, and depository institutions, U.S. branches or agencies of foreign banks, and Edge and Agreement corporations that maintain balances to satisfy their own reserve balance requirements which may be zero, in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank. In addition, the Board reserves the right to permit other institutions, on a case-by-case basis, to serve as pass-through correspondents.
(2) Respondents or correspondents may institute, terminate, or change pass-through correspondent agreements by providing all documentation required for the establishment of the new agreement or termination of or change to the existing agreement to the Federal Reserve Banks involved within the time period specified by those Reserve Banks.
(3) Balances maintained to satisfy reserve balance requirements of a correspondent’s respondents shall be maintained along with the balances maintained to satisfy a correspondent’s reserve balance requirement (if any), in a single commingled account of the correspondent at the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the correspondent is located. Balances maintained in the correspondent’s account are the property of the correspondent and represent a liability of the Reserve Bank solely to the correspondent, regardless of whether the funds represent the balances maintained to satisfy the reserve balance requirement of a respondent.
(4)(i) A pass-through correspondent shall be responsible for maintaining balances to satisfy its own reserve balance requirement (if any) and the reserve balance requirements of all of its respondents. A charge for any deficiency in the correspondent’s account will be imposed by the Reserve Bank on the correspondent maintaining the account.
(ii) Each correspondent is required to maintain detailed records for each of its respondents that permit Reserve Banks to determine whether the respondent has provided a sufficient funds to the correspondent to satisfy the reserve balance requirement of the respondent. The correspondent shall maintain such records and make such reports as the Board or Reserve Bank may requires in order to ensure the correspondent’s compliance with its responsibilities under this section and shall make them available to the Board or Reserve Bank as required.
(iii) The Federal Reserve Bank may terminate any pass-through agreement under which the correspondent is deficient in its recordkeeping or other responsibilities.
(iv) Interest paid on supplemental reserves (if such reserves are required under § 204.7) held by a respondent will be credited to the account maintained by the correspondent.
§ 204.6 Charges for deficiencies.
(a) Federal Reserve Banks are authorized to assess charges for deficiencies at a rate of 1 percentage point per year above the primary credit rate, as provided in § 201.51(a) of this chapter, in effect for borrowings from the Federal Reserve Bank on the first day of the calendar month in which the deficiencies occurred. Charges shall be assessed on the basis of daily average deficiencies during each maintenance period.
(b) Reserve Banks may waive the charges for deficiencies based on an evaluation of the circumstances in each individual case.
(c) In individual cases, where a Federal supervisory authority waives a liquidity requirement, or waives the penalty for failing to satisfy a liquidity requirement, the Reserve Bank in the District where the involved depository institution is located shall waive the reserve requirement imposed under this part for such depository institution when requested by the Federal supervisory authority involved.
(d) Violations of this part may be subject to assessment of civil money penalties by the Board under authority of Section 19(1) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 505) as implemented in 12 CFR part 263. In addition, the Board and any other Federal financial institution supervisory authority may enforce this part with respect to depository institutions subject to their jurisdiction under authority conferred by law to undertake cease and desist proceedings.
§ 204.7 Supplemental reserve requirement.
(a) Finding by Board. Upon the affirmative vote of at least five members of the Board and after consultation with the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, and the National Credit Union Administration Board, the Board may impose a supplemental reserve requirement on every depository institution of not more than 4 percent of its total transaction accounts. A supplemental reserve requirement may be imposed if:
(1) The sole purpose of the requirement is to increase the amount of reserves maintained to a level essential for the conduct of monetary policy;
(2) The requirement is not imposed for the purpose of reducing the cost burdens resulting from the imposition of basic reserve requirements;
(3) Such requirement is not imposed for the purpose of increasing the amount of balances needed for clearing purposes; and
(4) On the date on which supplemental reserve requirements are imposed, the total amount of basic reserve requirements is not less than the amount of reserves that would be required on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits under the initial reserve ratios established by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-221) in effect on September 1, 1980.
(b) Term. (1) If a supplemental reserve requirement has been imposed for a period of one year or more, the Board shall review and determine the need for continued maintenance of supplemental reserves and shall transmit annual reports to the Congress regarding the need for continuing such requirement.
(2) Any supplemental reserve requirement shall terminate at the close of the first 90-day period after the requirement is imposed during which the average amount of supplemental reserves required are less than the amount of reserves which would be required if the ratios in effect on September 1, 1980, were applied.
(c) Earnings Participation Account. A depository institutions’s supplemental reserve requirement shall be maintained by the Federal Reserve Banks in an Earnings Participation Account. Such balances shall receive earnings to be paid by the Federal Reserve Banks during each calendar quarter at a rate not to exceed the rate earned on the securities portfolio of the Federal Reserve System during the previous calendar quarter. Additional rules and regulations maybe prescribed by the Board concerning the payment of earnings on Earnings Participation Accounts by Federal Reserve Banks.
(d) Report to Congress. The Board shall transmit promptly to the Congress a report stating the basis for exercising its authority to require a supplemental reserve under this section.
(e) Reserve requirements. At present, there are no supplemental reserve requirements imposed under this section.
§ 204.8 International banking facilities.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
(1) International banking facility or IBF means a set of asset and liability accounts segregated on the books and records of a depository institution, United States branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement Corporation that includes only international banking facility time deposits and international banking facility extensions of credit.
(2) International banking facility time deposit or IBF time deposit means a deposit, placement, borrowing or similar obligation represented by a promissory note, acknowledgment of advance, or similar instrument that is not issued in negotiable or bearer form, and
(i)(A) That must remain on deposit at the IBF at least overnight; and
(B) That is issued to
(1) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution organized under the laws of the United States or of an Edge or Agreement Corporation;
(2) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
(3) A United States office or a non-United States office of the entity establishing the IBF;
(4) Another IBF; or
(5) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof,
(ii) (A) That is payable
(1) On a specified date not less than two business days after the date of deposit;
(2) Upon expiration of a specified period of time not less than two business days after the date of deposit; or
(3) Upon written notice that actually is required to be given by the depositor not less than two business days prior to the date of withdrawal;
(B) That represents funds deposited to the credit of a non-United States resident or a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate, or other foreign establishment (foreign affiliate) controlled by one or more domestic corporations provided that such funds are used only to support the operations outside the United States of the depositor or of its affiliates located outside the United States; and
(C) That is maintained under an agreement or arrangement under which no deposit or withdrawal of less than $100,000 is permitted, except that a withdrawal of less than $100,000 is permitted if such withdrawal closes an account.
(3) International banking facility extension of credit or IBF loan means any transaction where an IBF supplies funds by making a loan, or placing funds in a deposit account. Such transactions may be represented by a promissory note, security, acknowledgment of advance, due bill, repurchase agreement, or any other form of credit transaction. Such credit may be extended only to:
(i) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution organized under the laws of the United States or of an Edge or Agreement Corporation;
(ii) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
(iii) A United States or a non-United States office of the institution establishing the IBF;
(iv) Another IBF;
(v) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof,
(vi) A non-United States resident or a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate or other foreign establishment (foreign affiliate) controlled by one or more domestic corporations provided that the funds are used only to finance the operations outside the United States of the borrower or of its affiliates located outside the United States.
(b) Acknowledgment of use of IBF deposits and extensions of credit. An IBF shall provide written notice to each of its customers (other than those specified in § 204.8(a)(2)(i)(B) and § 204.8(a)(3) (i) through (v)) at the time a deposit relationship or a credit relationship is first established that it is the policy of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System that deposits received by international banking facilities may be used only to support the depositor’s operations outside the United States as specified in § 204.8(a)(2)(ii)(B) and that extensions of credit by IBFs may be used only to finance operations outside of the United States as specified in § 204.8(a)(3)(vi). In the case of loans to or deposits from foreign affiliates of U.S. residents, receipt of such notice must be acknowledged in writing whenever a deposit or credit relationship is first established with the IBF.
(c) Exemption from reserve requirements. An institution that is subject to the reserve requirements of this part is not required to maintain reserves against its IBF time deposits or IBF loans. Deposit-taking activities of IBFs are limited to accepting only IBF time deposits and lending activities of IBFs are restricted to making only IBF loans.
(d) Establishment of an international banking facility. A depository institution, an Edge or Agreement Corporation or a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank may establish an IBF in any location where it is legally authorized to engage in IBF business. However, only one IBF may be established for each reporting entity that is required to submit a Report of Transaction Accounts, Other Deposits and Vault Cash (Form FR 2900).
(e) Notification to Federal Reserve. At least fourteen days prior to the first reserve computation period that an institution intends to establish an IBF it shall notify the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which it is located of its intent. Such notification shall include a statement of intention by the institution that it will comply with the rules of this part concerning IBFs, including restrictions on sources and uses of funds, and recordkeeping and accounting requirements. Failure to comply with the requirements of this part shall subject the institution to reserve requirements under this part or result in the revocation of the institution’s ability to operate an IBF.
(f) Recordkeeping requirements. A depository institution shall segregate on its books and records the asset and liability accounts of its IBF and submit reports concerning the operations of its IBF as required by the Board.
§ 204.9 Emergency reserve requirement.
(a) Finding by Board. The Board may impose, after consulting with the appropriate committees of Congress, additional reserve requirements on depository institutions at any ratio on any liability upon a finding by at least five members of the Board that extraordinary circumstances require such action.
(b) Term. Any action taken under this section shall be valid for a period not exceeding 180 days, and may be extended for further periods of up to 180 days each by affirmative action of at least five members of the Board for each extension.
(c) Reports to Congress. The Board shall transmit promptly to Congress a report of any exercise of its authority under this paragraph and the reasons for the exercise of authority.
(d) Reserve requirements. At present, there are no emergency reserve requirements imposed under this section.
§ 204.10 Payment of interest on balances.
(a) General. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, interest on balances maintained at Federal Reserve Banks by or on behalf of an eligible institution shall be established by the Board in accordance with this section, at a rate or rates not to exceed the general level of short-term interest rates.
(2) For purposes of this section, the amount of a “balance” in an account maintained by or on behalf of an eligible institution at a Federal Reserve Bank is determined at the close of the Federal Reserve Bank’s business day.
(3) For purposes of this section, “short-term interest rates” are rates on obligations with maturities of no more than one year, such as the primary credit rate and rates on term federal funds, term repurchase agreements, commercial paper, term Eurodollar deposits, and other similar instruments.
(4) The payment of interest on balances under this section shall be subject to such other terms and conditions as the Board may prescribe.
(b) Payment of interest. Interest on balances maintained at Federal Reserve Banks by or on behalf of an eligible institution is established as set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) For balances maintained in an eligible institution’s master account, interest is the amount equal to the interest on reserve balances rate (“IORB rate”) on a day multiplied by the total balances maintained on that day. The IORB rate is 4.65 percent.
(2) For term deposits, interest is:
(i) The amount equal to the principal amount of the term deposit multiplied by a rate specified in advance by the Board, in light of existing short-term market rates, to maintain the federal funds rate at a level consistent with monetary policy objectives; or
(ii) The amount equal to the principal amount of the term deposit multiplied by a rate determined by the auction through which such term deposits are offered.
(3) For purposes of § 204.10(b), a “master account” is the record maintained by a Federal Reserve Bank of the debtor-creditor relationship between the Federal Reserve Bank and a single eligible institution with respect to deposit balances of the eligible institution that are maintained with the Federal Reserve Bank. A “master account” is not a “term deposit,” an “excess balance account,” a “joint account,” or any deposit account maintained with a Federal Reserve Bank governed by an agreement that states the account is not a master account.
(c) Pass-through balances. A pass-through correspondent that is an eligible institution may pass back to its respondent interest paid on balances maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement of that respondent. In the case of balances maintained by a pass-through correspondent that is not an eligible institution, a Reserve Bank may pay interest only on the balances maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement of one or more respondents up to the top of the penalty-free band, and the correspondent shall pass back to its respondents interest paid on balances in the correspondent’s account.
(d) Excess balance accounts. (1) A Reserve Bank may establish an excess balance account for eligible institutions under the provisions of this paragraph (d). Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part, the balances maintained by eligible institutions in an excess balance account represent a liability of the Reserve Bank solely to those participating eligible institutions.
(2) The participating eligible institutions in an excess balance account shall authorize another institution to act as agent of the participating institutions for purposes of general account management, including but not limited to transferring the balances of participating institutions in and out of the excess balance account. An excess balance account must be established at the Reserve Bank where the agent maintains its master account, unless otherwise determined by the Board. The agent may not commingle its own funds in the excess balance account.
(3) Balances maintained in an excess balance account may not be used for general payments or other activities.
(4) Interest on balances of eligible institutions maintained in an excess balance account is the amount equal to the IORB rate in effect on a day multiplied by the total balances maintained on that day.
(5) A Reserve Bank may establish additional terms and conditions consistent with this part with respect to the operation of an excess balance account, including, but not limited to, terms of and fees for services, conditions under which an institution may act as agent for an account, restrictions on the agent with respect to account management, penalties for noncompliance with this section or any terms and conditions, and account termination.
(e) Term deposits. (1) A Federal Reserve Bank may accept term deposits from eligible institutions under the provisions of this paragraph (e) subject to such terms and conditions as the Board may establish from time to time, including but not limited to conditions regarding the maturity of the term deposits being offered, maximum and minimum amounts that may be maintained by an eligible institution in a term deposit, the interest rate or rates offered, early withdrawal of term deposits, pledging term deposits as collateral and, if term deposits are offered through an auction mechanism, the size of the offering, maximum and minimum bid amounts, and other relevant terms.
(2) A term deposit will not satisfy any institution’s reserve balance requirement.
(3) A term deposit may not be used for general payments or settlement activities.
(f) Procedure for determination of rates. The Board anticipates that notice and public participation with respect to changes in the rate or rates of interest to be paid under this section will generally be impracticable, unnecessary, contrary to the public interest, or otherwise not required in the public interest, and that there will generally be reason and good cause in the public interest why the effective date should not be deferred for 30 days. The reason or reasons in such cases are generally expected to include that such notice, public participation, or deferment of effective date would prevent the action from becoming effective as promptly as necessary in the public interest, would permit speculators or others to reap unfair profits or to interfere with the Board’s actions taken with a view to accommodating commerce and business and with regard to their bearing upon the general credit situation of the country, would provoke other consequences contrary to the public interest, would not aid the persons affected, or would otherwise serve no useful purpose.
Interpretations
§ 204.121 Bankers’ banks.
(a)(1) The Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (title I of Pub. L. 96-221), imposes Federal reserve requirements on depository institutions that maintain transaction accounts or nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(9), however, a depository institution is not required to maintain reserves if it:
(i) Is organized solely to do business with other financial institutions;
(ii) Is owned primarily by the financial institutions with which it does business; and
(iii) Does not do business with the general public.
(2) In its application of these requirements to specific institutions, the Board will use the following standards:
(i) A depository institution may be regarded as organized solely to do business with other depository institutions even if, as an incidental part to its activities, it does business to a limited extent with entities other than depository institutions. The extent to which the institution may do business with other entities and continue to be regarded as a bankers’ bank is specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
(ii) A depository institution will be regarded as being owned primarily by the institutions with which it does business if 75 per cent or more of its capital is owned by other depository institutions. The 75 per cent or more ownership rule applies regardless of the type of depository institution.
(iii) A depository institution will not be regarded as doing business with the general public if it meets two conditions. First, the range of customers with which the institution does business must be limited to depository institutions, including subsidiaries or organizations owned by depository institutions; directors, officers or employees of the same or other depository institutions; individuals whose accounts are acquired at the request of the institution’s supervisory authority due to the actual or impending failure of another depository institution; share insurance funds; depository institution trade associations; and such others as the Board may determine on a case-by-case basis consistent with the purposes of the Act and the bankers’ bank exemption. Second, the extent to which the depository institution makes loans to, or investments in, the above entities (other than depository institutions) cannot exceed 10 per cent of total assets, and the extent to which it receives deposits (or shares if the institution does not receive deposits) from or issues other liabilities to the above entities (other than depository institutions) cannot exceed 10 per cent of total liabilities (or net worth if the institution does not receive deposits).
(b) (1) Section 19(c)(1) of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (title I of Pub. L. 96-221) provides that Federal reserve requirements may be satisfied by the maintenance of vault cash or balances in a Federal Reserve Bank. Depository institutions that are not members of the Federal Reserve System may also satisfy reserve requirements by maintaining a balance in another depository institution that maintains required reserve balances at a Federal Reserve Bank, in a Federal Home Loan Bank, or in the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility if the balances maintained by such institutions are subsequently passed through to the Federal Reserve Bank.
(2) On August 27, 1980, the Board announced the procedures that will apply to such pass-through arrangements (45 FR 58099). Section 204.3(i)(1) provides that the Board may permit, on a case-by-case basis, depository institutions that are not themselves required to maintain reserves (bankers’ banks) to act as pass-through correspondents if certain criteria are satisfied. The Board has determined that a bankers’ bank may act as a pass-through correspondent if it enters into an agreement with the Federal Reserve to accept responsibility for the maintenance of pass-through reserve accounts in accordance with Regulation D (12 CFR 204.3(i)) and if the Federal Reserve is satisfied that the quality of management and financial resources of the institution are adequate in order to enable the institution to serve as a pass-through correspondent in accordance with Regulation D. Satisfaction of these criteria will assure that pass-through arrangements are maintained properly without additional financial risk to the Federal Reserve.
(3) In order to determine uniformly the adequacy of managerial and financial resources, the Board will consult with the Federal supervisor for the type of institution under consideration. Because the Board does not possess direct experience with supervising depository institutions other than commercial banks, and does not intend to involve itself in the direct supervision of such institutions, it will request the National Credit Union Administration to review requests from credit unions that qualify as bankers’ banks and the Federal Home Loan Bank Board to review requests from savings and loan associations that qualify as bankers’ banks, regardless of charter or insurance status. (The Board, itself, will consider requests from all commercial banks that qualify as bankers’ banks.) If the Federal supervisor does not find the institution’s managerial or financial resources to be adequate, the Board will not permit the institution to act as a pass-through correspondent. In order to assure the continued adequacy of managerial and financial resources, it is anticipated that the appropriate Federal supervisor will, on a periodic basis, review and evaluate the managerial and financial resources of the institution in order to determine whether it should continue to be permitted to act as a pass-through correspondent. It is anticipated that, with respect to state chartered institutions, the Federal supervisor may discuss the request with the institute State supervisor. The Board believes that this procedure will promote uniformity of treatment for all types of bankers’ banks, and provide consistent advice concerning managerial ability and financial strength from supervisory authorities that are in a better position to evaluate these criteria for depository institutions that are not commercial banks.
(4) Requests for a determination as to whether a depository institution will be regarded as a bankers’ bank for purposes of the Federal Reserve Act or for permission to act as a pass-through correspondent may be addressed to the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the main office of the depository institution is located or to the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The Board will act promptly on all requests received directly or through Federal Reserve Banks.
§ 204.122 Secondary market activities of international banking facilities.
(a) Questions have been raised concerning the extent to which international banking facilities may purchase (or sell) IBF-eligible assets such as loans (including loan participations), securities, CDs, and bankers’ acceptances from (or to) third parties. Under the Board’s regulations, as specified in § 204.8 of Regulation D, IBFs are limited, with respect to making loans and accepting deposits, to dealing only with certain customers, such as other IBFs and foreign offices of other organizations, and with the entity establishing the IBF. In addition, an IBF may extend credit to a nonbank customer only to finance the borrower’s non-U.S. operations and may accept deposits from a nonbank customer that are used only to support the depositor’s non-U.S. business.
(b) Consistent with the Board’s intent, IBFs may purchase IBF-eligible assets
(c) In the case of purchases of assets, in order to determine that the Board’s use-of-proceeds requirement has been met, it is necessary for the IBF (1) to ascertain that the applicable IBF notices and acknowledgments have been provided, or (2) in the case of loans or securities, to review the documentation underlying the loan or security, or accompanying the security (e.g., the prospectus or offering statement), to determine that the proceeds are being used only to finance the obligor’s operations outside the U.S., or (3) in the case of loans, to obtain a statement from either the seller or borrower that the proceeds are being used only to finance operations outside the U.S., or in the case of securities, to obtain such a statement from the obligor, or (4) in the case of bankers’ acceptances, to review the underlying documentation to determine that the proceeds are being used only to finance the parties’ operations outside the United States.
(d) Under the Board’s regulations, IBFs are not permitted to issue negotiable Euro-CDs, bankers’ acceptances, or similar instruments. Accordingly, consistent with the Board’s intent in this area, IBFs may sell such instruments issued by third parties that qualify as IBF-eligible assets provided that the IBF, its establishing institution and any affiliate of the institution establishing the IBF do not endorse, accept, or otherwise guarantee the instrument.
§ 204.123 Sale of Federal funds by investment companies or trusts in which the entire beneficial interest is held exclusively by depository institutions.
(a) The Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (Title I of Pub. L. 96-221) imposes Federal Reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonnel time deposits held by depository institutions. The Board is empowered under the Act to determine what types of obligations shall be deemed a deposit. Regulation D – Reserve Requirements of Depository Institutions exempts from the definition of deposit those obligations of a depository institution that are issued or undertaken and held for the account of a domestic office of another depository institution (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A)(1)). These exemptions from the definition of deposit are known collectively as the Federal funds or interbank exemption.
(b) Title IV of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 authorizes Federal savings and loan associations to invest in open-ended management investment companies provided the funds’ investment portfolios are limited to the types of investments that a Federal savings and loan association could hold without limit as to percentage of assets (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(1)(Q)). Such investments include mortgages, U.S. Government and agency securities, securities of states and political subdivisions, sales of Federal funds and deposits held at banks insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. The Federal Credit Union Act authorizes Federal credit unions to aggregate their funds in trusts provided the trust is limited to such investments that Federal credit unions could otherwise make. Such investments include loans to credit union members, obligations of the U.S. government or secured by the U.S. government, loans to other credit unions, shares or accounts held at savings and loan associations or mutual savings banks insured by FSLIC or FDIC, sales of Federal funds and shares of any central credit union whose investments are specifically authorized by the board of directors of the Federal credit union making the investment (12 U.S.C. 1757(7)).
(c) The Board has considered whether an investment company or trust whose entire beneficial interest is held by depository institutions, as defined in Regulation D, would be eligible for the Federal funds exemption from Reserve requirements and interest rate limitations. The Board has determined that such investment companies or trusts are eligible to participate in the Federal funds market because, in effect, they act as mere conduits for the holders of their beneficial interest. To be regarded by the Board as acting as a conduit and, thus, be eligible for participation in the Federal funds market, an investment company or trust must meet each of the following conditions:
(1) The entire beneficial interest in the investment company or trust must be held by depository institutions, as defined in Regulation D. These institutions presently may participate directly in the Federal funds market. If the entire beneficial interest in the investment company or trust is held only by depository institutions, the Board will regard the investment company or trust as a mere conduit for the holders of its beneficial interest.
(2) The assets of the investment company or trust must be limited to investments that all of the holders of the beneficial interest could make directly without limit.
(3) Holders of the beneficial interest in the investment company or trust must not be allowed to make third party payments from their accounts with the investment company or trust. The Board does not regard an investment company or trust that offers third party payment capabilities or other similar services which actively transform the nature of the funds passing between the holders of the beneficial interest and the Federal funds market as mere conduits.
(d) The Board believes that permitting sales of Federal funds by investment companies or trusts whose beneficial interests are held exclusively by depository institutions, that invest solely in assets that the holders of their beneficial interests can otherwise invest in without limit, and do not provide third party payment capabilities offer the potential for an increased yield for thrifts. This is consistent with Congressional intent to provide thrifts with convenient liquidity vehicles.
(a) The Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (title I of Pub. L. 96-221) imposes Federal reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits held by depository institutions. The Board is empowered under the Act to determine what types of obligations shall be deemed a deposit (12 U.S.C. 461). Regulation D – Reserve Requirements of Depository Institutions exempts from the definition of deposit those obligations of a depository institution that arise from a transfer of direct obligations of, or obligations that are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States government or any agency thereof that the depository institution is obligated to repurchase (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(B)).
(b) The National Bank Act provides that a national bank may purchase for its own account investment securities under limitations and restrictions as the Comptroller may prescribe (12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7). The statute defines investment securities to mean marketable obligations evidencing indebtedness of any person in the form of bonds, notes, and debentures. The Act further limits a national bank’s holdings of any one security to no more than an amount equal to 10 percent of the bank’s capital stock and surplus. However, these limitations do not apply to obligations issued by the United States, general obligations of any state and certain obligations of Federal agencies. In addition, generally a national bank is not permitted to purchase for its own account stock of any corporation. These restrictions also apply to state member banks (12 U.S.C. 335).
(c) The Comptroller of the Currency has permitted national banks to purchase for their own accounts shares of open-end investment companies that are purchased and sold at par (i.e., money market mutual funds) provided the portfolios of such companies consist solely of securities that a national bank may purchase directly (Banking Bulletin B-83-58). The Board of Governors has permitted state member banks to purchase, to the extent permitted under applicable state law, shares of money market mutual funds (MMMF) whose portfolios consist solely of securities that the state member bank may purchase directly (12 CFR 208.123).
(d) The Board has determined that an obligation arising from a repurchase agreement involving shares of a MMMF whose portfolio consists wholly of securities of the United States government or any agency thereof
§ 204.125 Foreign, international, and supranational entities referred to in §§ 204.2(c)(1)(iv)(E) and 204.8(a)(2)(i)(B)(5).
The entities referred to in §§ 204.2(c)(1)(iv)(E) and 204.8(a)(2)(i)(B)(5) are:
§ 204.126 Depository institution participation in “Federal funds” market.
(a) Under § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A), there is an exemption from Regulation D for member bank obligations in nondeposit form to another bank. To assure the effectiveness of the limitations on persons who sell Federal funds to depository institutions, Regulation D applies to nondocumentary obligations undertaken by a depository institution to obtain funds for use in its banking business, as well as to documentary obligations. Under § 204.2(a)(1)(vii) of Regulation D, a depository institution’s liability under informal arrangements as well as those formally embodied in a document are within the coverage of Regulation D.
(b) The exemption in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) applies to obligations owed by a depository institution to a domestic office of any entity listed in that section (the exempt institutions). The exempt institutions explicitly include another depository institution, foreign bank, Edge or agreement corporation, New York Investment (article XII) Company, the Export-Import Bank of the United States, Minbanc Capital Corp., and certain other credit sources. The term exempt institutions also includes subsidiaries of depository institutions:
(1) That engage in businesses in which their parents are authorized to engage; or
(2) The stock of which by statute is explicitly eligible for purchase by national banks.
(c) To assure that this exemption for liabilities to exempt institutions is not used as a means by which nondepository institutions may arrange through an exempt institution to sell Federal funds to a depository institution, obligations within the exemption must be issued to an exempt institution for its own account. In view of this requirement, a depository institution that purchases Federal funds should ascertain the character (not necessarily the identity) of the actual seller in order to justify classification of its liability on the transaction as Federal funds purchased rather than as a deposit. Any exempt institution that has given general assurance to the purchasing depository institution that sales by it of Federal funds ordinarily will be for its own account and thereafter executes such transactions for the account of others, should disclose the nature of the actual lender with respect to each such transaction. If it fails to do so, the depository institution would be deemed by the Board as indirectly violating section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act and Regulation D.
§ 204.127 Nondepository participation in “Federal funds” market.
(a) The Board has considered whether the use of interdepository institution loan participations (IDLPs) which involve participation by third parties other than depository institutions in Federal funds transactions, comes within the exemption from deposit classification for certain obligations owed by a depository institution to an institution exempt in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) of Regulation D. An IDLP transaction is one through which an institution that has sold Federal funds to a depository institution, subsequently sells or participates out that obligation to a nondepository third party without notifying the obligated institution.
(b) The Board’s interpretation regarding Federal funds transactions (12 CFR 204.126) clarified that a depository institutions’s liability must be issued to an exempt institution described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) of Regulation D for its own account in order to come within the nondeposit exemption for interdepository liabilities. The Board regards transactions which result in third parties gaining access to the Federal funds market as contrary to the exemption contained in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) of Regulation D regardless of whether the nondepository institution third party is a party to the initial transaction or thereafter becomes a participant in the transaction through purchase of all or part of the obligation held by the selling depository institution.
(c) The Board regards the notice requirements set out in 12 CFR 204.126 as applicable to IDLP-type transactions as described herein so that a depository institution selling Federal funds must provide to the purchaser –
(1) Notice of its intention, at the time of the initial transaction, to sell or participate out its loan contract to a nondepository third party, and
(2) Full and prompt notice whenever it (the selling depository institution) subsequently sells or participates out its loan contract to a non-depository third party.
§ 204.128 Deposits at foreign branches guaranteed by domestic office of a depository institution.
(a) In accepting deposits at branches abroad, some depository institutions may enter into agreements from time to time with depositors that in effect guarantee payment of such deposits in the United States if the foreign branch is precluded from making payment. The question has arisen whether such deposits are subject to Regulation D, and this interpretation is intended as clarification.
(b) Section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act which establishes reserve requirements does not apply to deposits of a depository institution “payable only at an office thereof located outside of the States of the United States and the District of Columbia” (12 U.S.C. 371a; 12 CFR 204.1(c)(5)). The Board rule in 1918 that the requirements of section 19 as to reserves to be carried by member banks do not apply to foreign branches (1918 Fed. Res. Bull. 1123). The Board has also defined the phrase Any deposit that is payable only at an office located outside the United States, in § 204.2(t) of Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(t).
(c) The Board believes that this exemption from reserve requirements should be limited to deposits in foreign branches as to which the depositor is entitled, under his agreement with the depository institution, to demand payment only outside the United States, regardless of special circumstances. The exemption is intended principally to enable foreign branches of U.S. depository institutions to compete on a more nearly equal basis with banks in foreign countries in accordance with the laws and regulations of those countries. A customer who makes a deposit that is payable solely at a foreign branch of the depository institution assumes whatever risk may exist that the foreign country in which a branch is located might impose restrictions on withdrawals. When payment of a deposit in a foreign branch is guaranteed by a promise of payment at an office in the United States if not paid at the foreign office, the depositor no longer assumes this risk but enjoys substantially the same rights as if the deposit had been made in a U.S. office of the depository institution. To assure the effectiveness of Regulation D and to prevent evasions thereof, the Board considers that such guaranteed foreign-branch deposits must be subject to that regulation.
(d) Accordingly, a deposit in a foreign branch of a depository institution that is guaranteed by a domestic office is subject to the reserve requirements of Regulation D the same as if the deposit had been made in the domestic office. This interpretation is not designed in any respect to prevent the head office of a U.S. bank from repaying borrowings from, making advances to, or supplying capital funds to its foreign branches, subject to Eurocurrency liability reserve requirements.
§ 204.130 Eligibility for NOW accounts.
(a) Summary. In response to many requests for rulings, the Board has determined to clarify the types of entities that may maintain NOW accounts at member banks.
(b) Individuals. (1) Any individual may maintain a NOW account regardless of the purposes that the funds will serve. Thus, deposits of an individual used in his or her business including a sole proprietor or an individual doing business under a trade name is eligible to maintain a NOW account in the individual’s name or in the “DBA” name. However, other entities organized or operated to make a profit such as corporations, partnerships, associations, business trusts, or other organizations may not maintain NOW accounts.
(2) Pension funds, escrow accounts, security deposits, and other funds held under various agency agreements may also be classified as NOW accounts if the entire beneficial interest is held by individuals or other entities eligible to maintain NOW accounts directly. The Board believes that these accounts are similar in nature to trust accounts and should be accorded identical treatment. Therefore, such funds may be regarded as eligible for classification as NOW accounts.
(c) Nonprofit organizations. (1) A nonprofit organization that is operated primarily for religious, philanthropic, charitable, educational, political or other similar purposes may maintain a NOW account. The Board regards the following kinds of organizations as eligible for NOW accounts under this standard if they are not operated for profit:
(i) Organizations described in section 501(c)(3) through (13), and (19) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(3) through (13) and (19));
(ii) Political organizations described in section 527 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 527); and
(iii) Homeowners and condominium owners associations described in section 528 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 528), including housing cooperative associations that perform similar functions.
(2) All organizations that are operated for profit are not eligible to maintain NOW accounts at depository institutions.
(3) The following types of organizations described in the cited provisions of the Internal Revenue Code are among those not eligible to maintain NOW accounts:
(i) Credit unions and other mutual depository institutions described in section 501(c)(14) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(14));
(ii) Mutual insurance companies described in section 501(c)(15) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(15));
(iii) Crop financing organizations described in section 501(c)(16) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(16));
(iv) Organizations created to function as part of a qualified group legal services plan described in section 501(c)(20) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(20)); or
(v) Farmers’ cooperatives described in section 521 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 521).
(d) Governmental units. Governmental units are generally eligible to maintain NOW accounts at member banks. NOW accounts may consist of funds in which the entire beneficial interest is held by the United States, any State of the United States, county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, any territory or possession of the United States, or any political subdivision thereof.
(e) Funds held by a fiduciary. Under current provisions, funds held in a fiduciary capacity (either by an individual fiduciary or by a corporate fiduciary such as a bank trust department or a trustee in bankruptcy), including those awaiting distribution or investment, may be held in the form of NOW accounts if all of the beneficiaries are otherwise eligible to maintain NOW accounts. The Board believes that such a classification should continue since fiduciaries are required to invest even temporarily idle balances to the greatest extent feasible in order to responsibly carry out their fiduciary duties. The availability of NOW accounts provides a convenient vehicle for providing a short-term return on temporarily idle trust funds of beneficiaries eligible to maintain accounts in their own names.
(f) Grandfather provision. In order to avoid unduly disrupting account relationships, a NOW account established at a member bank on or before August 31, 1981, that represents funds of a nonqualifying entity that previously qualified to maintain a NOW account may continue to be maintained in a NOW account.
§ 204.131 Participation by a depository institution in the secondary market for its own time deposits.
(a) Background. In 1982, the Board issued an interpretation concerning the effect of a member bank’s purchase of its own time deposits in the secondary market in order to ensure compliance with regulatory restrictions on the payment of interest on time deposits, with the prohibition against payment of interest on demand deposits, and with regulatory requirements designed to distinguish between time deposits and demand deposits for federal reserve requirement purposes (47 FR 37878, Aug. 27, 1982). The interpretation was designed to ensure that the regulatory early withdrawal penalties in Regulation Q used to achieve these three purposes were not evaded through the purchase by a member bank or its affiliate of a time deposit of the member bank prior to the maturity of the deposit.
(b) Because the expiration of the Depository Institutions Deregulation Act (title II of Pub. L. 96-221) on April 1, 1986, removed the authority to set interest rate ceilings on deposits, one of the purposes for adopting the interpretation was eliminated. The removal of the authority to set interest rate ceilings on deposits required the Board to revise the early withdrawal penalties which were also used to distinguish between types of deposits for reserve requirement purposes. Effective April 1, 1986, the Board amended its Regulation D to incorporate early withdrawal penalties applicable to all depository institutions for this purpose (51 FR 9629, Mar. 20, 1986). Although the new early withdrawal penalties differ from the penalties used to enforce interest rate ceilings, secondary market purchases still effectively shorten the maturities of deposits and may be used to evade reserve requirements. This interpretation replaces the prior interpretation and states the application of the new early withdrawal penalties to purchases by depository institutions and their affiliates of the depository institution’s time deposits. The interpretation applies only to situations in which the Board’s regulatory penalties apply.
(c) Secondary market purchases under the rule. The Board has determined that a depository institution purchasing a time deposit it has issued should be regarded as having paid the time deposit prior to maturity. The effect of the transaction is that the depository institution has cancelled a liability as opposed to having acquired an asset for its portfolio. Thus, the depository institution is required to impose any early withdrawal penalty required by Regulation D on the party from whom it purchases the instrument by deducting the amount of the penalty from the purchase price. The Board recognizes, however, that secondary market sales of time deposits are often done without regard to the identity of the original owner of the deposit. Such sales typically involve a pool of time deposits with the price based on the aggregate face value and average rate of return on the deposits. A depository institution purchasing time deposits from persons other than the person to whom the deposit was originally issued should be aware of the parties named on each of the deposits it is purchasing but through failure to inspect the deposits prior to the purchase may not be aware at the time it purchases a pool of time deposits that it originally issued one or more of the deposits in the pool. In such cases, if a purchasing depository institution does not wish to assess an applicable early withdrawal penalty, the deposit may be sold immediately in the secondary market as an alternative to imposing the early withdrawal penalty.
(d) Purchases by affiliates. On a consolidated basis, if an affiliate (as defined in § 204.2(q) of Regulation D) of a depository institution purchases a CD issued by the depository institution, the purchase does not reduce their consolidated liabilities and could be accomplished primarily to assist the depository institution in avoiding the requirements of the Board’s Regulation D. Because the effect of the early withdrawal penalty rule could be easily circumvented by purchases of time deposits by affiliates, such purchases are also regarded as an early withdrawals of the time deposit, and the purchase should be treated as if the depository institution made the purchase directly. Thus, the regulatory requirements for early withdrawal penalties apply to affiliates of a depository institution as well as to the institution itself.
(e) Depository institution acting as broker. The Board believes that it is permissible for a depository institution to facilitate the secondary market for its own time deposits by finding a purchaser for a time deposit that a customer is trying to sell. In such instances, the depository institution will not be paying out any of its own funds, and the depositor does not have a guarantee that the depository institution will actually be able to find a buyer.
(f) Third-party market-makers. A depository institution may also establish and advertise arrangements whereby an unaffiliated third party agrees in advance to purchase time deposits issued by the institution. The Board would not regard these transactions as inconsistent with the purposes that the early withdrawal penalty is intended to serve unless a depository institution pays a fee to the third party purchaser as compensation for making the purchases or to remove the risk from purchasing the deposits. In this regard, any interim financing provided to such a third party by a depository institution in connection with the institution’s secondary market activity involving the institution’s time deposits must be made substantially on the same terms, including interest rates and collateral, as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions with other similarly situated persons and may not involve more than the normal risk of repayment.
(g) Reciprocal arrangements. Finally, while a depository institution may enter into an arrangement with an unaffiliated third party wherein the third party agrees to stand ready to purchase time deposits held by the depository institution’s customers, the Board will regard a reciprocal arrangement with another depository institution for purchase of each other’s time deposits as a circumvention of the early withdrawal penalty rule and the purposes it is designed to serve.
§ 204.132 Treatment of loan strip participations.
(a) Effective March 31, 1988, the glossary section of the instructions for the Report of Condition and Income (FFIEC 031-034; OMB control number 7100-0036; available from a depository institution’s primary federal regulator) (Call Report) was amended to clarify that certain short-term loan participation arrangements (sometimes known or styled as loan strips or strip participations) are regarded as borrowings rather than sales for Call Report purposes in certain circumstances. Through this interpretation, the Board is clarifying that such transactions should be treated as deposits for purposes of Regulation D.
(b) These transactions involve the sale (or placement) of a short-term loan by a depository institution that has been made under a long-term commitment of the depository institution to advance funds. For example, a 90-day loan made under a five-year revolving line of credit may be sold to or placed with a third party by the depository institution originating the loan. The depository institution originating the loan is obligated to renew the 90-day note itself (by advancing funds to its customer at the end of the 90-day period) in the event the original participant does not wish to renew the credit. Since, under these arrangements, the depository institution is obligated to make another loan at the end of 90 days (absent any event of default on the part of the borrower), the depository institution selling the loan or participation in effect must buy back the loan or participation at the maturity of the 90-day loan sold to or funded by the purchaser at the option of the purchaser. Accordingly, these transactions bear the essential characteristics of a repurchase agreement and, therefore, are reportable and reservable under Regulation D.
(c) Because many of these transactions give rise to deposit liabilities in the form of promissory notes, acknowledgments of advance or similar obligations (written or oral) as described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii) of Regulation D, the exemptions from the definition of deposit incorporated in that section may apply to the liability incurred by a depository institution when it offers or originates a loan strip facility. Thus, for example, loan strips sold to domestic offices of other depository institutions are exempt from Regulation D under § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A)(1) because they are obligations issued or undertaken and held for the account of a U.S. office of another depository institution. Similarly, some of these transactions result in Eurocurrency liabilities and are reportable and reservable as such.
§ 204.133 Multiple savings deposits treated as a transaction account.
(a) Authority. Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act, the Board is authorized to define the terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(1)(F), the Board also is authorized to determine, by regulation or order, that an account or deposit is a transaction account if such account is used directly or indirectly for the purpose of making payments to third persons or others. This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
(b) Background. Under Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(d)(2), the term “savings deposit” includes a deposit or an account that meets the requirements of § 204.2(d)(1) and from which, under the terms of the deposit contract or by practice of the depository institution, the depositor is permitted or authorized to make up to six transfers or withdrawals per month or statement cycle of at least four weeks. The depository institution may authorize up to three of these six transfers to be made by check, draft, debit card, or similar order drawn by the depositor and payable to third parties. If more than six transfers (or more than three third party transfers by check, etc.) are permitted or authorized per month or statement cycle, the depository institution may not classify the account as a savings deposit. If the depositor, during the period, makes more than six transfers or withdrawals (or more than three third party transfers by check, etc.), the depository institution may, depending upon the facts and circumstances, be required by Regulation D (Footnote 5 at § 204.2(d)(2)) to reclassify or close the account.
(c) Use of multiple savings deposits. Depository institutions have asked for guidance as to when a depositor may maintain more than one savings deposit and be permitted to make all the transfers or withdrawals authorized for savings deposits under Regulation D from each savings deposit. The Board has determined that, if a depository institution suggests or otherwise promotes the establishment of or operation of multiple savings accounts with transfer capabilities in order to permit transfers and withdrawals in excess of those permitted by Regulation D for an individual savings account, the accounts generally should be considered to be transaction accounts. This determination applies regardless of whether the deposits have entirely separate account numbers or are subsidiary accounts of a master deposit account. Multiple savings accounts, however, should not be considered to be transaction accounts if there is a legitimate purpose, other than increasing the number of transfers or withdrawals, for opening more than one savings deposit.
(d) Examples. The distinction between appropriate and inappropriate uses of multiple accounts is illustrated by the following examples:
(ii) Suggesting the use of four savings accounts in the name of X in this example is designed solely to permit the customer to exceed the transfer limitations on savings accounts. Accordingly, the savings accounts should be classified as transaction accounts.
(ii) X’s Bank’s suggestion to use four savings deposits in the name of X in this example is appropriate, and the third party transfers from one account should not be considered in determining whether the transfer and withdrawal limit was exceeded on any other account. X established a legitimate purpose, the segregation of the trust assets, for each account separate from the need to make third party transfers. Furthermore, there is no indication, such as by the direct or indirect transfer of funds from one account to another, that the accounts are being used for any purpose other than to make transfers to the appropriate trust.
(ii) X’s Bank may treat the multiple accounts as savings deposits for Regulation D purposes, even if it discovers that X is using the accounts to increase the transfer limits applicable to savings accounts because X’s Bank did not suggest or otherwise promote the establishment of or operation of the arrangement.
§ 204.134 Linked time deposits and transaction accounts.
(a) Authority. Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(a)), the Board is authorized to define the terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b)(2) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(1)(F), the Board also is authorized to determine, by regulation or order, that an account or deposit is a transaction account if such account is used directly or indirectly for the purpose of making payments to third persons or others. This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
(b) Linked time deposits and transaction accounts. Some depository institutions are offering or proposing to offer account arrangements under which a group of participating depositors maintain transaction accounts and time deposits with a depository institution in an arrangement under which each depositor may draw checks up to the aggregate amount held by that depositor in these accounts. Under this account arrangement, at the end of the day funds over a specified balance in each depositor’s transaction account are swept from the transaction account into a commingled time deposit. A separate time deposit is opened on each business day with the balance of deposits received that day, as well as the proceeds of any time deposit that has matured that day that are not used to pay checks or withdrawals from the transaction accounts. The time deposits, which generally have maturities of seven days, are staggered so that one or more time deposits mature each business day. Funds are apportioned among the various time deposits in a manner calculated to minimize the possibility that the funds available on any given day would be insufficient to pay all items presented.
(1) The time deposits involved in such an arrangement may be held directly by the depositor or indirectly through a trust or other arrangement. The individual depositor’s interest in time deposits may be identifiable, with an agreement by the depositors that balances held in the arrangement may be used to pay checks drawn by other depositors participating in the arrangement, or the depositor may have an undivided interest in a series of time deposits.
(2) Each day funds from the maturing time deposits are available to pay checks or other charges to the depositor’s transaction account. The depository institution’s decision concerning whether to pay checks drawn on an individual depositor’s transaction account is based on the aggregate amount of funds that the depositor has invested in the arrangement, including any amount that may be invested in unmatured time deposits. Only if checks drawn by all participants in the arrangement exceed the total balance of funds available that day (i.e. funds from the time deposit that has matured that day as well as any deposits made to participating accounts during the day) is a time deposit withdrawn prior to maturity so as to incur an early withdrawal penalty. The arrangement may be marketed as providing the customer unlimited access to its funds with a high rate of interest.
(c) Determination. In these arrangements, the aggregate deposit balances of all participants generally vary by a comparatively small amount, allowing the time deposits maturing on any day safely to cover any charges to the depositors’ transaction accounts and avoiding any early withdrawal penalties. Thus, this arrangement substitutes time deposit balances for transaction accounts balances with no practical restrictions on the depositors’ access to their funds, and serves no business purpose other than to allow the payment of higher interest through the avoidance of reserve requirements. As the time deposits may be used to provide funds indirectly for the purposes of making payments or transfers to third persons, the Board has determined that the time deposits should be considered to be transaction accounts for the purposes of Regulation D.
§ 204.135 Shifting funds between depository institutions to make use of the low reserve tranche.
(a) Authority. Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(a)) the Board is authorized to define terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and to prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b)(2) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. In addition to its authority to define terms under section 19(a), section 19(g) of the Federal Reserve Act also give the Board the specific authority to define terms relating to deductions allowed in reserve computation, including “balances due from other banks.” This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
(b) Background. (1) Currently, the Board requires reserves of zero, three, or ten percent on transaction accounts, depending upon the amount of transaction deposits in the depository institution, and of zero percent on nonpersonal time deposits. In determining its reserve balance under Regulation D, a depository institution may deduct the balances it maintains in another depository institution located in the United States if those balances are subject to immediate withdrawal by the depositing depository institution (§ 204.3(f)). This deduction is commonly known as the “due from” deduction. In addition, Regulation D at § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) exempts from the definition of “deposit” any liability of a depository institution on a promissory note or similar obligation that is issued or undertaken and held for the account of an office located in the United States of another depository institution. Transactions falling within this exemption from the definition of “deposit” include federal funds or “fed funds” transactions.
(2) Under section 19(b)(2) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b)(2)), the Board is required to impose reserves of three percent on total transaction deposits at or below an amount determined under a formula. Transaction deposits falling within this amount are in the “low reserve tranche.” Currently the low reserve tranche runs up to $42.2 million. Under section 19(b)(11) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b)(11)) the Board is also required to impose reserves of zero percent on reservable liabilities at or below an amount determined under a formula. Currently that amount is $3.6 million.
(c) Shifting funds between depository institutions. The Board is aware that certain depository institutions with transaction account balances in an amount greater than the low reserve tranche have entered into transactions with affiliated depository institutions that have transaction account balances below the maximum low reserve tranche amount. These transactions are intended to lower the transaction reserves of the larger depository institution and leave the economic position of the smaller depository institutions unaffected, and have no apparent purpose other than to reduce required reserves of the larger institution. The larger depository institution places funds in a demand deposit at a small domestic depository institution. The larger depository institution considers those funds to be subject to the “due from” deduction, and accordingly reduces its transaction reserves in the amount of the demand deposit. The larger depository institution then reduces its transaction account reserves by 10 percent of the deposited amount. The small depository institution, because it is within the low reserve tranche, must maintain transaction account reserves of 3 percent on the funds deposited by the larger depository institution. The small depository institution then transfers all but 3 percent of the funds deposited by the larger depository institution back to the larger depository institution in a transaction that qualifies as a “fed funds” transaction. The 3 percent not transferred to the larger depository institution is the amount of the larger depository institution’s deposit that the small depository institution must maintain as transaction account reserves. Because the larger depository institution books this second part of the transaction as a “fed funds” transaction, the larger depository institution does not maintain reserves on the funds that it receives back from the small depository institution. As a consequence, the larger depository institution has available for its use 97 percent of the amount transferred to the small depository institution. Had the larger depository institution not entered into the transaction, it would have maintained transaction account reserves of 10 percent on that amount, and would have had only 90 percent of that amount for use in its business.
(d) Determination. The Board believes that the practice described above generally is a device to evade the reserves imposed by Regulation D. Consequently, the Board has determined that, in the circumstances described above, the larger depository institution depositing funds in the smaller institution may not take a “due from” deduction on account of the funds in the demand deposit account if, and to the extent that, funds flow back to the larger depository institution from the small depository institution by means of a transaction that is exempt from transaction account reserve requirements.
§ 204.136 Treatment of trust overdrafts for reserve requirement reporting purposes.
(a) Authority. Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(a)), the Board is authorized to define the terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(1)(F), the Board also is authorized to determine, by regulation or order, that an account or deposit is a transaction account if such account is used directly or indirectly for the purpose of making payments to third persons or others. This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
(b) Netting of trust account balances. (1) Not all depository institutions have treated overdrafts in trust accounts administered by a trust department in the same manner when calculating the balance in a commingled transaction account in the depository institution for the account of the trust department of the institution. In some cases, depository institutions carry the aggregate of the positive balances in the individual trust accounts as the balance on which reserves are computed for the commingled account. In other cases depository institutions net positive balances in some trust accounts against negative balances in other trust accounts, thus reducing the balance in the commingled account and lowering the reserve requirements. Except in limited circumstances, negative balances in individual trust accounts should not be netted against positive balances in other trust accounts when determining the balance in a trust department’s commingled transaction account maintained in a depository institution’s commercial department. The netting of positive and negative balances has the effect of reducing the aggregate of a commingled transaction account reported by the depository institution to the Federal Reserve and reduces the reserves the institution must hold against transaction accounts under Regulation D. Unless the governing trust agreement or state law authorizes the depository institution, as trustee, to lend money in one trust to another trust, the negative balances in effect, for purposes of Regulation D, represent a loan from the depository institution. Consequently, negative balances in individual trust accounts should not be netted against positive balances in other individual trust accounts, and the balance in any transaction account containing commingled trust balances should reflect positive or zero balances for each individual trust.
(2) For example, where a trust department engages in securities lending activities for trust accounts, overdrafts might occur because of the trust department’s attempt to “normalize” the effects of timing delays between the depository institution’s receipt of the cash collateral from the broker and the trust department’s posting of the transaction to the lending trust account. When securities are lent from a trust customer to a broker that pledges cash as collateral, the broker usually transfers the cash collateral to the depository institution on the day that the securities are made available. While the institution has the use of the funds from the time of the transfer, the trust department’s normal posting procedures may not reflect receipt of the cash collateral by the individual account until the next day. On the day that the loan is terminated, the broker returns the securities to the lending trust account and the trust customer’s account is debited for the amount of the cash collateral that is returned by the depository institution to the broker. The trust department, however, often does not liquidate the investment made with the cash collateral until the day after the loan terminates, a delay that normally causes a one day overdraft in the trust account. Regulation D requires that, on the day the loan is terminated, the depository institution regard the negative balance in the customer’s account as zero for reserve requirement reporting purposes and not net the overdraft against positive balances in other accounts.
(c) Procedures. In order to meet the requirements of Regulation D, a depository institution must have procedures to determine the aggregate of trust department transaction account balances for Regulation D on a daily basis. The procedures must consider only the positive balances in individual trust accounts without netting negative balances except in those limited circumstances where loans are legally permitted from one trust to another, or where offsetting is permitted pursuant to trust law or written agreement, or where the amount that caused the overdraft is still available in a settlement, suspense or other trust account within the trust department and may be used to offset the overdraft.
PART 205 – ELECTRONIC FUND TRANSFERS (REGULATION E)
§ 205.1 Authority and purpose.
(a) Authority. The regulation in this part, known as Regulation E, is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 et seq.). The information-collection requirements have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0200.
(b) Purpose. This part carries out the purposes of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, which establishes the basic rights, liabilities, and responsibilities of consumers who use electronic fund transfer services and of financial institutions that offer these services. The primary objective of the act and this part is the protection of individual consumers engaging in electronic fund transfers.
§ 205.2 Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
(a)(1) Access device means a card, code, or other means of access to a consumer’s account, or any combination thereof, that may be used by the consumer to initiate electronic fund transfers.
(2) An access device becomes an accepted access device when the consumer:
(i) Requests and receives, or signs, or uses (or authorizes another to use) the access device to transfer money between accounts or to obtain money, property, or services;
(ii) Requests validation of an access device issued on an unsolicited basis; or
(iii) Receives an access device in renewal of, or in substitution for, an accepted access device from either the financial institution that initially issued the device or a successor.
(b)(1) Account means a demand deposit (checking), savings, or other consumer asset account (other than an occasional or incidental credit balance in a credit plan) held directly or indirectly by a financial institution and established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
(2) The term includes a “payroll card account” which is an account that is directly or indirectly established through an employer and to which electronic fund transfers of the consumer’s wages, salary, or other employee compensation (such as commissions), are made on a recurring basis, whether the account is operated or managed by the employer, a third-party payroll processor, a depository institution or any other person. For rules governing payroll card accounts, see § 205.18.
(3) The term does not include an account held by a financial institution under a bona fide trust agreement.
(c) Act means the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (title IX of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693 et seq.).
(d) Business day means any day on which the offices of the consumer’s financial institution are open to the public for carrying on substantially all business functions.
(e) Consumer means a natural person.
(f) Credit means the right granted by a financial institution to a consumer to defer payment of debt, incur debt and defer its payment, or purchase property or services and defer payment therefor.
(g) Electronic fund transfer is defined in § 205.3.
(h) Electronic terminal means an electronic device, other than a telephone operated by a consumer, through which a consumer may initiate an electronic fund transfer. The term includes, but is not limited to, point-of-sale terminals, automated teller machines, and cash dispensing machines.
(i) Financial institution means a bank, savings association, credit union, or any other person that directly or indirectly holds an account belonging to a consumer, or that issues an access device and agrees with a consumer to provide electronic fund transfer services.
(j) Person means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, government agency, estate, trust, partnership, proprietorship, cooperative, or association.
(k) Preauthorized electronic fund transfer means an electronic fund transfer authorized in advance to recur at substantially regular intervals.
(l) State means any state, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision of the above in this paragraph (l).
(m) Unauthorized electronic fund transfer means an electronic fund transfer from a consumer’s account initiated by a person other than the consumer without actual authority to initiate the transfer and from which the consumer receives no benefit. The term does not include an electronic fund transfer initiated:
(1) By a person who was furnished the access device to the consumer’s account by the consumer, unless the consumer has notified the financial institution that transfers by that person are no longer authorized;
(2) With fraudulent intent by the consumer or any person acting in concert with the consumer; or
(3) By the financial institution or its employee.
§ 205.3 Coverage.
(a) General. This part applies to any electronic fund transfer that authorizes a financial institution to debit or credit a consumer’s account. Generally, this part applies to financial institutions. For purposes of §§ 205.3(b)(2) and (b)(3), 205.10(b), (d), and (e), 205.13, and 205.20, this part applies to any person.
(b) Electronic fund transfer – (1) Definition. The term electronic fund transfer means any transfer of funds that is initiated through an electronic terminal, telephone, computer, or magnetic tape for the purpose of ordering, instructing, or authorizing a financial institution to debit or credit a consumer’s account. The term includes, but is not limited to –
(i) Point-of-sale transfers;
(ii) Automated teller machine transfers;
(iii) Direct deposits or withdrawals of funds;
(iv) Transfers initiated by telephone; and
(v) Transfers resulting from debit card transactions, whether or not initiated through an electronic terminal.
(2) Electronic fund transfer using information from a check. (i) This part applies where a check, draft, or similar paper instrument is used as a source of information to initiate a one-time electronic fund transfer from a consumer’s account. The consumer must authorize the transfer.
(ii) The person initiating an electronic fund transfer using the consumer’s check as a source of information for the transfer must provide a notice that the transaction will or may be processed as an EFT, and obtain a consumer’s authorization for each transfer. A consumer authorizes a one-time electronic fund transfer (in providing a check to a merchant or other payee for the MICR encoding, that is, the routing number of the financial institution, the consumer’s account number and the serial number) when the consumer receives notice and goes forward with the underlying transaction. For point-of-sale transfers, the notice must be posted in a prominent and conspicuous location, and a copy thereof, or a substantially similar notice, must be provided to the consumer at the time of the transaction.
(iii) The person that initiates an electronic fund transfer using the consumer’s check as a source of information for the transfer shall also provide a notice to the consumer at the same time it provides the notice required under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) that when a check is used to initiate an electronic fund transfer, funds may be debited from the consumer’s account as soon as the same day payment is received, and, as applicable, that the consumer’s check will not be returned by the financial institution holding the consumer’s account. For point-of-sale transfers, the person initiating the transfer may post the notice required in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) in a prominent and conspicuous location and need not include this notice on the copy of the notice given to the consumer under paragraph (b)(2)(ii). The requirements in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) shall remain in effect until December 31, 2009.
(iv) A person may provide notices that are substantially similar to those set forth in appendix A-6 to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2).
(3) Collection of returned item fees via electronic fund transfer – (i) General. The person initiating an electronic fund transfer to collect a fee for the return of an electronic fund transfer or a check that is unpaid, including due to insufficient or uncollected funds in the consumer’s account, must obtain the consumer’s authorization for each transfer. A consumer authorizes a one-time electronic fund transfer from his or her account to pay the fee for the returned item or transfer if the person collecting the fee provides notice to the consumer stating that the person may electronically collect the fee, and the consumer goes forward with the underlying transaction. The notice must state that the fee will be collected by means of an electronic fund transfer from the consumer’s account if the payment is returned unpaid and must disclose the dollar amount of the fee. If the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, then, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the person collecting the fee may disclose, in place of the dollar amount of the fee, an explanation of how the fee will be determined.
(ii) Point-of-sale transactions. If a fee for an electronic fund transfer or check returned unpaid may be collected electronically in connection with a point-of-sale transaction, the person initiating an electronic fund transfer to collect the fee must post the notice described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section in a prominent and conspicuous location. The person also must either provide the consumer with a copy of the posted notice (or a substantially similar notice) at the time of the transaction, or mail the copy (or a substantially similar notice) to the consumer’s address as soon as reasonably practicable after the person initiates the electronic fund transfer to collect the fee. If the amount of the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, the posted notice may explain how the fee will be determined, but the notice provided to the consumer must state the dollar amount of the fee if the amount can be calculated at the time the notice is provided or mailed to the consumer.
(iii) Delayed compliance date for fee disclosure. Through December 31, 2007, the notice required to be provided to consumers under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section in connection with a point-of-sale transaction, whether given to the consumer at the time of the transaction or subsequently mailed to the consumer, need not include either the dollar amount of any fee collected electronically for a check or electronic fund transfer returned unpaid or an explanation of how the amount of the fee will be determined.
(c) Exclusions from coverage. The term electronic fund transfer does not include:
(1) Checks. Any transfer of funds originated by check, draft, or similar paper instrument; or any payment made by check, draft, or similar paper instrument at an electronic terminal.
(2) Check guarantee or authorization. Any transfer of funds that guarantees payment or authorizes acceptance of a check, draft, or similar paper instrument but that does not directly result in a debit or credit to a consumer’s account.
(3) Wire or other similar transfers. Any transfer of funds through Fedwire or through a similar wire transfer system that is used primarily for transfers between financial institutions or between businesses.
(4) Securities and commodities transfers. Any transfer of funds the primary purpose of which is the purchase or sale of a security or commodity, if the security or commodity is:
(i) Regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission;
(ii) Purchased or sold through a broker-dealer regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or through a futures commission merchant regulated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; or
(iii) Held in book-entry form by a Federal Reserve Bank or federal agency.
(5) Automatic transfers by account-holding institution. Any transfer of funds under an agreement between a consumer and a financial institution which provides that the institution will initiate individual transfers without a specific request from the consumer:
(i) Between a consumer’s accounts within the financial institution;
(ii) From a consumer’s account to an account of a member of the consumer’s family held in the same financial institution; or
(iii) Between a consumer’s account and an account of the financial institution, except that these transfers remain subject to § 205.10(e) regarding compulsory use and sections 915 and 916 of the act regarding civil and criminal liability.
(6) Telephone-initiated transfers. Any transfer of funds that:
(i) Is initiated by a telephone communication between a consumer and a financial institution making the transfer; and
(ii) Does not take place under a telephone bill-payment or other written plan in which periodic or recurring transfers are contemplated.
(7) Small institutions. Any preauthorized transfer to or from an account if the assets of the account-holding financial institution were $100 million or less on the preceding December 31. If assets of the account-holding institution subsequently exceed $100 million, the institution’s exemption for preauthorized transfers terminates one year from the end of the calendar year in which the assets exceed $100 million. Preauthorized transfers exempt under this paragraph (c)(7) remain subject to § 205.10(e) regarding compulsory use and sections 915 and 916 of the act regarding civil and criminal liability.
§ 205.4 General disclosure requirements; jointly offered services.
(a)(1) Form of disclosures. Disclosures required under this part shall be clear and readily understandable, in writing, and in a form the consumer may keep, except as otherwise provided in this part. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer-consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq.). A financial institution may use commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations in complying with the disclosure requirements of this part.
(2) Foreign language disclosures. Disclosures required under this part may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer’s request.
(b) Additional information; disclosures required by other laws. A financial institution may include additional information and may combine disclosures required by other laws (such as the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.) or the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4301 et seq.)) with the disclosures required by this part.
(c) Multiple accounts and account holders – (1) Multiple accounts. A financial institution may combine the required disclosures into a single statement for a consumer who holds more than one account at the institution.
(2) Multiple account holders. For joint accounts held by two or more consumers, a financial institution need provide only one set of the required disclosures and may provide them to any of the account holders.
(d) Services offered jointly. Financial institutions that provide electronic fund transfer services jointly may contract among themselves to comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. An institution need make only the disclosures required by §§ 205.7 and 205.8 that are within its knowledge and within the purview of its relationship with the consumer for whom it holds an account.
§ 205.5 Issuance of access devices.
(a) Solicited issuance. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a financial institution may issue an access device to a consumer only:
(1) In response to an oral or written request for the device; or
(2) As a renewal of, or in substitution for, an accepted access device whether issued by the institution or a successor.
(b) Unsolicited issuance. A financial institution may distribute an access device to a consumer on an unsolicited basis if the access device is:
(1) Not validated, meaning that the institution has not yet performed all the procedures that would enable a consumer to initiate an electronic fund transfer using the access device;
(2) Accompanied by a clear explanation that the access device is not validated and how the consumer may dispose of it if validation is not desired;
(3) Accompanied by the disclosures required by § 205.7, of the consumer’s rights and liabilities that will apply if the access device is validated; and
(4) Validated only in response to the consumer’s oral or written request for validation, after the institution has verified the consumer’s identity by a reasonable means.
(a) Conditions for liability. A consumer may be held liable, within the limitations described in paragraph (b) of this section, for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer involving the consumer’s account only if the financial institution has provided the disclosures required by § 205.7(b)(1), (2), and (3). If the unauthorized transfer involved an access device, it must be an accepted access device and the financial institution must have provided a means to identify the consumer to whom it was issued.
(b) Limitations on amount of liability. A consumer’s liability for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer or a series of related unauthorized transfers shall be determined as follows:
(1) Timely notice given. If the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days after learning of the loss or theft of the access device, the consumer’s liability shall not exceed the lesser of $50 or the amount of unauthorized transfers that occur before notice to the financial institution.
(2) Timely notice not given. If the consumer fails to notify the financial institution within two business days after learning of the loss or theft of the access device, the consumer’s liability shall not exceed the lesser of $500 or the sum of:
(i) $50 or the amount of unauthorized transfers that occur within the two business days, whichever is less; and
(ii) The amount of unauthorized transfers that occur after the close of two business days and before notice to the institution, provided the institution establishes that these transfers would not have occurred had the consumer notified the institution within that two-day period.
(3) Periodic statement; timely notice not given. A consumer must report an unauthorized electronic fund transfer that appears on a periodic statement within 60 days of the financial institution’s transmittal of the statement to avoid liability for subsequent transfers. If the consumer fails to do so, the consumer’s liability shall not exceed the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occur after the close of the 60 days and before notice to the institution, and that the institution establishes would not have occurred had the consumer notified the institution within the 60-day period. When an access device is involved in the unauthorized transfer, the consumer may be liable for other amounts set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, as applicable.
(4) Extension of time limits. If the consumer’s delay in notifying the financial institution was due to extenuating circumstances, the institution shall extend the times specified above to a reasonable period.
(5) Notice to financial institution. (i) Notice to a financial institution is given when a consumer takes steps reasonably necessary to provide the institution with the pertinent information, whether or not a particular employee or agent of the institution actually receives the information.
(ii) The consumer may notify the institution in person, by telephone, or in writing.
(iii) Written notice is considered given at the time the consumer mails the notice or delivers it for transmission to the institution by any other usual means. Notice may be considered constructively given when the institution becomes aware of circumstances leading to the reasonable belief that an unauthorized transfer to or from the consumer’s account has been or may be made.
(6) Liability under state law or agreement. If state law or an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution imposes less liability than is provided by this section, the consumer’s liability shall not exceed the amount imposed under the state law or agreement.
§ 205.7 Initial disclosures.
(a) Timing of disclosures. A financial institution shall make the disclosures required by this section at the time a consumer contracts for an electronic fund transfer service or before the first electronic fund transfer is made involving the consumer’s account.
(b) Content of disclosures. A financial institution shall provide the following disclosures, as applicable:
(1) Liability of consumer. A summary of the consumer’s liability, under § 205.6 or under state or other applicable law or agreement, for unauthorized electronic fund transfers.
(2) Telephone number and address. The telephone number and address of the person or office to be notified when the consumer believes that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has been or may be made.
(3) Business days. The financial institution’s business days.
(4) Types of transfers; limitations. The type of electronic fund transfers that the consumer may make and any limitations on the frequency and dollar amount of transfers. Details of the limitations need not be disclosed if confidentiality is essential to maintain the security of the electronic fund transfer system.
(5) Fees. Any fees imposed by the financial institution for electronic fund transfers or for the right to make transfers.
(6) Documentation. A summary of the consumer’s right to receipts and periodic statements, as provided in § 205.9, and notices regarding preauthorized transfers as provided in §§ 205.10(a), and 205.10(d).
(7) Stop payment. A summary of the consumer’s right to stop payment of a preauthorized electronic fund transfer and the procedure for placing a stop-payment order, as provided in § 205.10(c).
(8) Liability of institution. A summary of the financial institution’s liability to the consumer under section 910 of the act for failure to make or to stop certain transfers.
(9) Confidentiality. The circumstances under which, in the ordinary course of business, the financial institution may provide information concerning the consumer’s account to third parties.
(10) Error resolution. A notice that is substantially similar to Model Form A-3 as set out in appendix A of this part concerning error resolution.
(11) ATM fees. A notice that a fee may be imposed by an automated teller machine operator as defined in § 205.16(a)(1), when the consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer or makes a balance inquiry, and by any network used to complete the transaction.
(c) Addition of electronic fund transfer services. If an electronic fund transfer service is added to a consumer’s account and is subject to terms and conditions different from those described in the initial disclosures, disclosures for the new service are required.
§ 205.8 Change in terms notice; error resolution notice.
(a) Change in terms notice – (1) Prior notice required. A financial institution shall mail or deliver a written notice to the consumer, at least 21 days before the effective date, of any change in a term or condition required to be disclosed under § 205.7(b) if the change would result in:
(i) Increased fees for the consumer;
(ii) Increased liability for the consumer;
(iii) Fewer types of available electronic fund transfers; or
(iv) Stricter limitations on the frequency or dollar amount of transfers.
(2) Prior notice exception. A financial institution need not give prior notice if an immediate change in terms or conditions is necessary to maintain or restore the security of an account or an electronic fund transfer system. If the institution makes such a change permanent and disclosure would not jeopardize the security of the account or system, the institution shall notify the consumer in writing on or with the next regularly scheduled periodic statement or within 30 days of making the change permanent.
(b) Error resolution notice. For accounts to or from which electronic fund transfers can be made, a financial institution shall mail or deliver to the consumer, at least once each calendar year, an error resolution notice substantially similar to the model form set forth in appendix A of this part (Model Form A-3). Alternatively, an institution may include an abbreviated notice substantially similar to the model form error resolution notice set forth in Appendix A of this part (Model Form A-3), on or with each periodic statement required by § 205.9(b).
§ 205.9 Receipts at electronic terminals; periodic statements.
(a) Receipts at electronic terminals – General. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a financial institution shall make a receipt available to a consumer at the time the consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer at an electronic terminal. The receipt shall set forth the following information, as applicable:
(1) Amount. The amount of the transfer. A transaction fee may be included in this amount, provided the amount of the fee is disclosed on the receipt and displayed on or at the terminal.
(2) Date. The date the consumer initiates the transfer.
(3) Type. The type of transfer and the type of the consumer’s account(s) to or from which funds are transferred. The type of account may be omitted if the access device used is able to access only one account at that terminal.
(4) Identification. A number or code that identifies the consumer’s account or accounts, or the access device used to initiate the transfer. The number or code need not exceed four digits or letters to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(4).
(5) Terminal location. The location of the terminal where the transfer is initiated, or an identification such as a code or terminal number. Except in limited circumstances where all terminals are located in the same city or state, if the location is disclosed, it shall include the city and state or foreign country and one of the following:
(i) The street address; or
(ii) A generally accepted name for the specific location; or
(iii) The name of the owner or operator of the terminal if other than the account-holding institution.
(6) Third party transfer. The name of any third party to or from whom funds are transferred.
(b) Periodic statements. For an account to or from which electronic fund transfers can be made, a financial institution shall send a periodic statement for each monthly cycle in which an electronic fund transfer has occurred; and shall send a periodic statement at least quarterly if no transfer has occurred. The statement shall set forth the following information, as applicable:
(1) Transaction information. For each electronic fund transfer occurring during the cycle:
(i) The amount of the transfer;
(ii) The date the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer’s account;
(iii) The type of transfer and type of account to or from which funds were transferred;
(iv) For a transfer initiated by the consumer at an electronic terminal (except for a deposit of cash or a check, draft, or similar paper instrument), the terminal location described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section; and
(v) The name of any third party to or from whom funds were transferred.
(2) Account number. The number of the account.
(3) Fees. The amount of any fees assessed against the account during the statement period for electronic fund transfers, for the right to make transfers, or for account maintenance.
(4) Account balances. The balance in the account at the beginning and at the close of the statement period.
(5) Address and telephone number for inquiries. The address and telephone number to be used for inquiries or notice of errors, preceded by “Direct inquiries to” or similar language. The address and telephone number provided on an error resolution notice under § 205.8(b) given on or with the statement satisfies this requirement.
(6) Telephone number for preauthorized transfers. A telephone number the consumer may call to ascertain whether preauthorized transfers to the consumer’s account have occurred, if the financial institution uses the telephone-notice option under
§ 205.10(a)(1)(iii).
(c) Exceptions to the periodic statement requirement for certain accounts – (1) Preauthorized transfers to accounts. For accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account the following rules apply:
(i) Passbook accounts. For passbook accounts, the financial institution need not provide a periodic statement if the institution updates the passbook upon presentation or enters on a separate document the amount and date of each electronic fund transfer since the passbook was last presented.
(ii) Other accounts. For accounts other than passbook accounts, the financial institution must send a periodic statement at least quarterly.
(2) Intra-institutional transfers. For an electronic fund transfer initiated by the consumer between two accounts of the consumer in the same institution, documenting the transfer on a periodic statement for one of the two accounts satisfies the periodic statement requirement.
(3) Relationship between paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section. An account that is accessed by preauthorized transfers to the account described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and by intra-institutional transfers described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, but by no other type of electronic fund transfers, qualifies for the exceptions provided by paragraph (c)(1) of this section .
(d) Documentation for foreign-initiated transfers. The failure by a financial institution to provide a terminal receipt for an electronic fund transfer or to document the transfer on a periodic statement does not violate this part if:
(1) The transfer is not initiated within a state; and
(2) The financial institution treats an inquiry for clarification or documentation as a notice of error in accordance with § 205.11.
(e) Exception for receipts in small-value transfers. A financial institution is not subject to the requirement to make available a receipt under paragraph (a) of this section if the amount of the transfer is $15 or less.
(a) Preauthorized transfers to consumer’s account – (1) Notice by financial institution. When a person initiates preauthorized electronic fund transfers to a consumer’s account at least once every 60 days, the account-holding financial institution shall provide notice to the consumer by:
(i) Positive notice. Providing oral or written notice of the transfer within two business days after the transfer occurs; or
(ii) Negative notice. Providing oral or written notice, within two business days after the date on which the transfer was scheduled to occur, that the transfer did not occur; or
(iii) Readily-available telephone line. Providing a readily available telephone line that the consumer may call to determine whether the transfer occurred and disclosing the telephone number on the initial disclosure of account terms and on each periodic statement.
(2) Notice by payor. A financial institution need not provide notice of a transfer if the payor gives the consumer positive notice that the transfer has been initiated.
(3) Crediting. A financial institution that receives a preauthorized transfer of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall credit the amount of the transfer as of the date the funds for the transfer are received.
(b) Written authorization for preauthorized transfers from consumer’s account. Preauthorized electronic fund transfers from a consumer’s account may be authorized only by a writing signed or similarly authenticated by the consumer. The person that obtains the authorization shall provide a copy to the consumer.
(c) Consumer’s right to stop payment – (1) Notice. A consumer may stop payment of a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer’s account by notifying the financial institution orally or in writing at least three business days before the scheduled date of the transfer.
(2) Written confirmation. The financial institution may require the consumer to give written confirmation of a stop-payment order within 14 days of an oral notification. An institution that requires written confirmation shall inform the consumer of the requirement and provide the address where confirmation must be sent when the consumer gives the oral notification. An oral stop-payment order ceases to be binding after 14 days if the consumer fails to provide the required written confirmation.
(d) Notice of transfers varying in amount – (1) Notice. When a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer’s account will vary in amount from the previous transfer under the same authorization or from the preauthorized amount, the designated payee or the financial institution shall send the consumer written notice of the amount and date of the transfer at least 10 days before the scheduled date of transfer.
(2) Range. The designated payee or the institution shall inform the consumer of the right to receive notice of all varying transfers, but may give the consumer the option of receiving notice only when a transfer falls outside a specified range of amounts or only when a transfer differs from the most recent transfer by more than an agreed-upon amount.
(e) Compulsory use – (1) Credit. No financial institution or other person may condition an extension of credit to a consumer on the consumer’s repayment by preauthorized electronic fund transfers, except for credit extended under an overdraft credit plan or extended to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer’s account.
(2) Employment or government benefit. No financial institution or other person may require a consumer to establish an account for receipt of electronic fund transfers with a particular institution as a condition of employment or receipt of a government benefit.
§ 205.11 Procedures for resolving errors.
(a) Definition of error – (1) Types of transfers or inquiries covered. The term error means:
(i) An unauthorized electronic fund transfer;
(ii) An incorrect electronic fund transfer to or from the consumer’s account;
(iii) The omission of an electronic fund transfer from a periodic statement;
(iv) A computational or bookkeeping error made by the financial institution relating to an electronic fund transfer;
(v) The consumer’s receipt of an incorrect amount of money from an electronic terminal;
(vi) An electronic fund transfer not identified in accordance with §§ 205.9 or 205.10(a); or
(vii) The consumer’s request for documentation required by §§ 205.9 or 205.10(a) or for additional information or clarification concerning an electronic fund transfer, including a request the consumer makes to determine whether an error exists under paragraphs (a)(1) (i) through (vi) of this section.
(2) Types of inquiries not covered. The term error does not include:
(i) A routine inquiry about the consumer’s account balance;
(ii) A request for information for tax or other recordkeeping purposes; or
(iii) A request for duplicate copies of documentation.
(b) Notice of error from consumer – (1) Timing; contents. A financial institution shall comply with the requirements of this section with respect to any oral or written notice of error from the consumer that:
(i) Is received by the institution no later than 60 days after the institution sends the periodic statement or provides the passbook documentation, required by § 205.9, on which the alleged error is first reflected;
(ii) Enables the institution to identify the consumer’s name and account number; and
(iii) Indicates why the consumer believes an error exists and includes to the extent possible the type, date, and amount of the error, except for requests described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section.
(2) Written confirmation. A financial institution may require the consumer to give written confirmation of an error within 10 business days of an oral notice. An institution that requires written confirmation shall inform the consumer of the requirement and provide the address where confirmation must be sent when the consumer gives the oral notification.
(3) Request for documentation or clarifications. When a notice of error is based on documentation or clarification that the consumer requested under paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section, the consumer’s notice of error is timely if received by the financial institution no later than 60 days after the institution sends the information requested.
(c) Time limits and extent of investigation – (1) Ten-day period. A financial institution shall investigate promptly and, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), shall determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days of receiving a notice of error. The institution shall report the results to the consumer within three business days after completing its investigation. The institution shall correct the error within one business day after determining that an error occurred.
(2) Forty-five day period. If the financial institution is unable to complete its investigation within 10 business days, the institution may take up to 45 days from receipt of a notice of error to investigate and determine whether an error occurred, provided the institution does the following:
(i) Provisionally credits the consumer’s account in the amount of the alleged error (including interest where applicable) within 10 business days of receiving the error notice. If the financial institution has a reasonable basis for believing that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has occurred and the institution has satisfied the requirements of § 205.6(a), the institution may withhold a maximum of $50 from the amount credited. An institution need not provisionally credit the consumer’s account if:
(A) The institution requires but does not receive written confirmation within 10 business days of an oral notice of error; or
(B) The alleged error involves an account that is subject to Regulation T (Securities Credit by Brokers and Dealers, 12 CFR part 220);
(ii) Informs the consumer, within two business days after the provisional crediting, of the amount and date of the provisional crediting and gives the consumer full use of the funds during the investigation;
(iii) Corrects the error, if any, within one business day after determining that an error occurred; and
(iv) Reports the results to the consumer within three business days after completing its investigation (including, if applicable, notice that a provisional credit has been made final).
(3) Extension of time periods. The time periods in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section are extended as follows:
(i) The applicable time is 20 business days in place of 10 business days under paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section if the notice of error involves an electronic fund transfer to or from the account within 30 days after the first deposit to the account was made.
(ii) The applicable time is 90 days in place of 45 days under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for completing an investigation, if a notice of error involves an electronic fund transfer that:
(A) Was not initiated within a state;
(B) Resulted from a point-of-sale debit card transaction; or
(C) Occurred within 30 days after the first deposit to the account was made.
(4) Investigation. With the exception of transfers covered by § 205.14, a financial institution’s review of its own records regarding an alleged error satisfies the requirements of this section if:
(i) The alleged error concerns a transfer to or from a third party; and
(ii) There is no agreement between the institution and the third party for the type of electronic fund transfer involved.
(d) Procedures if financial institution determines no error or different error occurred. In addition to following the procedures specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the financial institution shall follow the procedures set forth in this paragraph (d) if it determines that no error occurred or that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the consumer:
(1) Written explanation. The institution’s report of the results of its investigation shall include a written explanation of the institution’s findings and shall note the consumer’s right to request the documents that the institution relied on in making its determination. Upon request, the institution shall promptly provide copies of the documents.
(2) Debiting provisional credit. Upon debiting a provisionally credited amount, the financial institution shall:
(i) Notify the consumer of the date and amount of the debiting;
(ii) Notify the consumer that the institution will honor checks, drafts, or similar instruments payable to third parties and preauthorized transfers from the consumer’s account (without charge to the consumer as a result of an overdraft) for five business days after the notification. The institution shall honor items as specified in the notice, but need honor only items that it would have paid if the provisionally credited funds had not been debited.
(e) Reassertion of error. A financial institution that has fully complied with the error resolution requirements has no further responsibilities under this section should the consumer later reassert the same error, except in the case of an error asserted by the consumer following receipt of information provided under paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section.
§ 205.12 Relation to other laws.
(a) Relation to Truth in Lending. (1) The Electronic Fund Transfer Act and this part govern –
(i) The addition to an accepted credit card as defined in Regulation Z (12 CFR 226.12, comment 12-2), of the capability to initiate electronic fund transfers;
(ii) The issuance of an access device that permits credit extensions (under a preexisting agreement between a consumer and a financial institution) only when the consumer’s account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer’s account, or under an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a);
(iii) The addition of an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a), to an accepted access device; and
(iv) A consumer’s liability for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer and the investigation of errors involving an extension of credit that occurs under an agreement between the consumer and a financial institution to extend credit when the consumer’s account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer’s account, or under an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a).
(2) The Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), which prohibit the unsolicited issuance of credit cards, govern –
(i) The addition of a credit feature to an accepted access device; and
(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, the issuance of a credit card that is also an access device.
(b) Preemption of inconsistent state laws – (1) Inconsistent requirements. The Board shall determine, upon its own motion or upon the request of a state, financial institution, or other interested party, whether the act and this part preempt state law relating to electronic fund transfers, or dormancy, inactivity, or service fees, or expiration dates in the case of gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards.
(2) Standards for determination. State law is inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part if it:
(i) Requires or permits a practice or act prohibited by the federal law;
(ii) Provides for consumer liability for unauthorized electronic fund transfers that exceeds the limits imposed by the federal law;
(iii) Allows longer time periods than the federal law for investigating and correcting alleged errors, or does not require the financial institution to credit the consumer’s account during an error investigation in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2)(i); or
(iv) Requires initial disclosures, periodic statements, or receipts that are different in content from those required by the federal law except to the extent that the disclosures relate to consumer rights granted by the state law and not by the federal law.
(c) State exemptions – (1) General rule. Any state may apply for an exemption from the requirements of the act or this part for any class of electronic fund transfers within the state. The Board shall grant an exemption if it determines that:
(i) Under state law the class of electronic fund transfers is subject to requirements substantially similar to those imposed by the federal law; and
(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement.
(2) Exception. To assure that the federal and state courts continue to have concurrent jurisdiction, and to aid in implementing the act:
(i) No exemption shall extend to the civil liability provisions of section 915 of the act; and
(ii) When the Board grants an exemption, the state law requirements shall constitute the requirements of the federal law for purposes of section 915 of the act, except for state law requirements not imposed by the federal law.
§ 205.13 Administrative enforcement; record retention.
(a) Enforcement by federal agencies. Compliance with this part is enforced by the agencies listed in Appendix B of this part.
(b) Record retention. (1) Any person subject to the act and this part shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by the act and this part for a period of not less than two years from the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken.
(2) Any person subject to the act and this part having actual notice that it is the subject of an investigation or an enforcement proceeding by its enforcement agency, or having been served with notice of an action filed under sections 910, 915, or 916(a) of the act, shall retain the records that pertain to the investigation, action, or proceeding until final disposition of the matter unless an earlier time is allowed by court or agency order.
§ 205.14 Electronic fund transfer service provider not holding consumer’s account.
(a) Provider of electronic fund transfer service. A person that provides an electronic fund transfer service to a consumer but that does not hold the consumer’s account is subject to all requirements of this part if the person:
(1) Issues a debit card (or other access device) that the consumer can use to access the consumer’s account held by a financial institution; and
(2) Has no agreement with the account-holding institution regarding such access.
(b) Compliance by service provider. In addition to the requirements generally applicable under this part, the service provider shall comply with the following special rules:
(1) Disclosures and documentation. The service provider shall give the disclosures and documentation required by §§ 205.7, 205.8, and 205.9 that are within the purview of its relationship with the consumer. The service provider need not furnish the periodic statement required by § 205.9(b) if the following conditions are met:
(i) The debit card (or other access device) issued to the consumer bears the service provider’s name and an address or telephone number for making inquiries or giving notice of error;
(ii) The consumer receives a notice concerning use of the debit card that is substantially similar to the notice contained in appendix A of this part;
(iii) The consumer receives, on or with the receipts required by § 205.9(a), the address and telephone number to be used for an inquiry, to give notice of an error, or to report the loss or theft of the debit card;
(iv) The service provider transmits to the account-holding institution the information specified in § 205.9(b)(1), in the format prescribed by the automated clearinghouse system used to clear the fund transfers;
(v) The service provider extends the time period for notice of loss or theft of a debit card, set forth in § 205.6(b) (1) and (2), from two business days to four business days after the consumer learns of the loss or theft; and extends the time periods for reporting unauthorized transfers or errors, set forth in §§ 205.6(b)(3) and 205.11(b)(1)(i), from 60 days to 90 days following the transmittal of a periodic statement by the account-holding institution.
(2) Error resolution. (i) The service provider shall extend by a reasonable time the period in which notice of an error must be received, specified in § 205.11(b)(1)(i), if a delay resulted from an initial attempt by the consumer to notify the account-holding institution.
(ii) The service provider shall disclose to the consumer the date on which it initiates a transfer to effect a provisional credit in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2)(ii).
(iii) If the service provider determines an error occurred, it shall transfer funds to or from the consumer’s account, in the appropriate amount and within the applicable time period, in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2)(i).
(iv) If funds were provisionally credited and the service provider determines no error occurred, it may reverse the credit. The service provider shall notify the account-holding institution of the period during which the account-holding institution must honor debits to the account in accordance with § 205.11(d)(2)(ii). If an overdraft results, the service provider shall promptly reimburse the account-holding institution in the amount of the overdraft.
(c) Compliance by account-holding institution. The account-holding institution need not comply with the requirements of the act and this part with respect to electronic fund transfers initiated through the service provider except as follows:
(1) Documentation. The account-holding institution shall provide a periodic statement that describes each electronic fund transfer initiated by the consumer with the access device issued by the service provider. The account-holding institution has no liability for the failure to comply with this requirement if the service provider did not provide the necessary information; and
(2) Error resolution. Upon request, the account-holding institution shall provide information or copies of documents needed by the service provider to investigate errors or to furnish copies of documents to the consumer. The account-holding institution shall also honor debits to the account in accordance with § 205.11(d)(2)(ii).
§ 205.15 Electronic fund transfer of government benefits.
(a) Government agency subject to regulation. (1) A government agency is deemed to be a financial institution for purposes of the act and this part if directly or indirectly it issues an access device to a consumer for use in initiating an electronic fund transfer of government benefits from an account, other than needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency. The agency shall comply with all applicable requirements of the act and this part, except as provided in this section.
(2) For purposes of this section, the term account means an account established by a government agency for distributing government benefits to a consumer electronically, such as through automated teller machines or point-of-sale terminals, but does not include an account for distributing needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency.
(b) Issuance of access devices. For purposes of this section, a consumer is deemed to request an access device when the consumer applies for government benefits that the agency disburses or will disburse by means of an electronic fund transfer. The agency shall verify the identity of the consumer receiving the device by reasonable means before the device is activated.
(c) Alternative to periodic statement. A government agency need not furnish the periodic statement required by § 205.9(b) if the agency makes available to the consumer:
(1) The consumer’s account balance, through a readily available telephone line and at a terminal (such as by providing balance information at a balance-inquiry terminal or providing it, routinely or upon request, on a terminal receipt at the time of an electronic fund transfer); and
(2) A written history of the consumer’s account transactions that is provided promptly in response to an oral or written request and that covers at least 60 days preceding the date of a request by the consumer.
(d) Modified requirements. A government agency that does not furnish periodic statements, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, shall comply with the following special rules:
(1) Initial disclosures. The agency shall modify the disclosures under § 205.7(b) by disclosing:
(i) Account balance. The means by which the consumer may obtain information concerning the account balance, including a telephone number. The agency provides a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A of this part.
(ii) Written account history. A summary of the consumer’s right to receive a written account history upon request, in place of the periodic statement required by § 205.7(b)(6), and the telephone number to call to request an account history. This disclosure may be made by providing a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A of this part.
(iii) Error resolution. A notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A of this part, in place of the notice required by § 205.7(b)(10).
(2) Annual error resolution notice. The agency shall provide an annual notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A, in place of the notice required by § 205.8(b).
(3) Limitations on liability. For purposes of § 205.6(b)(3), regarding a 60-day period for reporting any unauthorized transfer that appears on a periodic statement, the 60-day period shall begin with transmittal of a written account history or other account information provided to the consumer under paragraph (c) of this section.
(4) Error resolution. The agency shall comply with the requirements of § 205.11 in response to an oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received no later than 60 days after the consumer obtains the written account history or other account information, under paragraph (c) of this section, in which the error is first reflected.
§ 205.16 Disclosures at automated teller machines.
(a) Definition. Automated teller machine operator means any person that operates an automated teller machine at which a consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry and that does not hold the account to or from which the transfer is made, or about which an inquiry is made.
(b) General. An automated teller machine operator that imposes a fee on a consumer for initiating an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry shall:
(1) Provide notice that a fee will be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or a balance inquiry; and
(2) Disclose the amount of the fee.
(c) Notice requirement. To meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, an automated teller machine operator must comply with the following:
(1) On the machine. Post in a prominent and conspicuous location on or at the automated teller machine a notice that:
(i) A fee will be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or for a balance inquiry; or
(ii) A fee may be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or for a balance inquiry, but the notice in this paragraph (c)(1)(ii) may be substituted for the notice in paragraph (c)(1)(i) only if there are circumstances under which a fee will not be imposed for such services; and
(2) Screen or paper notice. Provide the notice required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section either by showing it on the screen of the automated teller machine or by providing it on paper, before the consumer is committed to paying a fee.
(d) Temporary exemption. Through December 31, 2004, the notice requirement in paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not apply to any automated teller machine that lacks the technical capability to provide such information.
(e) Imposition of fee. An automated teller machine operator may impose a fee on a consumer for initiating an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry only if
(1) The consumer is provided the notices required under paragraph (c) of this section, and
(2) The consumer elects to continue the transaction or inquiry after receiving such notices.
§ 205.17 Requirements for overdraft services.
(a) Definition. For purposes of this section, the term “overdraft service” means a service under which a financial institution assesses a fee or charge on a consumer’s account held by the institution for paying a transaction (including a check or other item) when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the account. The term “overdraft service” does not include any payment of overdrafts pursuant to –
(1) A line of credit subject to the Federal Reserve Board’s Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), including transfers from a credit card account, home equity line of credit, or overdraft line of credit;
(2) A service that transfers funds from another account held individually or jointly by a consumer, such as a savings account; or
(3) A line of credit or other transaction exempt from the Federal Reserve Board’s Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) pursuant to 12 CFR 226.3(d).
(b) Opt-in requirement – (1) General. Except as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, a financial institution holding a consumer’s account shall not assess a fee or charge on a consumer’s account for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service, unless the institution:
(i) Provides the consumer with a notice in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically, segregated from all other information, describing the institution’s overdraft service;
(ii) Provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions;
(iii) Obtains the consumer’s affirmative consent, or opt-in, to the institution’s payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions; and
(iv) Provides the consumer with confirmation of the consumer’s consent in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically, which includes a statement informing the consumer of the right to revoke such consent.
(2) Conditioning payment of other overdrafts on consumer’s affirmative consent. A financial institution shall not:
(i) Condition the payment of any overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the institution’s payment of ATM and one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service; or
(ii) Decline to pay checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions that overdraw the consumer’s account because the consumer has not affirmatively consented to the institution’s overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
(3) Same account terms, conditions, and features. A financial institution shall provide to consumers who do not affirmatively consent to the institution’s overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions the same account terms, conditions, and features that it provides to consumers who affirmatively consent, except for the overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
(c) Timing – (1) Existing account holders. For accounts opened prior to July 1, 2010, the financial institution must not assess any fees or charges on a consumer’s account on or after August 15, 2010 for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the overdraft service, unless the institution has complied with § 205.17(b)(1) and obtained the consumer’s affirmative consent.
(2) New account holders. For accounts opened on or after July 1, 2010, the financial institution must comply with § 205.17(b)(1) and obtain the consumer’s affirmative consent before the institution assesses any fee or charge on the consumer’s account for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service.
(d) Content and format. The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be substantially similar to Model Form A-9 set forth in Appendix A of this part, include all applicable items in this paragraph, and may not contain any information not specified in or otherwise permitted by this paragraph.
(1) Overdraft service. A brief description of the financial institution’s overdraft service and the types of transactions for which a fee or charge for paying an overdraft may be imposed, including ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
(2) Fees imposed. The dollar amount of any fees or charges assessed by the financial institution for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service, including any daily or other overdraft fees. If the amount of the fee is determined on the basis of the number of times the consumer has overdrawn the account, the amount of the overdraft, or other factors, the institution must disclose the maximum fee that may be imposed.
(3) Limits on fees charged. The maximum number of overdraft fees or charges that may be assessed per day, or, if applicable, that there is no limit.
(4) Disclosure of opt-in right. An explanation of the consumer’s right to affirmatively consent to the financial institution’s payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service, including the methods by which the consumer may consent to the service; and
(5) Alternative plans for covering overdrafts. If the institution offers a line of credit subject to the Board’s Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) or a service that transfers funds from another account of the consumer held at the institution to cover overdrafts, the institution must state that fact. An institution may, but is not required to, list additional alternatives for the payment of overdrafts.
(6) Permitted modifications and additional content. If applicable, the institution may modify the content required by § 205.17(d) to indicate that the consumer has the right to opt into, or opt out of, the payment of overdrafts under the institution’s overdraft service for other types of transactions, such as checks, ACH transactions, or automatic bill payments; to provide a means for the consumer to exercise this choice; and to disclose the associated returned item fee and that additional merchant fees may apply. The institution may also disclose the consumer’s right to revoke consent. For notices provided to consumers who have opened accounts prior to July 1, 2010, the financial institution may describe the institution’s overdraft service with respect to ATM and one-time debit card transactions with a statement such as “After August 15, 2010, we will not authorize and pay overdrafts for the following types of transactions unless you ask us to (see below).”
(e) Joint relationships. If two or more consumers jointly hold an account, the financial institution shall treat the affirmative consent of any of the joint consumers as affirmative consent for that account. Similarly, the financial institution shall treat a revocation of affirmative consent by any of the joint consumers as revocation of consent for that account.
(f) Continuing right to opt in or to revoke the opt-in. A consumer may affirmatively consent to the financial institution’s overdraft service at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. A consumer may also revoke consent at any time in the manner made available to the consumer for providing consent. A financial institution must implement a consumer’s revocation of consent as soon as reasonably practicable.
(g) Duration and revocation of opt-in. A consumer’s affirmative consent to the institution’s overdraft service is effective until revoked by the consumer, or unless the financial institution terminates the service.
§ 205.18 Requirements for financial institutions offering payroll card accounts.
(a) Coverage. A financial institution shall comply with all applicable requirements of the act and this part with respect to payroll card accounts except as provided in this section.
(b) Alternative to periodic statements. (1) A financial institution need not furnish periodic statements required by § 205.9(b) if the institution makes available to the consumer –
(i) The consumer’s account balance, through a readily available telephone line;
(ii) An electronic history of the consumer’s account transactions, such as through an Internet Web site, that covers at least 60 days preceding the date the consumer electronically accesses the account; and
(iii) A written history of the consumer’s account transactions that is provided promptly in response to an oral or written request and that covers at least 60 days preceding the date the financial institution receives the consumer’s request.
(2) The history of account transactions provided under paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section must include the information set forth in § 205.9(b).
(c) Modified requirements. A financial institution that provides information under paragraph (b) of this section, shall comply with the following:
(1) Initial disclosures. The financial institution shall modify the disclosures under § 205.7(b) by disclosing –
(i) Account information. A telephone number that the consumer may call to obtain the account balance, the means by which the consumer can obtain an electronic account history, such as the address of an Internet Web site, and a summary of the consumer’s right to receive a written account history upon request (in place of the summary of the right to receive a periodic statement required by § 205.7(b)(6)), including a telephone number to call to request a history. The disclosure required by this paragraph (c)(1)(i) may be made by providing a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-7(a) in appendix A of this part.
(ii) Error resolution. A notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-7(b) in appendix A of this part, in place of the notice required by § 205.7(b)(10).
(2) Annual error resolution notice. The financial institution shall provide an annual notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-7(b) in appendix A of this part, in place of the notice required by § 205.8(b). Alternatively, a financial institution may include on or with each electronic and written history provided in accordance with § 205.18(b)(1), a notice substantially similar to the abbreviated notice for periodic statements contained in paragraph A-3(b) in appendix A of this part, modified as necessary to reflect the error resolution provisions set forth in this section.
(3) Limitations on liability. (i) For purposes of § 205.6(b)(3), the 60-day period for reporting any unauthorized transfer shall begin on the earlier of:
(A) The date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer’s account under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic history made available to the consumer reflects the transfer; or
(B) The date the financial institution sends a written history of the consumer’s account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section in which the unauthorized transfer is first reflected.
(ii) A financial institution may comply with paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section by limiting the consumer’s liability for an unauthorized transfer as provided under § 205.6(b)(3) for any transfer reported by the consumer within 120 days after the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer’s account.
(4) Error resolution. (i) The financial institution shall comply with the requirements of § 205.11 in response to an oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the earlier of –
(A) Sixty days after the date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer’s account under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic history made available to the consumer reflects the alleged error; or
(B) Sixty days after the date the financial institution sends a written history of the consumer’s account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section in which the alleged error is first reflected.
(ii) In lieu of following the procedures in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, a financial institution complies with the requirements for resolving errors in § 205.11 if it investigates any oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the institution within 120 days after the transfer allegedly in error was credited or debited to the consumer’s account.
§ 205.20 Requirements for gift cards and gift certificates.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, except as excluded under paragraph (b), the following definitions apply:
(1) Gift certificate means a card, code, or other device that is:
(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount that may not be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment; and
(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services.
(2) Store gift card means a card, code, or other device that is:
(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services.
(3) General-use prepaid card means a card, code, or other device that is:
(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, or usable at automated teller machines.
(4) Loyalty, award, or promotional gift card means a card, code, or other device that:
(i) Is issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program;
(ii) Is redeemable upon presentation at one or more merchants for goods or services, or usable at automated teller machines; and
(iii) Sets forth the following disclosures, as applicable:
(A) A statement indicating that the card, code, or other device is issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes, which must be included on the front of the card, code, or other device;
(B) The expiration date for the underlying funds, which must be included on the front of the card, code, or other device;
(C) The amount of any fees that may be imposed in connection with the card, code, or other device, and the conditions under which they may be imposed, which must be provided on or with the card, code, or other device; and
(D) A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site, that a consumer may use to obtain fee information, which must be included on the card, code, or other device.
(5) Dormancy or inactivity fee. The terms “dormancy fee” and “inactivity fee” mean a fee for non-use of or inactivity on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card.
(6) Service fee. The term “service fee” means a periodic fee for holding or use of a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card. A periodic fee includes any fee that may be imposed on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card from time to time for holding or using the certificate or card.
(7) Activity. The term “activity” means any action that results in an increase or decrease of the funds underlying a certificate or card, other than the imposition of a fee, or an adjustment due to an error or a reversal of a prior transaction.
(b) Exclusions. The terms “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” and “general-use prepaid card”, as defined in paragraph (a) of this section, do not include any card, code, or other device that is:
(1) Useable solely for telephone services;
(2) Reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the term “reloadable” includes a temporary non-reloadable card issued solely in connection with a reloadable card, code, or other device;
(3) A loyalty, award, or promotional gift card;
(4) Not marketed to the general public;
(5) Issued in paper form only; or
(6) Redeemable solely for admission to events or venues at a particular location or group of affiliated locations, or to obtain goods or services in conjunction with admission to such events or venues, at the event or venue or at specific locations affiliated with and in geographic proximity to the event or venue.
(c) Form of disclosures – (1) Clear and conspicuous. Disclosures made under this section must be clear and conspicuous. The disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols.
(2) Format. Disclosures made under this section generally must be provided to the consumer in written or electronic form. Except for the disclosures in paragraphs (c)(3) and (h)(2), written and electronic disclosures made under this section must be in a retainable form. Only disclosures provided under paragraphs (c)(3) and (h)(2) of this section may be given orally.
(3) Disclosures prior to purchase. Before a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card is purchased, a person that issues or sells such certificate or card must disclose to the consumer the information required by paragraphs (d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(1) of this section. The fees and terms and conditions of expiration that are required to be disclosed prior to purchase may not be changed after purchase.
(4) Disclosures on the certificate or card. Disclosures required by paragraphs (a)(4)(iii), (d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2) of this section must be made on the certificate or card, or in the case of a loyalty, award, or promotional gift card, on the card, code, or other device. A disclosure made in an accompanying terms and conditions document, on packaging surrounding a certificate or card, or on a sticker or other label affixed to the certificate or card does not constitute a disclosure on the certificate or card. For an electronic certificate or card, disclosures must be provided electronically on the certificate or card provided to the consumer. An issuer that provides a code or confirmation to a consumer orally must provide to the consumer a written or electronic copy of the code or confirmation promptly, and the applicable disclosures must be provided on the written copy of the code or confirmation.
(d) Prohibition on imposition of fees or charges. No person may impose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee with respect to a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, unless:
(1) There has been no activity with respect to the certificate or card, in the one-year period ending on the date on which the fee is imposed;
(2) The following are stated, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously on the gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card:
(i) The amount of any dormancy, inactivity, or service fee that may be charged;
(ii) How often such fee may be assessed; and
(iii) That such fee may be assessed for inactivity; and
(3) Not more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee is imposed in any given calendar month.
(e) Prohibition on sale of gift certificates or cards with expiration dates. No person may sell or issue a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card with an expiration date, unless:
(1) The person has established policies and procedures to provide consumers with a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date;
(2) The expiration date for the underlying funds is at least the later of:
(i) Five years after the date the gift certificate was initially issued, or the date on which funds were last loaded to a store gift card or general-use prepaid card; or
(ii) The certificate or card expiration date, if any;
(3) The following disclosures are provided on the certificate or card, as applicable:
(i) The expiration date for the underlying funds or, if the underlying funds do not expire, that fact;
(ii) A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site that a consumer may use to obtain a replacement certificate or card after the certificate or card expires if the underlying funds may be available; and
(iii) Except where a non-reloadable certificate or card bears an expiration date that is at least seven years from the date of manufacture, a statement, disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the certificate or card expiration date, that:
(A) The certificate or card expires, but the underlying funds either do not expire or expire later than the certificate or card, and;
(B) The consumer may contact the issuer for a replacement card; and
(4) No fee or charge is imposed on the cardholder for replacing the gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card or for providing the certificate or card holder with the remaining balance in some other manner prior to the funds expiration date, unless such certificate or card has been lost or stolen.
(f) Additional disclosure requirements for gift certificates or cards. The following disclosures must be provided in connection with a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, as applicable:
(1) Fee disclosures. For each type of fee that may be imposed in connection with the certificate or card (other than a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee subject to the disclosure requirements under paragraph (d)(2) of this section), the following information must be provided on or with the certificate or card:
(i) The type of fee;
(ii) The amount of the fee (or an explanation of how the fee will be determined); and
(iii) The conditions under which the fee may be imposed.
(2) Telephone number for fee information. A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site, that a consumer may use to obtain information about fees described in paragraphs (d)(2) and (f)(1) of this section must be disclosed on the certificate or card.
(g) Compliance dates – (1) Effective date for gift certificates, store gift cards, and general-use prepaid cards. Except as provided in paragraph (h), the requirements of this section apply to any gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card sold to a consumer on or after August 22, 2010, or provided to a consumer as a replacement for such certificate or card.
(2) Effective date for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards. The requirements in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) apply to any card, code, or other device provided to a consumer in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program if the period of eligibility for such program began on or after August 22, 2010.
(h) Temporary exemption – (1) Delayed effective date. For any gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card produced prior to April 1, 2010, the effective date of the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3), (d)(2), (e)(1), (e)(3), and (f) of this section is January 31, 2011, provided that an issuer of such certificate or card:
(i) Complies with all other provisions of this section;
(ii) Does not impose an expiration date with respect to the funds underlying such certificate or card;
(iii) At the consumer’s request, replaces such certificate or card if it has funds remaining at no cost to the consumer; and
(iv) Satisfies the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
(2) Additional disclosures. Issuers relying on the delayed effective date in § 205.20(h)(1) must disclose through in-store signage, messages during customer service calls, Web sites, and general advertising, that:
(i) The underlying funds of such certificate or card do not expire;
(ii) Consumers holding such certificate or card have a right to a free replacement certificate or card, which must be accompanied by the packaging and materials typically associated with such certificate or card; and
(iii) Any dormancy, inactivity, or service fee for such certificate or card that might otherwise be charged will not be charged if such fees do not comply with Section 915 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act.
(3) Expiration of additional disclosure requirements. The disclosures in paragraph (h)(2) of this section:
(i) Are not required to be provided on or after January 31, 2011, with respect to in-store signage and general advertising.
(ii) Are not required to be provided on or after January 31, 2013, with respect to messages during customer service calls and Web sites.
Appendix A to Part 205 – Model Disclosure Clauses and Forms
(a) Accounts using cards. You cannot use the enclosed card to transfer money into or out of your account until we have validated it. If you do not want to use the card, please (destroy it at once by cutting it in half).
[Financial institution may add validation instructions here.]
(b) Accounts using codes. You cannot use the enclosed code to transfer money into or out of your account until we have validated it. If you do not want to use the code, please (destroy this notice at once).
[Financial institution may add validation instructions here.]
(a) Consumer Liability (§ 205.7(b)(1)).
(Tell us AT ONCE if you believe your [card] [code] has been lost or stolen, or if you believe that an electronic fund transfer has been made without your permission using information from your check. Telephoning is the best way of keeping your possible losses down. You could lose all the money in your account (plus your maximum overdraft line of credit). If you tell us within 2 business days after you learn of the loss or theft of your [card] [code], you can lose no more than $50 if someone used your [card][code] without your permission.)
If you do NOT tell us within 2 business days after you learn of the loss or theft of your [card] [code], and we can prove we could have stopped someone from using your [card] [code] without your permission if you had told us, you could lose as much as $500.
Also, if your statement shows transfers that you did not make, including those made by card, code or other means, tell us at once. If you do not tell us within 60 days after the statement was mailed to you, you may not get back any money you lost after the 60 days if we can prove that we could have stopped someone from taking the money if you had told us in time. If a good reason (such as a long trip or a hospital stay) kept you from telling us, we will extend the time periods.
(b) Contact in event of unauthorized transfer (§ 205.7(b)(2)). If you believe your [card] [code] has been lost or stolen, call: [Telephone number] or write: [Name of person or office to be notified] [Address]
You should also call the number or write to the address listed above if you believe a transfer has been made using the information from your check without your permission.
(c) Business days (§ 205.7(b)(3)). For purposes of these disclosures, our business days are (Monday through Friday) (Monday through Saturday) (any day including Saturdays and Sundays). Holidays are (not) included.
(d) Transfer types and limitations (§ 205.7(b)(4)) – (1) Account access. You may use your [card][code] to:
(i) Withdraw cash from your [checking] [or] [savings] account.
(ii) Make deposits to your [checking] [or] [savings] account.
(iii) Transfer funds between your checking and savings accounts whenever you request.
(iv) Pay for purchases at places that have agreed to accept the [card] [code].
(v) Pay bills directly [by telephone] from your [checking] [or] [savings] account in the amounts and on the days you request.
Some of these services may not be available at all terminals.
(2) Electronic check conversion. You may authorize a merchant or other payee to make a one-time electronic payment from your checking account using information from your check to:
(i) Pay for purchases.
(ii) Pay bills.
(3) Limitations on frequency of transfers. (i) You may make only [insert number, e.g., 3] cash withdrawals from our terminals each [insert time period, e.g., week].
(ii) You can use your telephone bill-payment service to pay [insert number] bills each [insert time period] [telephone call].
(iii) You can use our point-of-sale transfer service for [insert number] transactions each [insert time period].
(iv) For security reasons, there are limits on the number of transfers you can make using our [terminals] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
(4) Limitations on dollar amounts of transfers. (i) You may withdraw up to [insert dollar amount] from our terminals each [insert time period] time you use the [card] [code].
(ii) You may buy up to [insert dollar amount] worth of goods or services each [insert time period] time you use the [card] [code] in our point-of-sale transfer service.
(e) Fees (§ 205.7(b)(5)) – (1) Per transfer charge. We will charge you [insert dollar amount] for each transfer you make using our [automated teller machines] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
(2) Fixed charge. We will charge you [insert dollar amount] each [insert time period] for our [automated teller machine service] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
(3) Average or minimum balance charge. We will only charge you for using our [automated teller machines] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service] if the [average] [minimum] balance in your [checking account] [savings account] [accounts] falls below [insert dollar amount]. If it does, we will charge you [insert dollar amount] each [transfer] [insert time period].
(f) Confidentiality (§ 205.7(b)(9)). We will disclose information to third parties about your account or the transfers you make:
(i) Where it is necessary for completing transfers, or
(ii) In order to verify the existence and condition of your account for a third party, such as a credit bureau or merchant, or
(iii) In order to comply with government agency or court orders, or
(iv) If you give us your written permission.
(g) Documentation (§ 205.7(b)(6)) – (1) Terminal transfers. You can get a receipt at the time you make any transfer to or from your account using one of our [automated teller machines] [or] [point-of-sale terminals].
(2) Preauthorized credits. If you have arranged to have direct deposits made to your account at least once every 60 days from the same person or company, (we will let you know if the deposit is [not] made.) [the person or company making the deposit will tell you every time they send us the money] [you can call us at (insert telephone number) to find out whether or not the deposit has been made].
(3) Periodic statements. You will get a [monthly] [quarterly] account statement (unless there are no transfers in a particular month. In any case you will get the statement at least quarterly).
(4) Passbook account where the only possible electronic fund transfers are preauthorized credits. If you bring your passbook to us, we will record any electronic deposits that were made to your account since the last time you brought in your passbook.
(h) Preauthorized payments (§ 205.7(b) (6), (7) and (8); § 205.10(d)) – (1) Right to stop payment and procedure for doing so. If you have told us in advance to make regular payments out of your account, you can stop any of these payments. Here’s how:
Call us at [insert telephone number], or write us at [insert address], in time for us to receive your request 3 business days or more before the payment is scheduled to be made. If you call, we may also require you to put your request in writing and get it to us within 14 days after you call. (We will charge you [insert amount] for each stop-payment order you give.)
(2) Notice of varying amounts. If these regular payments may vary in amount, [we] [the person you are going to pay] will tell you, 10 days before each payment, when it will be made and how much it will be. (You may choose instead to get this notice only when the payment would differ by more than a certain amount from the previous payment, or when the amount would fall outside certain limits that you set.)
(3) Liability for failure to stop payment of preauthorized transfer. If you order us to stop one of these payments 3 business days or more before the transfer is scheduled, and we do not do so, we will be liable for your losses or damages.
(i) Financial institution’s liability (§ 205.7(b)(8)). If we do not complete a transfer to or from your account on time or in the correct amount according to our agreement with you, we will be liable for your losses or damages. However, there are some exceptions. We will not be liable, for instance:
(1) If, through no fault of ours, you do not have enough money in your account to make the transfer.
(2) If the transfer would go over the credit limit on your overdraft line.
(3) If the automated teller machine where you are making the transfer does not have enough cash.
(4) If the [terminal] [system] was not working properly and you knew about the breakdown when you started the transfer.
(5) If circumstances beyond our control (such as fire or flood) prevent the transfer, despite reasonable precautions that we have taken.
(6) There may be other exceptions stated in our agreement with you.
(j) ATM fees (§ 205.7(b)(11)). When you use an ATM not owned by us, you may be charged a fee by the ATM operator [or any network used] (and you may be charged a fee for a balance inquiry even if you do not complete a fund transfer).
(a) Initial and annual error resolution notice (§§ 205.7(b)(10) and 205.8(b)).
In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [insert telephone number] Write us at [insert address] [or E-mail us at [insert electronic mail address]] as soon as you can, if you think your statement or receipt is wrong or if you need more information about a transfer listed on the statement or receipt. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent the FIRST statement on which the problem or error appeared.
(1) Tell us your name and account number (if any).
(2) Describe the error or the transfer you are unsure about, and explain as clearly as you can why you believe it is an error or why you need more information.
(3) Tell us the dollar amount of the suspected error.
If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation. You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
(b) Error resolution notice on periodic statements (§ 205.8(b)).
In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [insert telephone number] or Write us at [insert address] as soon as you can, if you think your statement or receipt is wrong or if you need more information about a transfer on the statement or receipt. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the FIRST statement on which the error or problem appeared.
(1) Tell us your name and account number (if any).
(2) Describe the error or the transfer you are unsure about, and explain as clearly as you can why you believe it is an error or why you need more information.
(3) Tell us the dollar amount of the suspected error.
We will investigate your complaint and will correct any error promptly. If we take more than 10 business days to do this, we will credit your account for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation.
ALL QUESTIONS ABOUT TRANSACTIONS MADE WITH YOUR (NAME OF CARD) CARD MUST BE DIRECTED TO US (NAME OF SERVICE PROVIDER), AND NOT TO THE BANK OR OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTION WHERE YOU HAVE YOUR ACCOUNT. We are responsible for the [name of service] service and for resolving any errors in transactions made with your [name of card] card.
We will not send you a periodic statement listing transactions that you make using your [name of card] card. The transactions will appear only on the statement issued by your bank or other financial institution. SAVE THE RECEIPTS YOU ARE GIVEN WHEN YOU USE YOUR [NAME OF CARD] CARD, AND CHECK THEM AGAINST THE ACCOUNT STATEMENT YOU RECEIVE FROM YOUR BANK OR OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTION. If you have any questions about one of these transactions, call or write us at [telephone number and address] [the telephone number and address indicated below].
IF YOUR [NAME OF CARD] CARD IS LOST OR STOLEN, NOTIFY US AT ONCE by calling or writing to us at [telephone number and address].
(a) Disclosure by government agencies of information about obtaining account balances and account histories (§ 205.15(d)(1)(i) and (ii)).
You may obtain information about the amount of benefits you have remaining by calling [telephone number]. That information is also available [on the receipt you get when you make a transfer with your card at (an ATM)(a POS terminal)][when you make a balance inquiry at an ATM][when you make a balance inquiry at specified locations].
You also have the right to receive a written summary of transactions for the 60 days preceding your request by calling [telephone number]. [Optional: Or you may request the summary by contacting your caseworker.]
(b) Disclosure of error resolution procedures for government agencies that do not provide periodic statements (§ 205.15(d)(1)(iii) and (d)(2)).
In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [telephone number] Write us at [insert address] [or E-mail us at [insert electronic mail address]] as soon as you can, if you think an error has occurred in your [EBT][agency’s name for program] account. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after you learn of the error. You will need to tell us:
• Your name and [case] [file] number.
• Why you believe there is an error, and the dollar amount involved.
• Approximately when the error took place.
We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation. You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
If you need more information about our error resolution procedures, call us at [telephone number][the telephone number shown above].
When you provide a check as payment, you authorize us either to use information from your check to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account or to process the payment as a check transaction.
When you provide a check as payment, you authorize us to use information from your check to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account. In certain circumstances, such as for technical or processing reasons, we may process your payment as a check transaction.
[Specify other circumstances (at payee’s option).]
When we use information from your check to make an electronic fund transfer, funds may be withdrawn from your account as soon as the same day [you make] [we receive] your payment[, and you will not receive your check back from your financial institution].
You may obtain information about the amount of money you have remaining in your payroll card account by calling [telephone number]. This information, along with a 60-day history of account transactions, is also available on-line at [Internet address].
You also have the right to obtain a 60-day written history of account transactions by calling [telephone number], or by writing us at [address].
In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Payroll Card Account Telephone us at [telephone number] or Write us at [address] [or E-mail us at [electronic mail address]] as soon as you can, if you think an error has occurred in your payroll card account. We must allow you to report an error until 60 days after the earlier of the date you electronically access your account, if the error could be viewed in your electronic history, or the date we sent the FIRST written history on which the error appeared. You may request a written history of your transactions at any time by calling us at [telephone number] or writing us at [address]. You will need to tell us:
Your name and [payroll card account] number.
Why you believe there is an error, and the dollar amount involved.
Approximately when the error took place.
If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation.
You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
If you need more information about our error-resolution procedures, call us at [telephone number] [the telephone number shown above] [or visit [Internet address]].
If your payment is returned unpaid, you authorize [us/ name of person collecting the fee electronically] to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account to collect a fee of [$____]. [If your payment is returned unpaid, you authorize [us/ name of person collecting the fee electronically] to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account to collect a fee. The fee will be determined [by]/ [as follows]: [________________].]
Appendix B to Part 205 – Federal Enforcement Agencies
The following list indicates which Federal agency enforces Regulation E (12 CFR part 205) for particular classes of institutions. Any questions concerning compliance by a particular institution should be directed to the appropriate enforcing agency. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
District office of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency where the institution is located.
Federal Reserve Bank serving the District in which the institution is located.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation regional director for the region in which the institution is located.
Office of Thrift Supervision Regional Director for the region in which the institution is located.
Division of Consumer Affairs, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428
Assistant General Counsel for Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, Department of Transportation, 400 Seventh Street, S.W., Washington, D.C. 20590.
Division of Market Regulation, Securities and Exchange Commission, Washington, D.C. 20549.
Federal Trade Commission, Electronic Fund Transfers, Washington, D.C. 20580.
Appendix C to Part 205 – Issuance of Staff Interpretations
Pursuant to section 915(d) of the act, the Board has designated the director and other officials of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs as officials “duly authorized” to issue, at their discretion, official staff interpretations of this part. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to this part, which will be amended periodically.
A request for an official staff interpretation shall be in writing and addressed to the Director, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, D.C. 20551. The request shall contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
No staff interpretations will be issued approving financial institutions’ forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.
Supplement I to Part 205 – Official Staff Interpretations
1. Examples. The term access device includes debit cards, personal identification numbers (PINs), telephone transfer and telephone bill payment codes, and other means that may be used by a consumer to initiate an electronic fund transfer (EFT) to or from a consumer account. The term does not include magnetic tape or other devices used internally by a financial institution to initiate electronic transfers.
2. Checks used to capture information. The term “access device” does not include a check or draft used to capture the MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) encoding to initiate a one-time ACH debit. For example, if a consumer authorizes a one-time ACH debit from the consumer’s account using a blank, partially completed, or fully completed and signed check for the merchant to capture the routing, account, and serial numbers to initiate the debit, the check is not an access device. (Although the check is not an access device under Regulation E, the transaction is nonetheless covered by the regulation. See comment 3(b)(1)-1.v.)
1. Consumer asset account. The term consumer asset account includes:
i. Club accounts, such as vacation clubs. In many cases, however, these accounts are exempt from the regulation under § 205.3(c)(5) because all electronic transfers to or from the account have been preauthorized by the consumer and involve another account of the consumer at the same institution.
ii. A retail repurchase agreement (repo), which is a loan made to a financial institution by a consumer that is collateralized by government or government-insured securities.
2. Certain employment-related cards not covered. The term “payroll card account” does not include a card used solely to disburse incentive-based payments (other than commissions which can represent the primary means through which a consumer is paid), such as bonuses, which are unlikely to be a consumer’s primary source of salary or other compensation. The term also does not include a card used solely to make disbursements unrelated to compensation, such as petty cash reimbursements or travel per diem payments. Similarly, a payroll card account does not include a card that is used in isolated instances to which an employer typically does not make recurring payments, such as when providing final payments or in emergency situations when other payment methods are unavailable. However, all transactions involving the transfer of funds to or from a payroll card account are covered by the regulation, even if a particular transaction involves payment of a bonus, other incentive-based payment, or reimbursement, or the transaction does not represent a transfer of wages, salary, or other employee compensation.
3. Examples of accounts not covered by Regulation E (12 CFR part 205) include:
i. Profit-sharing and pension accounts established under a trust agreement, which are exempt under § 205.2(b)(2).
ii. Escrow accounts, such as those established to ensure payment of items such as real estate taxes, insurance premiums, or completion of repairs or improvements.
iii. Accounts for accumulating funds to purchase U.S. savings bonds.
1. Bona fide trust agreements. The term bona fide trust agreement is not defined by the act or regulation; therefore, financial institutions must look to state or other applicable law for interpretation.
2. Custodial agreements. An account held under a custodial agreement that qualifies as a trust under the Internal Revenue Code, such as an individual retirement account, is considered to be held under a trust agreement for purposes of Regulation E.
1. Duration. A business day includes the entire 24-hour period ending at midnight, and a notice required by the regulation is effective even if given outside normal business hours. The regulation does not require, however, that a financial institution make telephone lines available on a 24-hour basis.
2. Substantially all business functions. “Substantially all business functions” include both the public and the back-office operations of the institution. For example, if the offices of an institution are open on Saturdays for handling some consumer transactions (such as deposits, withdrawals, and other teller transactions), but not for performing internal functions (such as investigating account errors), then Saturday is not a business day for that institution. In this case, Saturday does not count toward the business-day standard set by the regulation for reporting lost or stolen access devices, resolving errors, etc.
3. Short hours. A financial institution may determine, at its election, whether an abbreviated day is a business day. For example, if an institution engages in substantially all business functions until noon on Saturdays instead of its usual 3:00 p.m. closing, it may consider Saturday a business day.
4. Telephone line. If a financial institution makes a telephone line available on Sundays for reporting the loss or theft of an access device, but performs no other business functions, Sunday is not a business day under the “substantially all business functions” standard.
1. Point-of-sale (POS) payments initiated by telephone. Because the term electronic terminal excludes a telephone operated by a consumer, a financial institution need not provide a terminal receipt when:
i. A consumer uses a debit card at a public telephone to pay for the call.
ii. A consumer initiates a transfer by a means analogous in function to a telephone, such as by home banking equipment or a facsimile machine.
2. POS terminals. A POS terminal that captures data electronically, for debiting or crediting to a consumer’s asset account, is an electronic terminal for purposes of Regulation E even if no access device is used to initiate the transaction. (See § 205.9 for receipt requirements.)
3. Teller-operated terminals. A terminal or other computer equipment operated by an employee of a financial institution is not an electronic terminal for purposes of the regulation. However, transfers initiated at such terminals by means of a consumer’s access device (using the consumer’s PIN, for example) are EFTs and are subject to other requirements of the regulation. If an access device is used only for identification purposes or for determining the account balance, the transfers are not EFTs for purposes of the regulation.
1. Advance authorization. A “preauthorized electronic fund transfer” under Regulation E is one authorized by the consumer in advance of a transfer that will take place on a recurring basis, at substantially regular intervals, and will require no further action by the consumer to initiate the transfer. In a bill-payment system, for example, if the consumer authorizes a financial institution to make monthly payments to a payee by means of EFTs, and the payments take place without further action by the consumer, the payments are preauthorized EFTs. In contrast, if the consumer must take action each month to initiate a payment (such as by entering instructions on a touch-tone telephone or home computer), the payments are not preauthorized EFTs.
1. Transfer by institution’s employee. A consumer has no liability for erroneous or fraudulent transfers initiated by an employee of a financial institution.
2. Authority. If a consumer furnishes an access device and grants authority to make transfers to a person (such as a family member or co-worker) who exceeds the authority given, the consumer is fully liable for the transfers unless the consumer has notified the financial institution that transfers by that person are no longer authorized.
3. Access device obtained through robbery or fraud. An unauthorized EFT includes a transfer initiated by a person who obtained the access device from the consumer through fraud or robbery.
4. Forced initiation. An EFT at an automated teller machine (ATM) is an unauthorized transfer if the consumer has been induced by force to initiate the transfer.
5. Reversal of direct deposits. The reversal of a direct deposit made in error is not an unauthorized EFT when it involves:
i. A credit made to the wrong consumer’s account;
ii. A duplicate credit made to a consumer’s account; or
iii. A credit in the wrong amount (for example, when the amount credited to the consumer’s account differs from the amount in the transmittal instructions).
1. Accounts covered. The requirements of the regulation apply only to an account for which an agreement for EFT services to or from the account has been entered into between:
i. The consumer and the financial institution (including an account for which an access device has been issued to the consumer, for example);
ii. The consumer and a third party (for preauthorized debits or credits, for example), when the account-holding institution has received notice of the agreement and the fund transfers have begun.
2. Automated clearing house (ACH) membership. The fact that membership in an ACH requires a financial institution to accept EFTs to accounts at the institution does not make every account of that institution subject to the regulation.
3. Foreign applicability. Regulation E applies to all persons (including branches and other offices of foreign banks located in the United States) that offer EFT services to residents of any state, including resident aliens. It covers any account located in the United States through which EFTs are offered to a resident of a state. This is the case whether or not a particular transfer takes place in the United States and whether or not the financial institution is chartered in the United States or a foreign country. The regulation does not apply to a foreign branch of a U.S. bank unless the EFT services are offered in connection with an account in a state as defined in § 205.2(l).
1. Fund transfers covered. The term electronic fund transfer includes:
i. A deposit made at an ATM or other electronic terminal (including a deposit in cash or by check) provided a specific agreement exists between the financial institution and the consumer for EFTs to or from the account to which the deposit is made.
ii. A transfer sent via ACH. For example, social security benefits under the U.S. Treasury’s direct-deposit program are covered, even if the listing of payees and payment amounts reaches the account-holding institution by means of a computer printout from a correspondent bank.
iii. A preauthorized transfer credited or debited to an account in accordance with instructions contained on magnetic tape, even if the financial institution holding the account sends or receives a composite check.
iv. A transfer from the consumer’s account resulting from a debit-card transaction at a merchant location, even if no electronic terminal is involved at the time of the transaction, if the consumer’s asset account is subsequently debited for the amount of the transfer.
v. A transfer via ACH where a consumer has provided a check to enable the merchant or other payee to capture the routing, account, and serial numbers to initiate the transfer, whether the check is blank, partially completed, or fully completed and signed; whether the check is presented at POS or is mailed to a merchant or other payee or lockbox and later converted to an EFT; or whether the check is retained by the consumer, the merchant or other payee, or the payee’s financial institution.
vi. A payment made by a bill payer under a bill-payment service available to a consumer via computer or other electronic means, unless the terms of the bill-payment service explicitly state that all payments, or all payments to a particular payee or payees, will be solely by check, draft, or similar paper instrument drawn on the consumer’s account, and the payee or payees that will be paid in this manner are identified to the consumer.
2. Fund transfers not covered. The term electronic fund transfer does not include:
i. A payment that does not debit or credit a consumer asset account, such as a payroll allotment to a creditor to repay a credit extension (which is deducted from salary).
ii. A payment made in currency by a consumer to another person at an electronic terminal.
iii. A preauthorized check drawn by the financial institution on the consumer’s account (such as an interest or other recurring payment to the consumer or another party), even if the check is computer-generated.
iv. Transactions arising from the electronic collection, presentment, or return of checks through the check collection system, such as through transmission of electronic check images.
1. Notice at POS not furnished due to inadvertent error. If the copy of the notice under section 205.3(b)(2)(ii) for ECK transactions is not provided to the consumer at POS because of a bona fide unintentional error, such as when a terminal printing mechanism jams, no violation results if the payee maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such occurrences.
2. Authorization to process a transaction as an EFT or as a check. In order to process a transaction as an EFT or alternatively as a check, the payee must obtain the consumer’s authorization to do so. A payee may, at its option, specify the circumstances under which a check may not be converted to an EFT. (See model clauses in Appendix A-6.)
3. Notice for each transfer. Generally, a notice to authorize an electronic check conversion transaction must be provided for each transaction. For example, a consumer must receive a notice that the transaction will be processed as an EFT for each transaction at POS or each time a consumer mails a check in an accounts receivable (ARC) transaction to pay a bill, such as a utility bill, if the payee intends to convert a check received as payment. Similarly, the consumer must receive notice if the payee intends to collect a service fee for insufficient or uncollected funds via an EFT for each transaction whether at POS or if the consumer mails a check to pay a bill. The notice about when funds may be debited from a consumer’s account and the non-return of consumer checks by the consumer’s financial institution must also be provided for each transaction. However, if in an ARC transaction, a payee provides a coupon book to a consumer, for example, for mortgage loan payments, and the payment dates and amounts are set out in the coupon book, the payee may provide a single notice on the coupon book stating all of the required disclosures under paragraph (b)(2) of this section in order to obtain authorization for each conversion of a check and any debits via EFT to the consumer’s account to collect any service fees imposed by the payee for insufficient or uncollected funds in the consumer’s account. The notice must be placed on a conspicuous location of the coupon book that a consumer can retain – for example, on the first page, or inside the front cover.
4. Multiple payments/multiple consumers. If a merchant or other payee will use information from a consumer’s check to initiate an EFT from the consumer’s account, notice to a consumer listed on the billing account that a check provided as payment during a single billing cycle or after receiving an invoice or statement will be processed as a one-time EFT or as a check transaction constitutes notice for all checks provided in payment for the billing cycle or the invoice for which notice has been provided, whether the check(s) is submitted by the consumer or someone else. The notice applies to all checks provided in payment for the billing cycle or invoice until the provision of notice on or with the next invoice or statement. Thus, if a merchant or other payee receives a check as payment for the consumer listed on the billing account after providing notice that the check will be processed as a one-time EFT, the authorization from that consumer constitutes authorization to convert any other checks provided for that invoice or statement. Other notices required under this paragraph (b)(2) (for example, to collect a service fee for insufficient or uncollected funds via an EFT) provided to the consumer listed on the billing account also constitutes notice to any other consumer who may provide a check for the billing cycle or invoice.
5. Additional disclosures about ECK transactions at POS. When a payee initiates an EFT at POS using information from the consumer’s check, and returns the check to the consumer at POS, the payee need not provide a notice to the consumer that the check will not be returned by the consumer’s financial institution.
1. Fees imposed by account-holding institution. The requirement to obtain a consumer’s authorization to collect a fee via EFT for the return of an EFT or check unpaid applies only to the person that intends to initiate an EFT to collect the returned item fee from the consumer’s account. The authorization requirement does not apply to any fees assessed by the consumer’s account-holding financial institution when it returns the unpaid underlying EFT or check or pays the amount of an overdraft.
2. Accounts receivable transactions. In an accounts receivable (ARC) transaction where a consumer sends in a payment for amounts owed (or makes an in-person payment at a biller’s physical location, such as when a consumer makes a loan payment at a bank branch or places a payment in a dropbox), a person seeking to electronically collect a fee for items returned unpaid must obtain the consumer’s authorization to collect the fee in this manner. A consumer authorizes a person to electronically collect a returned item fee when the consumer receives notice, typically on an invoice or statement, that the person may collect the fee through an EFT to the consumer’s account, and the consumer goes forward with the underlying transaction by providing payment. The notice must also state the dollar amount of the fee. However, an explanation of how that fee will be determined may be provided in place of the dollar amount of the fee if the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, such as the number of days the underlying transaction is left outstanding. For example, if a state law permits a maximum fee of $30 or 10% of the underlying transaction, whichever is greater, the person collecting the fee may explain how the fee is determined, rather than state a specific dollar amount for the fee.
3. Disclosure of dollar amount of fee for POS transactions. The notice provided to the consumer in connection with a POS transaction under § 205.3(b)(3)(ii) must state the amount of the fee for a returned item if the dollar amount of the fee can be calculated at the time the notice is provided or mailed. For example, if notice is provided to the consumer at the time of the transaction, if the applicable state law sets a maximum fee that may be collected for a returned item based on the amount of the underlying transaction (such as where the amount of the fee is expressed as a percentage of the underlying transaction), the person collecting the fee must state the actual dollar amount of the fee on the notice provided to the consumer. Alternatively, if the amount of the fee to be collected cannot be calculated at the time of the transaction (for example, where the amount of the fee will depend on the number of days a debt continues to be owed), the person collecting the fee may provide a description of how the fee will be determined on both the posted notice as well as on the notice provided at the time of the transaction. However, if the person collecting the fee elects to send the consumer notice after the person has initiated an EFT to collect the fee, that notice must state the amount of the fee to be collected.
4. Third party providing notice. The person initiating an EFT to a consumer’s account to electronically collect a fee for an item returned unpaid may obtain the authorization and provide the notices required under § 205.3(b)(3) through third parties, such as merchants.
1. Re-presented checks. The electronic re-presentment of a returned check is not covered by Regulation E because the transaction originated by check. Regulation E does apply, however, to any fee debited via an EFT from a consumer’s account by the payee because the check was returned for insufficient or uncollected funds. The person debiting the fee electronically must obtain the consumer’s authorization.
2. Check used to capture information for a one-time EFT. See comment 3(b)(1)-1.v.
1. Memo posting. Under a check guarantee or check authorization service, debiting of the consumer’s account occurs when the check or draft is presented for payment. These services are exempt from coverage, even when a temporary hold on the account is memo-posted electronically at the time of authorization.
1. Fedwire and ACH. If a financial institution makes a fund transfer to a consumer’s account after receiving funds through Fedwire or a similar network, the transfer by ACH is covered by the regulation even though the Fedwire or network transfer is exempt.
2. Article 4A. Financial institutions that offer telephone-initiated Fedwire payments are subject to the requirements of UCC section 4A-202, which encourages verification of Fedwire payment orders pursuant to a security procedure established by agreement between the consumer and the receiving bank. These transfers are not subject to Regulation E and the agreement is not considered a telephone plan if the service is offered separately from a telephone bill-payment or other prearranged plan subject to Regulation E. The Board’s Regulation J (12 CFR part 210) specifies the rules applicable to funds handled by Federal Reserve Banks. To ensure that the rules for all fund transfers through Fedwire are consistent, the Board used its preemptive authority under UCC section 4A-107 to determine that subpart B of Regulation J (12 CFR part 210), including the provisions of Article 4A, applies to all fund transfers through Fedwire, even if a portion of the fund transfer is governed by the EFTA. The portion of the fund transfer that is governed by the EFTA is not governed by subpart B of Regulation J (12 CFR part 210).
3. Similar fund transfer systems. Fund transfer systems that are similar to Fedwire include the Clearing House Interbank Payments System (CHIPS), Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT), Telex, and transfers made on the books of correspondent banks.
1. Coverage. The securities exemption applies to securities and commodities that may be sold by a registered broker-dealer or futures commission merchant, even when the security or commodity itself is not regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
2. Example of exempt transfer. The exemption applies to a transfer involving a transfer initiated by a telephone order to a stockbroker to buy or sell securities or to exercise a margin call.
3. Examples of nonexempt transfers. The exemption does not apply to a transfer involving:
i. A debit card or other access device that accesses a securities or commodities account such as a money market mutual fund and that the consumer uses for purchasing goods or services or for obtaining cash.
ii. A payment of interest or dividends into the consumer’s account (for example, from a brokerage firm or from a Federal Reserve Bank for government securities).
1. Automatic transfers exempted. The exemption applies to:
i. Electronic debits or credits to consumer accounts for check charges, stop-payment charges, NSF charges, overdraft charges, provisional credits, error adjustments, and similar items that are initiated automatically on the occurrence of certain events.
ii. Debits to consumer accounts for group insurance available only through the financial institution and payable only by means of an aggregate payment from the institution to the insurer.
iii. EFTs between a thrift institution and its paired commercial bank in the state of Rhode Island, which are deemed under state law to be intra-institutional.
iv. Automatic transfers between a consumer’s accounts within the same financial institution, even if the account holders on the two accounts are not identical.
2. Automatic transfers not exempted. Transfers between accounts of the consumer at affiliated institutions (such as between a bank and its subsidiary or within a holding company) are not intra-institutional transfers, and thus do not qualify for the exemption.
1. Written plan or agreement. A transfer that the consumer initiates by telephone is covered by Regulation E if the transfer is made under a written plan or agreement between the consumer and the financial institution making the transfer. A written statement available to the public or to account holders that describes a service allowing a consumer to initiate transfers by telephone constitutes a plan – for example, a brochure, or material included with periodic statements. The following, however, do not by themselves constitute a written plan or agreement:
i. A hold-harmless agreement on a signature card that protects the institution if the consumer requests a transfer.
ii. A legend on a signature card, periodic statement, or passbook that limits the number of telephone-initiated transfers the consumer can make from a savings account because of reserve requirements under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204).
iii. An agreement permitting the consumer to approve by telephone the rollover of funds at the maturity of an instrument.
2. Examples of covered transfers. When a written plan or agreement has been entered into, a transfer initiated by a telephone call from a consumer is covered even though:
i. An employee of the financial institution completes the transfer manually (for example, by means of a debit memo or deposit slip).
ii. The consumer is required to make a separate request for each transfer.
iii. The consumer uses the plan infrequently.
iv. The consumer initiates the transfer via a facsimile machine.
v. The consumer initiates the transfer using a financial institution’s audio-response or voice-response telephone system.
1. Coverage. This exemption is limited to preauthorized transfers; institutions that offer other EFTs must comply with the applicable sections of the regulation as to such services. The preauthorized transfers remain subject to sections 913, 915, and 916 of the act and § 205.10(e), and are therefore exempt from UCC Article 4A.
1. General. Although no particular rules govern type size, number of pages, or the relative conspicuousness of various terms, the disclosures must be in a clear and readily understandable written form that the consumer may retain. Numbers or codes are considered readily understandable if explained elsewhere on the disclosure form.
2. Foreign language disclosures. Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided they are available in English upon request.
1. Coverage. The provisions of this section limit the circumstances under which a financial institution may issue an access device to a consumer. Making an additional account accessible through an existing access device is equivalent to issuing an access device and is subject to the limitations of this section.
1. Joint account. For a joint account, a financial institution may issue an access device to each account holder if the requesting holder specifically authorizes the issuance.
2. Permissible forms of request. The request for an access device may be written or oral (for example, in response to a telephone solicitation by a card issuer).
1. One-for-one rule. In issuing a renewal or substitute access device, only one renewal or substitute device may replace a previously issued device. For example, only one new card and PIN may replace a card and PIN previously issued. A financial institution may provide additional devices at the time it issues the renewal or substitute access device, however, provided the institution complies with § 205.5(b). (See comment 5(b)-5.) If the replacement device or the additional device permits either fewer or additional types of electronic fund transfer services, a change-in-terms notice or new disclosures are required.
2. Renewal or substitution by a successor institution. A successor institution is an entity that replaces the original financial institution (for example, following a corporate merger or acquisition) or that acquires accounts or assumes the operation of an EFT system.
1. Compliance. A financial institution may issue an unsolicited access device (such as the combination of a debit card and PIN) if the institution’s ATM system has been programmed not to accept the access device until after the consumer requests and the institution validates the device. Merely instructing a consumer not to use an unsolicited debit card and PIN until after the institution verifies the consumer’s identity does not comply with the regulation.
2. PINS. A financial institution may impose no liability on a consumer for unauthorized transfers involving an unsolicited access device until the device becomes an “accepted access device” under the regulation. A card and PIN combination may be treated as an accepted access device once the consumer has used it to make a transfer.
3. Functions of PIN. If an institution issues a PIN at the consumer’s request, the issuance may constitute both a way of validating the debit card and the means to identify the consumer (required as a condition of imposing liability for unauthorized transfers).
4. Verification of identity. To verify the consumer’s identity, a financial institution may use any reasonable means, such as a photograph, fingerprint, personal visit, signature comparison, or personal information about the consumer. However, even if reasonable means were used, if an institution fails to verify correctly the consumer’s identity and an imposter succeeds in having the device validated, the consumer is not liable for any unauthorized transfers from the account.
5. Additional access devices in a renewal or substitution. A financial institution may issue more than one access device in connection with the renewal or substitution of a previously issued accepted access device, provided that any additional access device (beyond the device replacing the accepted access device) is not validated at the time it is issued, and the institution complies with the other requirements of § 205.5(b). The institution may, if it chooses, set up the validation procedure such that both the device replacing the previously issued device and the additional device are not validated at the time they are issued, and validation will apply to both devices. If the institution sets up the validation procedure in this way, the institution should provide a clear and readily understandable disclosure to the consumer that both devices are unvalidated and that validation will apply to both devices.
1. Means of identification. A financial institution may use various means for identifying the consumer to whom the access device is issued, including but not limited to:
i. Electronic or mechanical confirmation (such as a PIN).
ii. Comparison of the consumer’s signature, fingerprint, or photograph.
2. Multiple users. When more than one access device is issued for an account, the financial institution may, but need not, provide a separate means to identify each user of the account.
1. Application of liability provisions. There are three possible tiers of consumer liability for unauthorized EFTs depending on the situation. A consumer may be liable for (1) up to $50; (2) up to $500; or (3) an unlimited amount depending on when the unauthorized EFT occurs. More than one tier may apply to a given situation because each corresponds to a different (sometimes overlapping) time period or set of conditions.
2. Consumer negligence. Negligence by the consumer cannot be used as the basis for imposing greater liability than is permissible under Regulation E. Thus, consumer behavior that may constitute negligence under state law, such as writing the PIN on a debit card or on a piece of paper kept with the card, does not affect the consumer’s liability for unauthorized transfers. (However, refer to comment 2(m)-2 regarding termination of the authority of given by the consumer to another person.)
3. Limits on liability. The extent of the consumer’s liability is determined solely by the consumer’s promptness in reporting the loss or theft of an access device. Similarly, no agreement between the consumer and an institution may impose greater liability on the consumer for an unauthorized transfer than the limits provided in Regulation E.
1. $50 limit applies. The basic liability limit is $50. For example, the consumer’s card is lost or stolen on Monday and the consumer learns of the loss or theft on Wednesday. If the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days of learning of the loss or theft (by midnight Friday), the consumer’s liability is limited to $50 or the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occurred before notification, whichever is less.
2. Knowledge of loss or theft of access device. The fact that a consumer has received a periodic statement that reflects unauthorized transfers may be a factor in determining whether the consumer had knowledge of the loss or theft, but cannot be deemed to represent conclusive evidence that the consumer had such knowledge.
3. Two-business-day rule. The two-business-day period does not include the day the consumer learns of the loss or theft or any day that is not a business day. The rule is calculated based on two 24-hour periods, without regard to the financial institution’s business hours or the time of day that the consumer learns of the loss or theft. For example, a consumer learns of the loss or theft at 6 p.m. on Friday. Assuming that Saturday is a business day and Sunday is not, the two-business-day period begins on Saturday and expires at 11:59 p.m. on Monday, not at the end of the financial institution’s business day on Monday.
1. $500 limit applies. The second tier of liability is $500. For example, the consumer’s card is stolen on Monday and the consumer learns of the theft that same day. The consumer reports the theft on Friday. The $500 limit applies because the consumer failed to notify the financial institution within two business days of learning of the theft (which would have been by midnight Wednesday). How much the consumer is actually liable for, however, depends on when the unauthorized transfers take place. In this example, assume a $100 unauthorized transfer was made on Tuesday and a $600 unauthorized transfer on Thursday. Because the consumer is liable for the amount of the loss that occurs within the first two business days (but no more than $50), plus the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occurs after the first two business days and before the consumer gives notice, the consumer’s total liability is $500 ($50 of the $100 transfer plus $450 of the $600 transfer, in this example). But if $600 was taken on Tuesday and $100 on Thursday, the consumer’s maximum liability would be $150 ($50 of the $600 plus $100).
1. Unlimited liability applies. The standard of unlimited liability applies if unauthorized transfers appear on a periodic statement, and may apply in conjunction with the first two tiers of liability. If a periodic statement shows an unauthorized transfer made with a lost or stolen debit card, the consumer must notify the financial institution within 60 calendar days after the periodic statement was sent; otherwise, the consumer faces unlimited liability for all unauthorized transfers made after the 60-day period. The consumer’s liability for unauthorized transfers before the statement is sent, and up to 60 days following, is determined based on the first two tiers of liability: up to $50 if the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days of learning of the loss or theft of the card and up to $500 if the consumer notifies the institution after two business days of learning of the loss or theft.
2. Transfers not involving access device. The first two tiers of liability do not apply to unauthorized transfers from a consumer’s account made without an access device. If, however, the consumer fails to report such unauthorized transfers within 60 calendar days of the financial institution’s transmittal of the periodic statement, the consumer may be liable for any transfers occurring after the close of the 60 days and before notice is given to the institution. For example, a consumer’s account is electronically debited for $200 without the consumer’s authorization and by means other than the consumer’s access device. If the consumer notifies the institution within 60 days of the transmittal of the periodic statement that shows the unauthorized transfer, the consumer has no liability. However, if in addition to the $200, the consumer’s account is debited for a $400 unauthorized transfer on the 61st day and the consumer fails to notify the institution of the first unauthorized transfer until the 62nd day, the consumer may be liable for the full $400.
1. Extenuating circumstances. Examples of circumstances that require extension of the notification periods under this section include the consumer’s extended travel or hospitalization.
1. Receipt of notice. A financial institution is considered to have received notice for purposes of limiting the consumer’s liability if notice is given in a reasonable manner, even if the consumer notifies the institution but uses an address or telephone number other than the one specified by the institution.
2. Notice by third party. Notice to a financial institution by a person acting on the consumer’s behalf is considered valid under this section. For example, if a consumer is hospitalized and unable to report the loss or theft of an access device, notice is considered given when someone acting on the consumer’s behalf notifies the bank of the loss or theft. A financial institution may require appropriate documentation from the person representing the consumer to establish that the person is acting on the consumer’s behalf.
3. Content of notice. Notice to a financial institution is considered given when a consumer takes reasonable steps to provide the institution with the pertinent account information. Even when the consumer is unable to provide the account number or the card number in reporting a lost or stolen access device or an unauthorized transfer, the notice effectively limits the consumer’s liability if the consumer otherwise identifies sufficiently the account in question. For example, the consumer may identify the account by the name on the account and the type of account in question.
1. Early disclosures. Disclosures given by a financial institution earlier than the regulation requires (for example, when the consumer opens a checking account) need not be repeated when the consumer later enters into an agreement with a third party to initiate preauthorized transfers to or from the consumer’s account, unless the terms and conditions differ from those that the institution previously disclosed. This interpretation also applies to any notice provided about one-time EFTs from a consumer’s account initiated using information from the consumer’s check. On the other hand, if an agreement for EFT services to be provided by an account-holding institution is directly between the consumer and the account-holding institution, disclosures must be given in close proximity to the event requiring disclosure, for example, when the consumer contracts for a new service.
2. Lack of advance notice of a transfer. Where a consumer authorizes a third party to debit or credit the consumer’s account, an account-holding institution that has not received advance notice of the transfer or transfers must provide the required disclosures as soon as reasonably possible after the first debit or credit is made, unless the institution has previously given the disclosures.
3. Addition of new accounts. If a consumer opens a new account permitting EFTs at a financial institution, and the consumer already has received Regulation E disclosures for another account at that institution, the institution need only disclose terms and conditions that differ from those previously given.
4. Addition of service in interchange systems. If a financial institution joins an interchange or shared network system (which provides access to terminals operated by other institutions), disclosures are required for additional EFT services not previously available to consumers if the terms and conditions differ from those previously disclosed.
5. Disclosures covering all EFT services offered. An institution may provide disclosures covering all EFT services that it offers, even if some consumers have not arranged to use all services.
1. No liability imposed by financial institution. If a financial institution chooses to impose zero liability for unauthorized EFTs, it need not provide the liability disclosures. If the institution later decides to impose liability, however, it must first provide the disclosures.
2. Preauthorized transfers. If the only EFTs from an account are preauthorized transfers, liability could arise if the consumer fails to report unauthorized transfers reflected on a periodic statement. To impose such liability on the consumer, the institution must have disclosed the potential liability and the telephone number and address for reporting unauthorized transfers.
3. Additional information. At the institution’s option, the summary of the consumer’s liability may include advice on promptly reporting unauthorized transfers or the loss or theft of the access device.
1. Disclosure of telephone numbers. An institution may use the same or different telephone numbers in the disclosures for the purpose of:
i. Reporting the loss or theft of an access device or possible unauthorized transfers;
ii. Inquiring about the receipt of a preauthorized credit;
iii. Stopping payment of a preauthorized debit;
iv. Giving notice of an error.
2. Location of telephone number. The telephone number need not be incorporated into the text of the disclosure; for example, the institution may instead insert a reference to a telephone number that is readily available to the consumer, such as “Call your branch office. The number is shown on your periodic statement.” However, an institution must provide a specific telephone number and address, on or with the disclosure statement, for reporting a lost or stolen access device or a possible unauthorized transfer.
1. Security limitations. Information about limitations on the frequency and dollar amount of transfers generally must be disclosed in detail, even if related to security aspects of the system. If the confidentiality of certain details is essential to the security of an account or system, these details may be withheld (but the fact that limitations exist must still be disclosed). For example, an institution limits cash ATM withdrawals to $100 per day. The institution may disclose that daily withdrawal limitations apply and need not disclose that the limitations may not always be in force (such as during periods when its ATMs are off-line).
2. Restrictions on certain deposit accounts. A limitation on account activity that restricts the consumer’s ability to make EFTs must be disclosed even if the restriction also applies to transfers made by nonelectronic means. For example, Regulation D (12 CFR Part 204) restricts the number of payments to third parties that may be made from a money market deposit account; an institution that does not execute fund transfers in excess of those limits must disclose the restriction as a limitation on the frequency of EFTs.
3. Preauthorized transfers. Financial institutions are not required to list preauthorized transfers among the types of transfers that a consumer can make.
4. One-time EFTs initiated using information from a check. Financial institutions must disclose the fact that one-time EFTs initiated using information from a consumer’s check are among the types of transfers that a consumer can make. (See Appendix A-2.)
1. Disclosure of EFT fees. An institution is required to disclose all fees for EFTs or the right to make them. Others fees (for example, minimum-balance fees, stop-payment fees, or account overdrafts) may, but need not, be disclosed (but see Regulation DD, 12 CFR Part 230. An institution is not required to disclose fees for inquiries made at an ATM since no transfer of funds is involved.
2. Fees also applicable to non-EFT. A per-item fee for EFTs must be disclosed even if the same fee is imposed on nonelectronic transfers. If a per-item fee is imposed only under certain conditions, such as when the transactions in the cycle exceed a certain number, those conditions must be disclosed. Itemization of the various fees may be provided on the disclosure statement or on an accompanying document that is referenced in the statement.
3. Interchange system fees. Fees paid by the account-holding institution to the operator of a shared or interchange ATM system need not be disclosed, unless they are imposed on the consumer by the account-holding institution. Fees for use of an ATM that are debited directly from the consumer’s account by an institution other than the account-holding institution (for example, fees included in the transfer amount) need not be disclosed. (See § 205.7(b)(11) for the general notice requirement regarding fees that may be imposed by ATM operators and by a network used to complete the transfer.)
1. Information provided to third parties. An institution must describe the circumstances under which any information relating to an account to or from which EFTs are permitted will be made available to third parties, not just information concerning those EFTs. The term “third parties” includes affiliates such as other subsidiaries of the same holding company.
1. Substantially similar. The error resolution notice must be substantially similar to the model form in appendix A of part 205. An institution may use different wording so long as the substance of the notice remains the same, may delete inapplicable provisions (for example, the requirement for written confirmation of an oral notification), and may substitute substantive state law requirements affording greater consumer protection than Regulation E.
2. Extended time-period for certain transactions. To take advantage of the longer time periods for resolving errors under § 205.11(c)(3) (for new accounts as defined in Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), transfers initiated outside the United States, or transfers resulting from POS debit-card transactions), a financial institution must have disclosed these longer time periods. Similarly, an institution that relies on the exception from provisional crediting in § 205.11(c)(2) for accounts subject to Regulation T (12 CFR part 220) must have disclosed accordingly.
1. Addition of electronic check conversion services. One-time EFTs initiated using information from a consumer’s check are a new type of transfer requiring new disclosures, as applicable. (See Appendix A-2.)
1. Form of notice. No specific form or wording is required for a change-in-terms notice. The notice may appear on a periodic statement, or may be given by sending a copy of a revised disclosure statement, provided attention is directed to the change (for example, in a cover letter referencing the changed term).
2. Changes not requiring notice. The following changes do not require disclosure:
i. Closing some of an institution’s ATMs;
ii. Cancellation of an access device.
3. Limitations on transfers. When the initial disclosures omit details about limitations because secrecy is essential to the security of the account or system, a subsequent increase in those limitations need not be disclosed if secrecy is still essential. If, however, an institution had no limits in place when the initial disclosures were given and now wishes to impose limits for the first time, it must disclose at least the fact that limits have been adopted. (See also § 205.7(b)(4) and the related commentary.)
4. Change in telephone number or address. When a financial institution changes the telephone number or address used for reporting possible unauthorized transfers, a change-in-terms notice is required only if the institution will impose liability on the consumer for unauthorized transfers under § 205.6. (See also § 205.6(a) and the related commentary.)
1. Change between annual and periodic notice. If an institution switches from an annual to a periodic notice, or vice versa, the first notice under the new method must be sent no later than 12 months after the last notice sent under the old method.
2. Exception for new accounts. For new accounts, disclosure of the longer error resolution time periods under § 205.11(c)(3) is not required in the annual error resolution notice or in the notice that may be provided with each periodic statement as an alternative to the annual notice.
1. Receipts furnished only on request. The regulation requires that a receipt be “made available.” A financial institution may program its electronic terminals to provide a receipt only to consumers who elect to receive one.
2. Third party providing receipt. An account-holding institution may make terminal receipts available through third parties such as merchants or other financial institutions.
3. Inclusion of promotional material. A financial institution may include promotional material on receipts if the required information is set forth clearly (for example, by separating it from the promotional material). In addition, a consumer may not be required to surrender the receipt or that portion containing the required disclosures in order to take advantage of a promotion.
4. Transfer not completed. The receipt requirement does not apply to a transfer that is initiated but not completed (for example, if the ATM is out of currency or the consumer decides not to complete the transfer).
5. Receipts not furnished due to inadvertent error. If a receipt is not provided to the consumer because of a bona fide unintentional error, such as when a terminal runs out of paper or the mechanism jams, no violation results if the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such occurrences.
6. Multiple transfers. If the consumer makes multiple transfers at the same time, the financial institution may document them on a single or on separate receipts.
1. Disclosure of transaction fee. The required display of a fee amount on or at the terminal may be accomplished by displaying the fee on a sign at the terminal or on the terminal screen for a reasonable duration. Displaying the fee on a screen provides adequate notice, as long as a consumer is given the option to cancel the transaction after receiving notice of a fee. (See § 205.16 for the notice requirements applicable to ATM operators that impose a fee for providing EFT services.)
2. Relationship between § 205.9(a)(1) and § 205.16. The requirements of §§ 205.9(a)(1) and 205.16 are similar but not identical.
i. Section 205.9(a)(1) requires that if the amount of the transfer as shown on the receipt will include the fee, then the fee must be disclosed either on a sign on or at the terminal, or on the terminal screen. Section 205.16 requires disclosure both on a sign on or at the terminal (in a prominent and conspicuous location) and on the terminal screen. Section 205.16 permits disclosure on a paper notice as an alternative to the on-screen disclosure.
ii. The disclosure of the fee on the receipt under § 205.9(a)(1) cannot be used to comply with the alternative paper disclosure procedure under § 205.16, if the receipt is provided at the completion of the transaction because, pursuant to the statute, the paper notice must be provided before the consumer is committed to paying the fee.
iii. Section 205.9(a)(1) applies to any type of electronic terminal as defined in Regulation E (for example, to POS terminals as well as to ATMs), while § 205.16 applies only to ATMs.
1. Calendar date. The receipt must disclose the calendar date on which the consumer uses the electronic terminal. An accounting or business date may be disclosed in addition if the dates are clearly distinguished.
1. Identifying transfer and account. Examples identifying the type of transfer and the type of the consumer’s account include “withdrawal from checking,” “transfer from savings to checking,” or “payment from savings.”
2. Exception. Identification of an account is not required when the consumer can access only one asset account at a particular time or terminal, even if the access device can normally be used to access more than one account. For example, the consumer may be able to access only one particular account at terminals not operated by the account-holding institution, or may be able to access only one particular account when the terminal is off-line. The exception is available even if, in addition to accessing one asset account, the consumer also can access a credit line.
3. Access to multiple accounts. If the consumer can use an access device to make transfers to or from different accounts of the same type, the terminal receipt must specify which account was accessed, such as “withdrawal from checking I” or “withdrawal from checking II.” If only one account besides the primary checking account can be debited, the receipt can identify the account as “withdrawal from other account.”
4. Generic descriptions. Generic descriptions may be used for accounts that are similar in function, such as share draft or NOW accounts and checking accounts. In a shared system, for example, when a credit union member initiates transfers to or from a share draft account at a terminal owned or operated by a bank, the receipt may identify a withdrawal from the account as a “withdrawal from checking.”
5. Point-of-sale transactions. There is no prescribed terminology for identifying a transfer at a merchant’s POS terminal. A transfer may be identified, for example, as a purchase, a sale of goods or services, or a payment to a third party. When a consumer obtains cash from a POS terminal in addition to purchasing goods, or obtains cash only, the documentation need not differentiate the transaction from one involving the purchase of goods.
1. Options for identifying terminal. The institution may provide either:
i. The city, state or foreign country, and the information in §§ 205.9(a)(5) (i), (ii), or (iii), or
ii. A number or a code identifying the terminal. If the institution chooses the second option, the code or terminal number identifying the terminal where the transfer is initiated may be given as part of a transaction code.
2. Omission of city name. The city may be omitted if the generally accepted name (such as a branch name) contains the city name.
3. Omission of a state. A state may be omitted from the location information on the receipt if:
i. All the terminals owned or operated by the financial institution providing the statement (or by the system in which it participates) are located in that state, or
ii. All transfers occur at terminals located within 50 miles of the financial institutions’s main office.
4. Omission of a city and state. A city and state may be omitted if all the terminals owned or operated by the financial institution providing the statement (or by the system in which it participates) are located in the same city.
1. Street address. The address should include number and street (or intersection); the number (or intersecting street) may be omitted if the street alone uniquely identifies the terminal location.
1. Generally accepted name. Examples of a generally accepted name for a specific location include a branch of the financial institution, a shopping center, or an airport.
1. Name of owner or operator of terminal. Examples of an owner or operator of a terminal are a financial institution or a retail merchant.
1. Omission of third-party name. The receipt need not disclose the third-party name if the name is provided by the consumer in a form that is not machine readable (for example, if the consumer indicates the payee by depositing a payment stub into the ATM). If, on the other hand, the consumer keys in the identity of the payee, the receipt must identify the payee by name or by using a code that is explained elsewhere on the receipt.
2. Receipt as proof of payment. Documentation required under the regulation constitutes prima facie proof of a payment to another person, except in the case of a terminal receipt documenting a deposit.
1. Periodic cycles. Periodic statements may be sent on a cycle that is shorter than monthly. The statements must correspond to periodic cycles that are reasonably equal, that is, do not vary by more than four days from the regular cycle. The requirement of reasonably equal cycles does not apply when an institution changes cycles for operational or other reasons, such as to establish a new statement day or date.
2. Interim statements. Generally, a financial institution must provide periodic statements for each monthly cycle in which an EFT occurs, and at least quarterly if a transfer has not occurred. Where EFTs occur between regularly-scheduled cycles, interim statements must be provided. For example, if an institution issues quarterly statements at the end of March, June, September and December, and the consumer initiates an EFT in February, an interim statement for February must be provided. If an interim statement contains interest or rate information, the institution must comply with Regulation DD, 12 CFR 230.6.
3. Inactive accounts. A financial institution need not send statements to consumers whose accounts are inactive as defined by the institution.
4. Statement pickup. A financial institution may permit, but may not require, consumers to pick up their periodic statements at the financial institution.
5. Periodic statements limited to EFT activity. A financial institution that uses a passbook as the primary means for displaying account activity, but also allows the account to be debited electronically, may provide a periodic statement requirement that reflects only the EFTs and other required disclosures (such as charges, account balances, and address and telephone number for inquiries). (See § 205.9(c)(1)(i) for the exception applicable to preauthorized transfers for passbook accounts.)
6. Codes and accompanying documents. To meet the documentation requirements for periodic statements, a financial institution may:
i. Include copies of terminal receipts to reflect transfers initiated by the consumer at electronic terminals;
ii. Enclose posting memos, deposit slips, and other documents that, together with the statement, disclose all the required information;
iii. Use codes for names of third parties or terminal locations and explain the information to which the codes relate on an accompanying document.
1. Information obtained from others. While financial institutions must maintain reasonable procedures to ensure the integrity of data obtained from another institution, a merchant, or other third parties, verification of each transfer that appears on the periodic statement is not required.
1. Incorrect deposit amount. If a financial institution determines that the amount actually deposited at an ATM is different from the amount entered by the consumer, the institution need not immediately notify the consumer of the discrepancy. The periodic statement reflecting the deposit may show either the correct amount of the deposit or the amount entered by the consumer along with the institution’s adjustment.
1. Type of transfer. There is no prescribed terminology for describing a type of transfer. Placement of the amount of the transfer in the debit or the credit column is sufficient if other information on the statement, such as a terminal location or third-party name, enables the consumer to identify the type of transfer.
1. Nonproprietary terminal in network. An institution need not reflect on the periodic statement the street addresses, identification codes, or terminal numbers for transfers initiated in a shared or interchange system at a terminal operated by an institution other than the account-holding institution. The statement must, however, specify the entity that owns or operates the terminal, plus the city and state.
1. Recurring payments by government agency. The third-party name for recurring payments from federal, state, or local governments need not list the particular agency. For example, “U.S. gov’t” or “N.Y. sal” will suffice.
2. Consumer as third-party payee. If a consumer makes an electronic fund transfer to another consumer, the financial institution must identify the recipient by name (not just by an account number, for example).
3. Terminal location/third party. A single entry may be used to identify both the terminal location and the name of the third party to or from whom funds are transferred. For example, if a consumer purchases goods from a merchant, the name of the party to whom funds are transferred (the merchant) and the location of the terminal where the transfer is initiated will be satisfied by a disclosure such as “XYZ Store, Anytown, Ohio.”
4. Account-holding institution as third party. Transfers to the account-holding institution (by ATM, for example) must show the institution as the recipient, unless other information on the statement (such as, “loan payment from checking”) clearly indicates that the payment was to the account-holding institution.
5. Consistency in third-party identity. The periodic statement must disclose a third-party name as it appeared on the receipt, whether it was, for example, the “dba” (doing business as) name of the third party or the parent corporation’s name.
6. Third-party identity on deposits at electronic terminal. A financial institution need not identify third parties whose names appear on checks, drafts, or similar paper instruments deposited to the consumer’s account at an electronic terminal.
1. Disclosure of fees. The fees disclosed may include fees for EFTs and for other nonelectronic services, and both fixed fees and per-item fees; they may be given as a total or may be itemized in part or in full.
2. Fees in interchange system. An account-holding institution must disclose any fees it imposes on the consumer for EFTs, including fees for ATM transactions in an interchange or shared ATM system. Fees for use of an ATM imposed on the consumer by an institution other than the account-holding institution and included in the amount of the transfer by the terminal-operating institution need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
3. Finance charges. The requirement to disclose any fees assessed against the account does not include a finance charge imposed on the account during the statement period.
1. Opening and closing balances. The opening and closing balances must reflect both EFTs and other account activity.
1. Telephone number. A single telephone number, preceded by the “direct inquiries to” language, will satisfy the requirements of § 205.9(b)(5) and (6).
1. Telephone number. See comment 9(b)(5)-1.
1. Transfers between accounts. The regulation provides an exception from the periodic statement requirement for certain intra-institutional transfers between a consumer’s accounts. The financial institution must still comply with the applicable periodic statement requirements for any other EFTs to or from the account. For example, a Regulation E statement must be provided quarterly for an account that also receives payroll deposits electronically, or for any month in which an account is also accessed by a withdrawal at an ATM.
1. Accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account. The exception for “accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account” includes accounts that can be accessed by means other than EFTs, such as checks. If, however, an account may be accessed by any EFT other than preauthorized credits to the account, such as preauthorized debits or ATM transactions, the account does not qualify for the exception.
2. Reversal of direct deposits. For direct-deposit-only accounts, a financial institution must send a periodic statement at least quarterly. A reversal of a direct deposit to correct an error does not trigger the monthly statement requirement when the error represented a credit to the wrong consumer’s account, a duplicate credit, or a credit in the wrong amount. (See also comment 2(m)-5.)
1. Foreign-initiated transfers. An institution must make a good faith effort to provide all required information for foreign-initiated transfers. For example, even if the institution is not able to provide a specific terminal location, it should identify the country and city in which the transfer was initiated.
1. Content. No specific language is required for notice regarding receipt of a preauthorized transfer. Identifying the deposit is sufficient; however, simply providing the current account balance is not.
2. Notice of credit. A financial institution may use different methods of notice for various types or series of preauthorized transfers, and the institution need not offer consumers a choice of notice methods.
3. Positive notice. A periodic statement sent within two business days of the scheduled transfer, showing the transfer, can serve as notice of receipt.
4. Negative notice. The absence of a deposit entry (on a periodic statement sent within two business days of the scheduled transfer date) will serve as negative notice.
5. Telephone notice. If a financial institution uses the telephone notice option, it should be able in most instances to verify during a consumer’s initial call whether a transfer was received. The institution must respond within two business days to any inquiry not answered immediately.
6. Phone number for passbook accounts. The financial institution may use any reasonable means necessary to provide the telephone number to consumers with passbook accounts that can only be accessed by preauthorized credits and that do not receive periodic statements. For example, it may print the telephone number in the passbook, or include the number with the annual error resolution notice.
7. Telephone line availability. To satisfy the readily-available standard, the financial institution must provide enough telephone lines so that consumers get a reasonably prompt response. The institution need only provide telephone service during normal business hours. Within its primary service area, an institution must provide a local or toll-free telephone number. It need not provide a toll-free number or accept collect long-distance calls from outside the area where it normally conducts business.
1. Preexisting authorizations. The financial institution need not require a new authorization before changing from paper-based to electronic debiting when the existing authorization does not specify that debiting is to occur electronically or specifies that the debiting will occur by paper means. A new authorization also is not required when a successor institution begins collecting payments.
2. Authorization obtained by third party. The account-holding financial institution does not violate the regulation when a third-party payee fails to obtain the authorization in writing or fails to give a copy to the consumer; rather, it is the third-party payee that is in violation of the regulation.
3. Written authorization for preauthorized transfers. The requirement that preauthorized EFTs be authorized by the consumer “only by a writing” cannot be met by a payee’s signing a written authorization on the consumer’s behalf with only an oral authorization from the consumer.
4. Use of a confirmation form. A financial institution or designated payee may comply with the requirements of this section in various ways. For example, a payee may provide the consumer with two copies of a preauthorization form, and ask the consumer to sign and return one and to retain the second copy.
5. Similarly authenticated. The similarly authenticated standard permits signed, written authorizations to be provided electronically. The writing and signature requirements of this section are satisfied by complying with the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq., which defines electronic records and electronic signatures. Examples of electronic signatures include, but are not limited to, digital signatures and security codes. A security code need not originate with the account-holding institution. The authorization process should evidence the consumer’s identity and assent to the authorization. The person that obtains the authorization must provide a copy of the terms of the authorization to the consumer either electronically or in paper form. Only the consumer may authorize the transfer and not, for example, a third-party merchant on behalf of the consumer.
6. Requirements of an authorization. An authorization is valid if it is readily identifiable as such and the terms of the preauthorized transfer are clear and readily understandable.
7. Bona fide error. Consumers sometimes authorize third-party payees, by telephone or on-line, to submit recurring charges against a credit card account. If the consumer indicates use of a credit card account when in fact a debit card is being used, the payee does not violate the requirement to obtain a written authorization if the failure to obtain written authorization was not intentional and resulted from a bona fide error, and if the payee maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid any such error. Procedures reasonably adapted to avoid error will depend upon the circumstances. Generally, requesting the consumer to specify whether the card to be used for the authorization is a debit (or check) card or a credit card is a reasonable procedure. Where the consumer has indicated that the card is a credit card (or that the card is not a debit or check card), the payee may rely on the consumer’s statement without seeking further information about the type of card. If the payee believes, at the time of the authorization, that a credit card is involved, and later finds that the card used is a debit card (for example, because the consumer later brings the matter to the payee’s attention), the payee must obtain a written and signed or (where appropriate) a similarly authenticated authorization as soon as reasonably possible, or cease debiting the consumer’s account.
1. Stop-payment order. The financial institution must honor an oral stop-payment order made at least three business days before a scheduled debit. If the debit item is resubmitted, the institution must continue to honor the stop-payment order (for example, by suspending all subsequent payments to the payee-originator until the consumer notifies the institution that payments should resume).
2. Revocation of authorization. Once a financial institution has been notified that the consumer’s authorization is no longer valid, it must block all future payments for the particular debit transmitted by the designated payee-originator. (However, see comment 10(c)-3.) The institution may not wait for the payee-originator to terminate the automatic debits. The institution may confirm that the consumer has informed the payee-originator of the revocation (for example, by requiring a copy of the consumer’s revocation as written confirmation to be provided within 14 days of an oral notification). If the institution does not receive the required written confirmation within the 14-day period, it may honor subsequent debits to the account.
3. Alternative procedure for processing a stop-payment request. If an institution does not have the capability to block a preauthorized debit from being posted to the consumer’s account – as in the case of a preauthorized debit made through a debit card network or other system, for example – the institution may instead comply with the stop-payment requirements by using a third party to block the transfer(s), as long as the consumer’s account is not debited for the payment.
1. Preexisting authorizations. A financial institution holding the consumer’s account does not violate the regulation if the designated payee fails to provide notice of varying amounts.
1. Range. A financial institution or designated payee that elects to offer the consumer a specified range of amounts for debiting (in lieu of providing the notice of transfers varying in amount) must provide an acceptable range that could be anticipated by the consumer. For example, if the transfer is for payment of a gas bill, an appropriate range might be based on the highest bill in winter and the lowest bill in summer.
2. Transfers to an account of the consumer held at another institution. A financial institution need not provide a consumer the option of receiving notice with each varying transfer, and may instead provide notice only when a debit to an account of the consumer falls outside a specified range or differs by more than a specified amount from the most recent transfer, if the funds are transferred and credited to an account of the consumer held at another financial institution. The specified range or amount, however, must be one that reasonably could be anticipated by the consumer, and the institution must notify the consumer of the range or amount at the time the consumer provides authorization for the preauthorized transfers. For example, if the transfer is for payment of interest for a fixed-rate certificate of deposit account, an appropriate range might be based on a month containing 28 days and a month containing 31 days.
1. Loan payments. Creditors may not require repayment of loans by electronic means on a preauthorized, recurring basis. A creditor may offer a program with a reduced annual percentage rate or other cost-related incentive for an automatic repayment feature, provided the program with the automatic payment feature is not the only loan program offered by the creditor for the type of credit involved. Examples include:
i. Mortgages with graduated payments in which a pledged savings account is automatically debited during an initial period to supplement the monthly payments made by the borrower.
ii. Mortgage plans calling for preauthorized biweekly payments that are debited electronically to the consumer’s account and produce a lower total finance charge.
2. Overdraft. A financial institution may require the automatic repayment of an overdraft credit plan even if the overdraft extension is charged to an open-end account that may be accessed by the consumer in ways other than by overdrafts.
1. Payroll. An employer (including a financial institution) may not require its employees to receive their salary by direct deposit to any particular institution. An employer may require direct deposit of salary by electronic means if employees are allowed to choose the institution that will receive the direct deposit. Alternatively, an employer may give employees the choice of having their salary deposited at a particular institution (designated by the employer) or receiving their salary by another means, such as by check or cash.
1. Terminal location. With regard to deposits at an ATM, a consumer’s request for the terminal location or other information triggers the error resolution procedures, but the financial institution need only provide the ATM location if it has captured that information.
2. Verifying an account debit or credit. If the consumer contacts the financial institution to ascertain whether a payment (for example, in a home-banking or bill-payment program) or any other type of EFT was debited to the account, or whether a deposit made via ATM, preauthorized transfer, or any other type of EFT was credited to the account, without asserting an error, the error resolution procedures do not apply.
3. Loss or theft of access device. A financial institution is required to comply with the error resolution procedures when a consumer reports the loss or theft of an access device if the consumer also alleges possible unauthorized use as a consequence of the loss or theft.
4. Error asserted after account closed. The financial institution must comply with the error resolution procedures when a consumer properly asserts an error, even if the account has been closed.
5. Request for documentation or information. A request for documentation or other information must be treated as an error unless it is clear that the consumer is requesting a duplicate copy for tax or other record-keeping purposes.
6. Terminal receipts for transfers of $15 or less. The fact that an institution does not make a terminal receipt available for a transfer of $15 or less in accordance with § 205.9(e) is not an error for purposes of §§ 205.11(a)(1)(vi) or (vii).
1. Content of error notice. The notice of error is effective even if it does not contain the consumer’s account number, so long as the financial institution is able to identify the account in question. For example, the consumer could provide a Social Security number or other unique means of identification.
2. Investigation pending receipt of information. While a financial institution may request a written, signed statement from the consumer relating to a notice of error, it may not delay initiating or completing an investigation pending receipt of the statement.
3. Statement held for consumer. When a consumer has arranged for periodic statements to be held until picked up, the statement for a particular cycle is deemed to have been transmitted on the date the financial institution first makes the statement available to the consumer.
4. Failure to provide statement. When a financial institution fails to provide the consumer with a periodic statement, a request for a copy is governed by this section if the consumer gives notice within 60 days from the date on which the statement should have been transmitted.
5. Discovery of error by institution. The error resolution procedures of this section apply when a notice of error is received from the consumer, and not when the financial institution itself discovers and corrects an error.
6. Notice at particular phone number or address. A financial institution may require the consumer to give notice only at the telephone number or address disclosed by the institution, provided the institution maintains reasonable procedures to refer the consumer to the specified telephone number or address if the consumer attempts to give notice to the institution in a different manner.
7. Effect of late notice. An institution is not required to comply with the requirements of this section for any notice of error from the consumer that is received by the institution later than 60 days from the date on which the periodic statement first reflecting the error is sent. Where the consumer’s assertion of error involves an unauthorized EFT, however, the institution must comply with § 205.6 before it may impose any liability on the consumer.
1. Written confirmation-of-error notice. If the consumer sends a written confirmation of error to the wrong address, the financial institution must process the confirmation through normal procedures. But the institution need not provisionally credit the consumer’s account if the written confirmation is delayed beyond 10 business days in getting to the right place because it was sent to the wrong address.
1. Notice to consumer. Unless otherwise indicated in this section, the financial institution may provide the required notices to the consumer either orally or in writing.
2. Written confirmation of oral notice. A financial institution must begin its investigation promptly upon receipt of an oral notice. It may not delay until it has received a written confirmation.
3. Charges for error resolution. If a billing error occurred, whether as alleged or in a different amount or manner, the financial institution may not impose a charge related to any aspect of the error-resolution process (including charges for documentation or investigation). Since the act grants the consumer error-resolution rights, the institution should avoid any chilling effect on the good-faith assertion of errors that might result if charges are assessed when no billing error has occurred.
4. Correction without investigation. A financial institution may make, without investigation, a final correction to a consumer’s account in the amount or manner alleged by the consumer to be in error, but must comply with all other applicable requirements of § 205.11.
5. Correction notice. A financial institution may include the notice of correction on a periodic statement that is mailed or delivered within the 10-business-day or 45-calendar-day time limits and that clearly identifies the correction to the consumer’s account. The institution must determine whether such a mailing will be prompt enough to satisfy the requirements of this section, taking into account the specific facts involved.
6. Correction of an error. If the financial institution determines an error occurred, within either the 10-day or 45-day period, it must correct the error (subject to the liability provisions of §§ 205.6 (a) and (b)) including, where applicable, the crediting of interest and the refunding of any fees imposed by the institution. In a combined credit/EFT transaction, for example, the institution must refund any finance charges incurred as a result of the error. The institution need not refund fees that would have been imposed whether or not the error occurred.
7. Extent of required investigation. A financial institution complies with its duty to investigate, correct, and report its determination regarding an error described in § 205.11(a)(1)(vii) by transmitting the requested information, clarification, or documentation within the time limits set forth in § 205.11(c). If the institution has provisionally credited the consumer’s account in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2), it may debit the amount upon transmitting the requested information, clarification, or documentation.
1. Compliance with all requirements. Financial institutions exempted from provisionally crediting a consumer’s account under § 205.11(c)(2)(i) (A) and (B) must still comply with all other requirements of § 205.11.
1. POS debit card transactions. The extended deadlines for investigating errors resulting from POS debit card transactions apply to all debit card transactions, including those for cash only, at merchants’ POS terminals, and also including mail and telephone orders. The deadlines do not apply to transactions at an ATM, however, even though the ATM may be in a merchant location.
1. Third parties. When information or documentation requested by the consumer is in the possession of a third party with whom the financial institution does not have an agreement, the institution satisfies the error resolution requirement by so advising the consumer within the specified time period.
2. Scope of investigation. When an alleged error involves a payment to a third party under the financial institution’s telephone bill-payment plan, a review of the institution’s own records is sufficient, assuming no agreement exists between the institution and the third party concerning the bill-payment service.
3. POS transfers. When a consumer alleges an error involving a transfer to a merchant via a POS terminal, the institution must verify the information previously transmitted when executing the transfer. For example, the financial institution may request a copy of the sales receipt to verify that the amount of the transfer correctly corresponds to the amount of the consumer’s purchase.
4. Agreement. An agreement that a third party will honor an access device is an agreement for purposes of this paragraph. A financial institution does not have an agreement for purposes of § 205.11(c)(4)(ii) solely because it participates in transactions that occur under the federal recurring payments programs, or that are cleared through an ACH or similar arrangement for the clearing and settlement of fund transfers generally, or because it agrees to be bound by the rules of such an arrangement.
5. No EFT agreement. When there is no agreement between the institution and the third party for the type of EFT involved, the financial institution must review any relevant information within the institution’s own records for the particular account to resolve the consumer’s claim. The extent of the investigation required may vary depending on the facts and circumstances. However, a financial institution may not limit its investigation solely to the payment instructions where additional information within its own records pertaining to the particular account in question could help to resolve a consumer’s claim.
Information that may be reviewed as part of an investigation might include:
i. The ACH transaction records for the transfer;
ii. The transaction history of the particular account for a reasonable period of time immediately preceding the allegation of error;
iii. Whether the check number of the transaction in question is notably out-of-sequence;
iv. The location of either the transaction or the payee in question relative to the consumer’s place of residence and habitual transaction area;
v. Information relative to the account in question within the control of the institution’s third-party service providers if the financial institution reasonably believes that it may have records or other information that could be dispositive; or
vi. Any other information appropriate to resolve the claim.
1. Error different from that alleged. When a financial institution determines that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the consumer, it must comply with the requirements of both § 205.11 (c) and (d), as relevant. The institution may give the notice of correction and the explanation separately or in a combined form.
1. Request for documentation. When a consumer requests copies of documents, the financial institution must provide the copies in an understandable form. If an institution relied on magnetic tape it must convert the applicable data into readable form, for example, by printing it and explaining any codes.
1. Alternative procedure for debiting of credited funds. The financial institution may comply with the requirements of this section by notifying the consumer that the consumer’s account will be debited five business days from the transmittal of the notification, specifying the calendar date on which the debiting will occur.
2. Fees for overdrafts. The financial institution may not impose fees for items it is required to honor under § 205.11. It may, however, impose any normal transaction or item fee that is unrelated to an overdraft resulting from the debiting. If the account is still overdrawn after five business days, the institution may impose the fees or finance charges to which it is entitled, if any, under an overdraft credit plan.
1. Withdrawal of error; right to reassert. The financial institution has no further error resolution responsibilities if the consumer voluntarily withdraws the notice alleging an error. A consumer who has withdrawn an allegation of error has the right to reassert the allegation unless the financial institution had already complied with all of the error resolution requirements before the allegation was withdrawn. The consumer must do so, however, within the original 60-day period.
1. Determining applicable regulation. i. For transactions involving access devices that also function as credit cards, whether Regulation E or Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) applies depends on the nature of the transaction. For example, if the transaction solely involves an extension of credit, and does not include a debit to a checking account (or other consumer asset account), the liability limitations and error resolution requirements of Regulation Z apply. If the transaction debits a checking account only (with no credit extended), the provisions of Regulation E apply. If the transaction debits a checking account but also draws on an overdraft line of credit attached to the account, Regulation E’s liability limitations apply, in addition to §§ 226.13 (d) and (g) of Regulation Z (which apply because of the extension of credit associated with the overdraft feature on the checking account). If a consumer’s access device is also a credit card and the device is used to make unauthorized withdrawals from a checking account, but also is used to obtain unauthorized cash advances directly from a line of credit that is separate from the checking account, both Regulation E and Regulation Z apply.
ii. The following examples illustrate these principles:
A. A consumer has a card that can be used either as a credit card or a debit card. When used as a debit card, the card draws on the consumer’s checking account. When used as a credit card, the card draws only on a separate line of credit. If the card is stolen and used as a credit card to make purchases or to get cash advances at an ATM from the line of credit, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation Z apply; Regulation E does not apply.
B. In the same situation, if the card is stolen and is used as a debit card to make purchases or to get cash withdrawals at an ATM from the checking account, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply; Regulation Z does not apply.
C. In the same situation, assume the card is stolen and used both as a debit card and as a credit card; for example, the thief makes some purchases using the card as a debit card, and other purchases using the card as a credit card. Here, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply to the unauthorized transactions in which the card was used as a debit card, and the corresponding provisions of Regulation Z apply to the unauthorized transactions in which the card was used as a credit card.
D. Assume a somewhat different type of card, one that draws on the consumer’s checking account and can also draw on an overdraft line of credit attached to the checking account. There is no separate line of credit, only the overdraft line, associated with the card. In this situation, if the card is stolen and used, the liability limits and the error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply. In addition, if the use of the card has resulted in accessing the overdraft line of credit, the error resolution provisions of § 226.13(d) and (g) of Regulation Z also apply, but not the other error resolution provisions of Regulation Z.
2. Issuance rules. For access devices that also constitute credit cards, the issuance rules of Regulation E apply if the only credit feature is a preexisting credit line attached to the asset account to cover overdrafts (or to maintain a specified minimum balance) or an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a). Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) rules apply if there is another type of credit feature; for example, one permitting direct extensions of credit that do not involve the asset account.
3. Overdraft service. The addition of an overdraft service, as that term is defined in § 205.17(a), to an accepted access device does not constitute the addition of a credit feature subject to Regulation Z. Instead, the provisions of Regulation E apply, including the liability limitations (§ 205.6) and the requirement to obtain consumer consent to the service before any fees or charges for paying an overdraft may be assessed on the account (§ 205.17).
1. Specific determinations. The regulation prescribes standards for determining whether state laws that govern EFTs, and state laws regarding gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards that govern dormancy, inactivity, or service fees, or expiration dates, are preempted by the act and the regulation. A state law that is inconsistent may be preempted even if the Board has not issued a determination. However, nothing in § 205.12(b) provides a financial institution with immunity for violations of state law if the institution chooses not to make state disclosures and the Board later determines that the state law is not preempted.
2. Preemption determination. The Board determined that certain provisions in the state law of Michigan are preempted by the federal law, effective March 30, 1981:
i. Definition of unauthorized use. Section 5(4) is preempted to the extent that it relates to the section of state law governing consumer liability for unauthorized use of an access device.
ii. Consumer liability for unauthorized use of an account. Section 14 is inconsistent with § 205.6 and is less protective of the consumer than the federal law. The state law places liability on the consumer for the unauthorized use of an account in cases involving the consumer’s negligence. Under the federal law, a consumer’s liability for unauthorized use is not related to the consumer’s negligence and depends instead on the consumer’s promptness in reporting the loss or theft of the access device.
iii. Error resolution. Section 15 is preempted because it is inconsistent with § 205.11 and is less protective of the consumer than the federal law. The state law allows financial institutions up to 70 days to resolve errors, whereas the federal law generally requires errors to be resolved within 45 days.
iv. Receipts and periodic statements. Sections 17 and 18 are preempted because they are inconsistent with § 205.9. The state provisions require a different disclosure of information than does the federal law. The receipt provision is also preempted because it allows the consumer to be charged for receiving a receipt if a machine cannot furnish one at the time of a transfer.
1. Requirements. A financial institution need not retain records that it has given disclosures and documentation to each consumer; it need only retain evidence demonstrating that its procedures reasonably ensure the consumers’ receipt of required disclosures and documentation.
1. Applicability. This section applies only when a service provider issues an access device to a consumer for initiating transfers to or from the consumer’s account at a financial institution and the two entities have no agreement regarding this EFT service. If the service provider does not issue an access device to the consumer for accessing an account held by another institution, it does not qualify for the treatment accorded by § 205.14. For example, this section does not apply to an institution that initiates preauthorized payroll deposits to consumer accounts on behalf of an employer. By contrast, § 205.14 can apply to an institution that issues a code for initiating telephone transfers to be carried out through the ACH from a consumer’s account at another institution. This is the case even if the consumer has accounts at both institutions.
2. ACH agreements. The ACH rules generally do not constitute an agreement for purposes of this section. However, an ACH agreement under which members specifically agree to honor each other’s debit cards is an “agreement,” and thus this section does not apply.
1. Liability. The service provider is liable for unauthorized EFTs that exceed limits on the consumer’s liability under § 205.6.
Paragraph 14(b)(1) – Disclosures and Documentation
1. Periodic statements from electronic fund transfer service provider. A service provider that meets the conditions set forth in this paragraph does not have to issue periodic statements. A service provider that does not meet the conditions need only include on periodic statements information about transfers initiated with the access device it has issued.
1. Error resolution. When a consumer notifies the service provider of an error, the EFT service provider must investigate and resolve the error in compliance with § 205.11 as modified by § 205.14(b)(2). If an error occurred, any fees or charges imposed as a result of the error, either by the service provider or by the account-holding institution (for example, overdraft or dishonor fees) must be reimbursed to the consumer by the service provider.
1. Periodic statements from account-holding institution. The periodic statement provided by the account-holding institution need only contain the information required by § 205.9(b)(1).
1. Specific notices. An ATM operator that imposes a fee for a specific type of transaction – such as for a cash withdrawal, but not for a balance inquiry, or for some cash withdrawals, but not for others (such as where the card was issued by a foreign bank or by a card issuer that has entered into a special contractual relationship with the ATM operator regarding surcharges) – may provide a notice on or at the ATM that a fee will be imposed or a notice that a fee may be imposed for providing EFT services or may specify the type of EFT for which a fee is imposed. If, however, a fee will be imposed in all instances, the notice must state that a fee will be imposed.
1. Exempt securities- and commodities-related lines of credit. The definition of “overdraft service” does not include the payment of transactions in a securities or commodities account pursuant to which credit is extended by a broker-dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
1. Scope.
i. Account-holding institutions. Section 205.17(b) applies to ATM and one-time debit card transactions made with a debit card issued by or on behalf of the account-holding institution. Section 205.17(b) does not apply to ATM and one-time debit card transactions made with a debit card issued by or through a third party unless the debit card is issued on behalf of the account-holding institution.
ii. Coding of transactions. A financial institution complies with the rule if it adapts its systems to identify debit card transactions as either one-time or recurring. If it does so, the financial institution may rely on the transaction’s coding by merchants, other institutions, and other third parties as a one-time or a preauthorized or recurring debit card transaction.
iii. One-time debit card transactions. The opt-in applies to any one-time debit card transaction, whether the card is used, for example, at a point-of-sale, in an on-line transaction, or in a telephone transaction.
iv. Application of fee prohibition. The prohibition on assessing overdraft fees under § 205.17(b)(1) applies to all institutions. For example, the prohibition applies to an institution that has a policy and practice of declining to authorize and pay any ATM or one-time debit card transactions when the institution has a reasonable belief at the time of the authorization request that the consumer does not have sufficient funds available to cover the transaction. However, the institution is not required to comply with §§ 205.17(b)(1)(i)-(iv), including the notice and opt-in requirements, if it does not assess overdraft fees for paying ATM or one-time debit card transactions that overdraw the consumer’s account. Assume an institution does not provide an opt-in notice, but authorizes an ATM or one-time debit card transaction on the reasonable belief that the consumer has sufficient funds in the account to cover the transaction. If, at settlement, the consumer has insufficient funds in the account (for example, due to intervening transactions that post to the consumer’s account), the institution is not permitted to assess an overdraft fee or charge for paying that transaction.
2. No affirmative consent. A financial institution may pay overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions even if a consumer has not affirmatively consented or opted in to the institution’s overdraft service. If the institution pays such an overdraft without the consumer’s affirmative consent, however, it may not impose a fee or charge for doing so. These provisions do not limit the institution’s ability to debit the consumer’s account for the amount overdrawn if the institution is permitted to do so under applicable law.
3. Overdraft transactions not required to be authorized or paid. Section 205.17 does not require a financial institution to authorize or pay an overdraft on an ATM or one-time debit card transaction even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to an institution’s overdraft service for such transactions.
4. Reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent. A financial institution provides a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent when, among other things, it provides reasonable methods by which the consumer may affirmatively consent. A financial institution provides such reasonable methods, if –
i. By mail. The institution provides a form for the consumer to fill out and mail to affirmatively consent to the service.
ii. By telephone. The institution provides a readily-available telephone line that consumers may call to provide affirmative consent.
iii. By electronic means. The institution provides an electronic means for the consumer to affirmatively consent. For example, the institution could provide a form that can be accessed and processed at its Web site, where the consumer may click on a check box to provide consent and confirm that choice by clicking on a button that affirms the consumer’s consent.
iv. In person. The institution provides a form for the consumer to complete and present at a branch or office to affirmatively consent to the service.
5. Implementing opt-in at account-opening. A financial institution may provide notice regarding the institution’s overdraft service prior to or at account-opening. A financial institution may require a consumer, as a necessary step to opening an account, to choose whether or not to opt into the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service. For example, the institution could require the consumer, at account opening, to sign a signature line or check a box on a form (consistent with comment 17(b)-6) indicating whether or not the consumer affirmatively consents at account opening. If the consumer does not check any box or provide a signature, the institution must assume that the consumer does not opt in. Or, the institution could require the consumer to choose between an account that does not permit the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service and an account that permits the payment of such overdrafts, provided that the accounts comply with § 205.17(b)(2) and § 205.17(b)(3).
6. Affirmative consent required. A consumer’s affirmative consent, or opt-in, to a financial institution’s overdraft service must be obtained separately from other consents or acknowledgements obtained by the institution, including a consent to receive disclosures electronically. An institution may obtain a consumer’s affirmative consent by providing a blank signature line or check box that the consumer could sign or select to affirmatively consent, provided that the signature line or check box is used solely for purposes of evidencing the consumer’s choice whether or not to opt into the overdraft service and not for other purposes. An institution does not obtain a consumer’s affirmative consent by including preprinted language about the overdraft service in an account disclosure provided with a signature card or contract that the consumer must sign to open the account and that acknowledges the consumer’s acceptance of the account terms. Nor does an institution obtain a consumer’s affirmative consent by providing a signature card that contains a pre-selected check box indicating that the consumer is requesting the service.
7. Confirmation. A financial institution may comply with the requirement in § 205.17(b)(1)(iv) to provide confirmation of the consumer’s affirmative consent by mailing or delivering to the consumer a copy of the consumer’s completed opt-in notice, or by mailing or delivering a letter or notice to the consumer acknowledging that the consumer has elected to opt into the institution’s service. The confirmation, which must be provided in writing, or electronically if the consumer agrees, must include a statement informing the consumer of the right to revoke the opt-in at any time. See § 205.17(d)(6), which permits institutions to include the revocation statement on the initial opt-in notice. An institution complies with the confirmation requirement if it has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that overdraft fees are assessed only in connection with transactions paid after the confirmation has been mailed or delivered to the consumer.
8. Outstanding Negative Balance. If a fee or charge is based on the amount of the outstanding negative balance, an institution is prohibited from assessing any such fee if the negative balance is solely attributable to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, unless the consumer has opted into the institution’s overdraft service for ATM or one-time debit card transactions. However, the rule does not prohibit an institution from assessing such a fee if the negative balance is attributable in whole or in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the prohibition on assessing overdraft fees in § 205.17(b)(1).
9. Daily or Sustained Overdraft, Negative Balance, or Similar Fee or Charge
i. Daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges. If a consumer has not opted into the institution’s overdraft service for ATM or one-time debit card transactions, the fee prohibition in § 205.17(b)(1) applies to all overdraft fees or charges for paying those transactions, including but not limited to daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges. Thus, where a consumer’s negative balance is solely attributable to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, the rule prohibits the assessment of such fees unless the consumer has opted in. However, the rule does not prohibit an institution from assessing daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges if a negative balance is attributable in whole or in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the fee prohibition. When the negative balance is attributable in part to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, and in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the fee prohibition, the date on which such a fee may be assessed is based on the date on which the check, ACH, or other type of transaction is paid into overdraft.
ii. Examples. The following examples illustrate how an institution complies with the fee prohibition. For each example, assume the following: (a) The consumer has not opted into the payment of ATM or one-time debit card overdrafts; (b) these transactions are paid into overdraft because the amount of the transaction at settlement exceeded the amount authorized or the amount was not submitted for authorization; (c) under the account agreement, the institution may charge a per-item fee of $20 for each overdraft, and a one-time sustained overdraft fee of $20 on the fifth consecutive day the consumer’s account remains overdrawn; (d) the institution posts ATM and debit card transactions before other transactions; and (e) the institution allocates deposits to account debits in the same order in which it posts debits.
a. Assume that a consumer has a $50 account balance on March 1. That day, the institution posts a one-time debit card transaction of $60 and a check transaction of $40. The institution charges an overdraft fee of $20 for the check overdraft but cannot assess an overdraft fee for the debit card transaction. At the end of the day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $70. The consumer does not make any deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 2 and March 6. Because the consumer’s negative balance is attributable in part to the $40 check (and associated overdraft fee), the institution may charge a sustained overdraft fee on March 6 in connection with the check.
b. Same facts as in a., except that on March 3, the consumer deposits $40 in the account. The institution allocates the $40 to the debit card transaction first, consistent with its posting order policy. At the end of the day on March 3, the consumer has an account balance of negative $30, which is attributable to the check transaction (and associated overdraft fee). The consumer does not make any further deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 4 and March 6. Because the remaining negative balance is attributable to the March 1 check transaction, the institution may charge a sustained overdraft fee on March 6 in connection with the check.
c. Assume that a consumer has a $50 account balance on March 1. That day, the institution posts a one-time debit card transaction of $60. At the end of that day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $10. The institution may not assess an overdraft fee for the debit card transaction. On March 3, the institution pays a check transaction of $100 and charges an overdraft fee of $20. At the end of that day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $130. The consumer does not make any deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 4 and March 8. Because the consumer’s negative balance is attributable in part to the check, the institution may assess a $20 sustained overdraft fee. However, because the check was paid on March 3, the institution must use March 3 as the start date for determining the date on which the sustained overdraft fee may be assessed. Thus, the institution may charge a $20 sustained overdraft fee on March 8.
iii. Alternative approach. For a consumer who does not opt into the institution’s overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions, an institution may also comply with the fee prohibition in § 205.17(b)(1) by not assessing daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges unless a consumer’s negative balance is attributable solely to check, ACH or other types of transactions not subject to the fee prohibition while that negative balance remains outstanding. In such case, the institution would not have to determine how to allocate subsequent deposits that reduce but do not eliminate the negative balance. For example, if a consumer has a negative balance of $30, of which $10 is attributable to a one-time debit card transaction, an institution complies with the fee prohibition if it does not assess a sustained overdraft fee while that negative balance remains outstanding.
1. Application of the same criteria. The prohibitions on conditioning in § 205.17(b)(2) generally require an institution to apply the same criteria for deciding when to pay overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions, whether or not the consumer has affirmatively consented to the institution’s overdraft service with respect to ATM and one-time debit card overdrafts. For example, if an institution’s internal criteria would lead the institution to pay a check overdraft if the consumer had affirmatively consented to the institution’s overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions, it must also apply the same criteria in a consistent manner in determining whether to pay the check overdraft if the consumer has not opted in.
2. No requirement to pay overdrafts on checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions. The prohibition on conditioning in § 205.17(b)(2) does not require an institution to pay overdrafts on checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions in all circumstances. Rather, the rule simply prohibits institutions from considering the consumer’s decision not to opt in when deciding whether to pay overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions.
1. Variations in terms, conditions, or features. A financial institution may not vary the terms, conditions, or features of an account provided to a consumer who does not affirmatively consent to the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution’s overdraft service. This includes, but is not limited to:
i. Interest rates paid and fees assessed;
ii. The type of ATM or debit card provided to the consumer. For instance, an institution may not provide consumers who do not opt in a PIN-only card while providing a debit card with both PIN and signature-debit functionality to consumers who opt in;
iii. Minimum balance requirements; or
iv. Account features such as on-line bill payment services.
2. Limited-feature bank accounts. Section 205.17(b)(3) does not prohibit institutions from offering deposit account products with limited features, provided that a consumer is not required to open such an account because the consumer did not opt in. For example, § 205.17(b)(3) does not prohibit an institution from offering a checking account designed to comply with state basic banking laws, or designed for consumers who are not eligible for a checking account because of their credit or checking account history, which may include features limiting the payment of overdrafts. However, a consumer who applies, and is otherwise eligible, for a full-service or other particular deposit account product may not be provided instead with the account with more limited features because the consumer has declined to opt in.
1. Early compliance. A financial institution may provide the notice required by § 205(b)(1)(i) and obtain the consumer’s affirmative consent to the financial institution’s overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions prior to July 1, 2010, provided that the financial institution complies with all of the requirements of this section.
2. Permitted fees or charges. Fees or charges for ATM and one-time debit card overdrafts may be assessed only for overdrafts paid on or after the date the financial institution receives the consumer’s affirmative consent to the institution’s overdraft service. See also comment 17(b)-7.
1. Overdraft service. The description of the institution’s overdraft service should indicate that the consumer has the right to affirmatively consent, or opt into payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. The description should also disclose the institution’s policies regarding the payment of overdrafts for other transactions, including checks, ACH transactions, and automatic bill payments, provided that this content is not more prominent than the description of the consumer’s right to opt into payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. As applicable, the institution also should indicate that it pays overdrafts at its discretion, and should briefly explain that if the institution does not authorize and pay an overdraft, it may decline the transaction.
2. Maximum fee. If the amount of a fee may vary from transaction to transaction, the financial institution may indicate that the consumer may be assessed a fee “up to” the maximum fee. The financial institution must disclose all applicable overdraft fees, including but not limited to:
i. Per item or per transaction fees;
ii. Daily overdraft fees;
iii. Sustained overdraft fees, where fees are assessed when the consumer has not repaid the amount of the overdraft after some period of time (for example, if an account remains overdrawn for five or more business days); or
iv. Negative balance fees.
3. Opt-in methods. The opt-in notice must include the methods by which the consumer may consent to the overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. Institutions may tailor Model Form A-9 to the methods offered to consumers for affirmatively consenting to the service. For example, an institution need not provide the tear-off portion of Model Form A-9 if it is only permitting consumers to opt-in telephonically or electronically. Institutions may, but are not required, to provide a signature line or check box where the consumer can indicate that he or she declines to opt in.
4. Identification of consumer’s account. An institution may use any reasonable method to identify the account for which the consumer submits the opt-in notice. For example, the institution may include a line for a printed name and an account number, as shown in Model Form A-9. Or, the institution may print a bar code or use other tracking information. See also comment 17(b)-6, which describes how an institution obtains a consumer’s affirmative consent.
5. Alternative plans for covering overdrafts. If the institution offers both a line of credit subject to the Board’s Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) and a service that transfers funds from another account of the consumer held at the institution to cover overdrafts, the institution must state in its opt-in notice that both alternative plans are offered. For example, the notice might state “We also offer overdraft protection plans, such as a link to a savings account or to an overdraft line of credit, which may be less expensive than our standard overdraft practices.” If the institution offers one, but not the other, it must state in its opt-in notice the alternative plan that it offers. If the institution does not offer either plan, it should omit the reference to the alternative plans.
1. Fees or charges for overdrafts incurred prior to revocation. Section 205.17(f)(1) provides that a consumer may revoke his or her prior consent at any time. If a consumer does so, this provision does not require the financial institution to waive or reverse any overdraft fees assessed on the consumer’s account prior to the institution’s implementation of the consumer’s revocation request.
1. Termination of overdraft service. A financial institution may, for example, terminate the overdraft service when the consumer makes excessive use of the service.
1. Issuance of access device. Consistent with § 205.5(a), a financial institution may issue an access device only in response to an oral or written request for the device, or as a renewal or substitute for an accepted access device. A consumer is deemed to request an access device for a payroll card account when the consumer chooses to receive salary or other compensation through a payroll card account.
2. Application to employers and service providers. Typically, employers and third-party service providers do not meet the definition of a “financial institution” subject to the regulation because they neither hold payroll card accounts nor issue payroll cards and agree with consumers to provide EFT services in connection with payroll card accounts. However, to the extent an employer or a service provider undertakes either of these functions, it would be deemed a financial institution under the regulation.
1. Posted transactions. A history of transactions provided under §§ 205.18(b)(1)(ii) and (iii) shall reflect transfers once they have been posted to the account. Thus, an institution does not need to include transactions that have been authorized, but that have not yet posted to the account.
2. Electronic history. The electronic history required under § 205.18(b)(1)(ii) must be provided in a form that the consumer may keep, as required under § 205.4(a)(1). Financial institutions may satisfy this requirement if they make the electronic history available in a format that is capable of being retained. For example, an institution satisfies the requirement if it provides a history at an Internet Web site in a format that is capable of being printed or stored electronically using an Internet web browser.
1. Error resolution safe harbor provision. Institutions that choose to investigate notices of error provided up to 120 days from the date a transaction has posted to a consumer’s account may still disclose the error resolution time period required by the regulation (as set forth in the Model Form in Appendix A-7). Specifically, an institution may disclose to payroll card account holders that the institution will investigate any notice of error provided within 60 days of the consumer electronically accessing an account or receiving a written history upon request that reflects the error, even if, for some or all transactions, the institution investigates any notice of error provided up to 120 days from the date that the transaction alleged to be in error has posted to the consumer’s account. Similarly, an institution’s summary of the consumer’s liability (as required under § 205.7(b)(1)) may disclose that liability is based on the consumer providing notice of error within 60 days of the consumer electronically accessing an account or receiving a written history reflecting the error, even if, for some or all transactions, the institution allows a consumer to assert a notice of error up to 120 days from the date of posting of the alleged error.
2. Electronic access. A consumer is deemed to have accessed a payroll card account electronically when the consumer enters a user identification code or password or otherwise complies with a security procedure used by an institution to verify the consumer’s identity. An institution is not required to determine whether a consumer has in fact accessed information about specific transactions to trigger the beginning of the 60-day periods for liability limits and error resolution under §§ 205.6 and 205.11.
3. Untimely notice of error. An institution that provides a transaction history under § 205.18(b)(1) is not required to comply with the requirements of § 205.11 for any notice of error from the consumer pertaining to a transfer that occurred more than 60 days prior to the earlier of the date the consumer electronically accesses the account or the date the financial institution sends a written history upon the consumer’s request. (Alternatively, as provided in § 205.18(c)(4)(ii), an institution need not comply with the requirements of § 205.11 with respect to any notice of error received from the consumer more than 120 days after the date of posting of the transfer allegedly in error.) Where the consumer’s assertion of error involves an unauthorized EFT, however, the institution must comply with § 205.6 before it may impose any liability on the consumer.
1. Form of card, code, or device. Section 205.20 applies to any card, code, or other device that meets one of the definitions in § 205.20(a)(1) through (a)(3) (and is not otherwise excluded by § 205.20(b)), even if it is not issued in card form. Section 205.20 applies, for example, to an account number or bar code that can be used to access underlying funds. Similarly, § 205.20 applies to a device with a chip or other embedded mechanism that links the device to stored funds, such as a mobile phone or sticker containing a contactless chip that enables the consumer to access the stored funds. A card, code, or other device that meets the definition in § 205.20(a)(1) through (a)(3) includes an electronic promise (see comment 20(a)-2) as well as a promise that is not electronic. See, however, § 205.20(b)(5). In addition, § 205.20 applies if a merchant issues a code that entitles a consumer to redeem the code for goods or services, regardless of the medium in which the code is issued (see, however, § 205.20(b)(5)), and whether or not it may be redeemed electronically or in the merchant’s store. Thus, for example, if a merchant e-mails a code that a consumer may redeem in a specified amount either on-line or in the merchant’s store, that code is covered under § 205.20, unless one of the exclusions in § 205.20(b) apply.
2. Electronic promise. The term “electronic promise” as used in EFTA Sections 915(a)(2)(B), (a)(2)(C), and (a)(2)(D) means a person’s commitment or obligation communicated or stored in electronic form made to a consumer to provide payment for goods or services for transactions initiated by the consumer. The electronic promise is itself represented by a card, code or other device that is issued or honored by the person, reflecting the person’s commitment or obligation to pay. For example, if a merchant issues a code that can be given as a gift and that entitles the recipient to redeem the code in an on-line transaction for goods or services, that code represents an electronic promise by the merchant and is a card, code, or other device covered by § 205.20.
3. Cards, codes, or other devices redeemable for specific goods or services. Certain cards, codes, or other devices may be redeemable upon presentation for a specific good or service, or “experience,” such as a spa treatment, hotel stay, or airline flight. In other cases, a card, code, or other device may entitle the consumer to a certain percentage off the purchase of a good or service, such as 20% off of any purchase in a store. Such cards, codes, or other devices generally are not subject to the requirements of this section because they are not issued to a consumer “in a specified amount” as required under the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card.” However, if the card, code, or other device is issued in a specified or denominated amount that can be applied toward the purchase of a specific good or service, such as a certificate or card redeemable for a spa treatment up to $50, the card, code, or other device is subject to this section, unless one of the exceptions in § 205.20(b) apply. See, e.g., § 205.20(b)(3). Similarly, if the card, code, or other device states a specific monetary value, such as “a $50 value,” the card, code, or other device is subject to this section, unless an exclusion in § 205.20(b) applies.
4. Issued primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Section 205.20 only applies to cards, codes, or other devices that are sold or issued to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. A card, code, or other device initially purchased by a business is subject to this section if the card, code, or other device is purchased for redistribution or resale to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Moreover, the fact that a card, code, or other device may be primarily funded by a business, for example, in the case of certain rewards or incentive cards, does not mean the card, code, or other device is outside the scope of § 205.20, if the card, code, or other device will be provided to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. But see § 205.20(b)(3). Whether a card, code, or other device is issued to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes will depend on the facts and circumstances. For example, if a program manager purchases store gift cards directly from an issuing merchant and sells those cards through the program manager’s retail outlets, such gift cards are subject to the requirements of § 205.20 because the store gift cards are sold to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. In contrast, a card, code, or other device generally would not be issued to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and therefore would fall outside the scope of § 205.20, if the purchaser of the card, code, or device is contractually prohibited from reselling or redistributing the card, code, or device to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and reasonable policies and procedures are maintained to avoid such sale or distribution for such purposes. However, if an entity that has purchased cards, codes, or other devices for business purposes sells or distributes such cards, codes, or other devices to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that entity does not comply with § 205.20 if it has not otherwise met the substantive and disclosure requirements of the rule or unless an exclusion in § 205.20(b) applies.
5. Examples of cards, codes, or other devices issued for business purposes. Examples of cards, codes, or other devices that are issued and used for business purposes and therefore excluded from the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” include
i. Cards, codes, or other devices to reimburse employees for travel or moving expenses.
ii. Cards, codes, or other devices for employees to use to purchase office supplies and other business-related items.
1. Relationship between “gift certificate” and “store gift card”. The term “store gift card” in § 205.20(a)(2) includes “gift certificate” as defined in § 205.20(a)(1). For example, a numeric or alphanumeric code representing a specified dollar amount or value that is electronically sent to a consumer as a gift which can be redeemed or exchanged by the recipient to obtain goods or services may be both a “gift certificate” and a “store gift card” if the specified amount or value cannot be increased.
2. Affiliated group of merchants. The term “affiliated group of merchants” means two or more affiliated merchants or other persons that are related by common ownership or common corporate control (see, e.g., 12 CFR 227.3(b) and 12 CFR 223.2) and that share the same name, mark, or logo. For example, the term includes franchisees that are subject to a common set of corporate policies or practices under the terms of their franchise licenses. The term also applies to two or more merchants or other persons that agree among themselves, by contract or otherwise, to redeem cards, codes, or other devices bearing the same name, mark, or logo (other than the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network), for the purchase of goods or services solely at such merchants or persons. For example, assume a movie theatre chain and a restaurant chain jointly agree to issue cards that share the same “Flix and Food” logo that can be redeemed solely towards the purchase of movie tickets or concessions at any of the participating movie theatres, or towards the purchase of food or beverages at any of the participating restaurants. For purposes of § 205.20, the movie theatre chain and the restaurant chain would be considered to be an affiliated group of merchants, and the cards are considered to be “store gift cards.” However, merchants or other persons are not considered to be affiliated merely because they agree to accept a card that bears the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network.
3. Mall gift cards. See comment 20(a)(3)-2.
1. Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants. A card, code, or other device is redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants if, for example, such merchants agree to honor the card, code, or device if it bears the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network, pursuant to the rules of the payment network.
2. Mall gift cards. Mall gift cards that are intended to be used or redeemed for goods or services at participating retailers within a shopping mall may be considered store gift cards or general-use prepaid cards depending on the merchants with which the cards may be redeemed. For example, if a mall card may only be redeemed at merchants within the mall itself, the card is more likely to be redeemable at an affiliated group of merchants and considered a store gift card. However, certain mall cards also carry the brand of a payment network and can be used at any retailer that accepts that card brand, including retailers located outside of the mall. Such cards are considered general-use prepaid cards.
1. Examples of loyalty, award, or promotional programs. Examples of loyalty, award or promotional programs under § 205.20(a)(4) include, but are not limited to
i. Consumer retention programs operated or administered by a merchant or other person that provide to consumers cards or coupons redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value as a reward for purchases made or for visits to the participating merchant;
ii. Sales promotions operated or administered by a merchant or product manufacturer that provide coupons or discounts redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value.
iii. Rebate programs operated or administered by a merchant or product manufacturer that provide cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers in connection with the consumer’s purchase of a product or service and the consumer’s completion of the rebate submission process.
iv. Sweepstakes or contests that distribute cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers as an invitation to enter into the promotion for a chance to win a prize.
v. Referral programs that provide cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers in exchange for referring other potential consumers to a merchant.
vi. Incentive programs through which an employer provides cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to employees, for example, to recognize job performance, such as increased sales, or to encourage employee wellness and safety.
vii. Charitable or community relations programs through which a company provides cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to a charity or community group for their fundraising purposes, for example, as a reward for a donation or as a prize in a charitable event.
2. Issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes. To indicate that a card, code, or other device is issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes as required by § 205.20(a)(4)(iii), it is sufficient for the card, code, or other device to state on the front, for example, “Reward” or “Promotional.”
3. Reference to toll-free number and Web site. If a card, code, or other device issued in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program does not have any fees, the disclosure under § 205.20(a)(4)(iii)(D) is not required on the card, code, or other device.
1. Service fees. Under § 205.20(a)(6), a service fee includes a periodic fee for holding or use of a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card. A periodic fee includes any fee that may be imposed on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card from time to time for holding or using the certificate or card, such as a monthly maintenance fee, a transaction fee, an ATM fee, a reload fee, a foreign currency transaction fee, or a balance inquiry fee, whether or not the fee is waived for a certain period of time or is only imposed after a certain period of time. A service fee does not include a one-time fee or a fee that is unlikely to be imposed more than once while the underlying funds are still valid, such as an initial issuance fee, a cash-out fee, a supplemental card fee, or a lost or stolen certificate or card replacement fee.
1. Activity. Under § 205.20(a)(7), any action that results in an increase or decrease of the funds underlying a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, other than the imposition of a fee, or an adjustment due to an error or a reversal of a prior transaction, constitutes activity for purposes of § 205.20. For example, the purchase and activation of a certificate or card, the use of the certificate or card to purchase a good or service, or the reloading of funds onto a store gift card or general-use prepaid card constitutes activity. However, the imposition of a fee, the replacement of an expired, lost, or stolen certificate or card, and a balance inquiry do not constitute activity. In addition, if a consumer attempts to engage in a transaction with a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, but the transaction cannot be completed due to technical or other reasons, such attempt does not constitute activity. Furthermore, if the funds underlying a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card are adjusted because there was an error or the consumer has returned a previously purchased good, the adjustment also does not constitute activity with respect to the certificate or card.
1. Application of exclusion. A card, code, or other device is excluded from the definition of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” if it meets any of the exclusions in § 205.20(b). An excluded card, code, or other device generally is not subject to any of the requirements of this section. (See, however, § 205.20(a)(4)(iii), requiring certain disclosures for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.)
2. Eligibility for multiple exclusions. A card, code, or other device may qualify for one or more exclusions. For example, a corporation may give its employees a gift card that is marketed solely to businesses for incentive-related purposes, such as to reward job performance or promote employee safety. In this case, the card may qualify for the exclusion for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards under § 205.20(b)(3), or for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 205.20(b)(4). In addition, as long as any one of the exclusions applies, a card, code, or other device is not covered by § 205.20, even if other exclusions do not apply. In the above example, the corporation may give its employees a type of gift card that can also be purchased by a consumer directly from a merchant. Under these circumstances, while the card does not qualify for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 205.20(b)(4) because the card can also be obtained through retail channels, it is nevertheless exempt from the substantive requirements of § 205.20 because it is a loyalty, award, or promotional gift card. (See, however, § 205.20(a)(4)(iii), requiring certain disclosures for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.) Similarly, a person may market a reloadable card to teenagers for occasional expenses that enables parents to monitor spending. Although the card does not qualify for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 205.20(b)(4), it may nevertheless be exempt from the requirements of § 205.20 under § 205.20(b)(2) if it is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.
1. Examples of excluded products. The exclusion for products usable solely for telephone services applies to prepaid cards for long-distance telephone service, prepaid cards for wireless telephone service and prepaid cards for other services that function similar to telephone services, such as prepaid cards for voice over internet protocol (VoIP) access time.
1. Reloadable. A card, code, or other device is “reloadable” if the terms and conditions of the agreement permit funds to be added to the card, code, or other device after the initial purchase or issuance. A card, code, or other device is not “reloadable” merely because the issuer or processor is technically able to add functionality that would otherwise enable the card, code, or other device to be reloaded.
2. Marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate. The term “marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate” means directly or indirectly offering, advertising or otherwise suggesting the potential use of a card, code or other device, as a gift for another person. Whether the exclusion applies generally does not depend on the type of entity that makes the promotional message. For example, a card may be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if anyone (other than the purchaser of the card), including the issuer, the retailer, the program manager that may distribute the card, or the payment network on which a card is used, promotes the use of the card as a gift card or gift certificate. A card, code, or other device, including a general-purpose reloadable card, is marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate even if it is only occasionally marketed as a gift card or gift certificate. For example, a network-branded general purpose reloadable card would be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if the issuer principally advertises the card as a less costly alternative to a bank account but promotes the card in a television, radio, newspaper, or Internet advertisement, or on signage as “the perfect gift” during the holiday season. However, the mere mention of the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in an advertisement or on a sign that also indicates the availability of other excluded prepaid cards does not by itself cause the excluded prepaid cards to be marketed as a gift card or a gift certificate. For example, the posting of a sign in a store that refers to the availability of gift cards does not by itself constitute the marketing of otherwise excluded prepaid cards that may also be sold in the store as gift cards or gift certificates, provided that a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances would not be led to believe that the sign applies to all prepaid cards sold in the store. (See, however, comment 20(b)(2)-4.ii.)
3. Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.
i. Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate include
A. Using the word “gift” or “present” on a card, certificate, or accompanying material, including documentation, packaging and promotional displays;
B. Representing or suggesting that a certificate or card can be given to another person, for example, as a “token of appreciation” or a “stocking stuffer,” or displaying a congratulatory message on the card, certificate or accompanying material;
C. Incorporating gift-giving or celebratory imagery or motifs, such as a bow, ribbon, wrapped present, candle, or congratulatory message, on a card, certificate, accompanying documentation, or promotional material;
ii. The term does not include
A. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a substitute for a checking, savings, or deposit account;
B. Representing that a card or certificate can be used to pay for a consumer’s health-related expenses – for example, a card tied to a health savings account;
C. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a substitute for travelers checks or cash;
D. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a budgetary tool, for example, by teenagers, or to cover emergency expenses.
4. Reasonable policies and procedures to avoid marketing as a gift card. The exclusion for a card, code, or other device that is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate in § 205.20(b)(2) applies if a reloadable card, code, or other device is not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate and if persons subject to the rule, including issuers, program managers, and retailers, maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid such marketing. Such policies and procedures may include contractual provisions prohibiting a reloadable card, code, or other device from being marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate, merchandising guidelines or plans regarding how the product must be displayed in a retail outlet, and controls to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the card, code or other device is not being marketed as a gift card. Whether a reloadable card, code, or other device has been marketed as a gift card or gift certificate will depend on the facts and circumstances, including whether a reasonable consumer would be led to believe that the card, code, or other device is a gift card or gift certificate. The following examples illustrate the application of § 205.20(b)(2)
i. An issuer or program manager of prepaid cards agrees to sell general-purpose reloadable cards through a retailer. The contract between the issuer or program manager and the retailer establishes the terms and conditions under which the cards may be sold and marketed at the retailer. The terms and conditions prohibit the general-purpose reloadable cards from being marketed as a gift card or gift certificate, and require policies and procedures to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the cards are not being marketed as such. The issuer or program manager sets up one promotional display at the retailer for gift cards and another physically separated display for excluded products under § 205.20(b), including general-purpose reloadable cards and wireless telephone cards, such that a reasonable consumer would not believe that the excluded cards are gift cards. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
ii. Same facts as in i., except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid cards are sold, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards. A sign stating “Gift Cards” appears prominently at the top of the display. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) does not apply with respect to the general-purpose reloadable cards because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of excluded cards as gift cards or gift certificates are not maintained.
iii. Same facts as in i., except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional multi-sided display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards are sold. Gift cards are segregated from excluded cards, with gift cards on one side of the display and excluded cards on a different side of a display. Signs of equal prominence at the top of each side of the display clearly differentiate between gift cards and the other types of prepaid cards that are available for sale. The retailer does not use any more conspicuous signage suggesting the general availability of gift cards, such as a large sign stating “Gift Cards” at the top of the display or located near the display. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
iv. Same facts as in i., except that the retailer sells a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards, arranged side-by-side in the same checkout lane. The retailer does not affirmatively indicate or represent that gift cards are available, such as by displaying any signage or other indicia at the checkout lane suggesting the general availability of gift cards. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid marketing the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained.
5. On-line sales of prepaid cards. Some Web sites may prominently advertise or promote the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in a manner that suggests to a consumer that the Web site exclusively sells gift cards or gift certificates. For example, a Web site may display a banner advertisement or a graphic on the home page that prominently states “Gift Cards,” “Gift Giving,” or similar language without mention of other available products, or use a Web address that includes only a reference to gift cards or gift certificates in the address. In such a case, a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances could be led to believe that all prepaid products sold on the Web site are gift cards or gift certificates. Under these facts, the Web site has marketed all such products, including general-purpose reloadable cards, as gift cards or gift certificates, and the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) does not apply.
6. Temporary non-reloadable cards issued in connection with a general-purpose reloadable card. Certain general-purpose reloadable cards that are typically marketed as an account substitute initially may be sold or issued in the form of a temporary non-reloadable card. After the card is purchased, the cardholder is typically required to call the issuer to register the card and to provide identifying information in order to obtain a reloadable replacement card. In most cases, the temporary non-reloadable card can be used for purchases until the replacement reloadable card arrives and is activated by the cardholder. Because the temporary non-reloadable card may only be obtained in connection with the general-purpose reloadable card, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies so long as the card is not marketed as a gift card or gift certificate.
1. Marketed to the general public. A card, code, or other device is marketed to the general public if the potential use of the card, code, or other device is directly or indirectly offered, advertised, or otherwise promoted to the general public. A card, code, or other device may be marketed to the general public through any advertising medium, including television, radio, newspaper, the Internet, or signage. However, the posting of a company policy that funds may be disbursed by prepaid card (such as a sign posted at a cash register or customer service center stating that store credit will be issued by prepaid card) does not constitute the marketing of a card, code, or other device to the general public. In addition, the method of distribution by itself is not dispositive in determining whether a card, code, or other device is marketed to the general public. Factors that may be considered in determining whether the exclusion applies to a particular card, code, or other device include the means or channel through which the card, code, or device may be obtained by a consumer, the subset of consumers that are eligible to obtain the card, code, or device, and whether the availability of the card, code, or device is advertised or otherwise promoted in the marketplace.
2. Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4)
i. A merchant sells its gift cards at a discount to a business which may give them to employees or loyal consumers as incentives or rewards. In determining whether the gift card falls within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4), the merchant must consider whether the card is of a type that is advertised or made available to consumers generally or can be obtained elsewhere. If the card can also be purchased through retail channels, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) does not apply, even if the consumer obtained the card from the business as an incentive or reward. See, however, § 205.20(b)(3).
ii. A national retail chain decides to market its gift cards only to members of its frequent buyer program. Similarly, a bank may decide to sell gift cards only to its customers. If a member of the general public may become a member of the program or a customer of the bank, the card does not fall within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) because the general public has the ability to obtain the cards. See, however, § 205.20(b)(3).
iii. A card issuer advertises a reloadable card to teenagers and their parents promoting the card for use by teenagers for occasional expenses, schoolbooks and emergencies and by parents to monitor spending. Because the card is marketed to and may be sold to any member of the general public, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) does not apply. See, however, § 205.20(b)(2).
iv. An insurance company settles a policyholder’s claim and distributes the insurance proceeds to the consumer by means of a prepaid card. Because the prepaid card is simply the means for providing the insurance proceeds to the consumer and the availability of the card is not advertised to the general public, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) applies.
v. A merchant provides store credit to a consumer following a merchandise return by issuing a prepaid card that clearly indicates that the card contains funds for store credit. Because the prepaid card is issued for the stated purpose of providing store credit to the consumer and the ability to receive refunds by a prepaid card is not advertised to the general public, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) applies.
vi. A tax preparation company elects to distribute tax refunds to its clients by issuing prepaid cards, but does not advertise or otherwise promote the ability to receive proceeds in this manner. Because the prepaid card is simply the mechanism for providing the tax refund to the consumer, and the tax preparer does not advertise the ability to obtain tax refunds by a prepaid card, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) applies. However, if the tax preparer promotes the ability to receive tax refund proceeds through a prepaid card as a way to obtain “faster” access to the proceeds, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) does not apply.
1. Exclusion explained. To qualify for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5), the sole means of issuing the card, code, or other device must be in a paper form. Thus, the exclusion generally applies to certificates issued in paper form where solely the paper itself may be used to purchase goods or services. A card, code or other device is not issued solely in paper form simply because it may be reproduced or printed on paper. For example, a bar code, card or certificate number, or certificate or coupon electronically provided to a consumer and redeemable for goods and services is not issued in paper form, even if it may be reproduced or otherwise printed on paper by the consumer. In this circumstance, although the consumer might hold a paper facsimile of the card, code, or other device, the exclusion does not apply because the information necessary to redeem the value was initially issued in electronic form. A paper certificate is within the exclusion regardless of whether it may be redeemed electronically. For example, a paper certificate or receipt that bears a bar code, code, or account number falls within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) if the bar code, code, or account number is not issued in any form other than on the paper. In addition, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) continues to apply in circumstances where an issuer replaces a gift certificate that was initially issued in paper form with a card or electronic code (for example, to replace a lost paper certificate).
2. Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5)
i. A merchant issues a paper gift certificate that entitles the bearer to a specified dollar amount that can be applied towards a future meal. The merchant fills in the certificate with the name of the certificate holder and the amount of the certificate. The certificate falls within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) because it is issued in paper form only.
ii. A merchant allows a consumer to prepay for a good or service, such as a car wash or time at a parking meter, and issues a paper receipt bearing a numerical or bar code that the consumer may redeem to obtain the good or service. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) applies because the code is issued in paper form only.
iii. A merchant issues a paper certificate or receipt bearing a bar code or certificate number that can later be scanned or entered into the merchant’s system and redeemed by the certificate or receipt holder towards the purchase of goods or services. The bar code or certificate number is not issued by the merchant in any form other than paper. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) applies because the bar code or certificate number is issued in paper form only.
iv. An on-line merchant electronically provides a bar code, card or certificate number, or certificate or coupon to a consumer that the consumer may print on a home printer and later redeem towards the purchase of goods or services. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) does not apply because the bar code or card or certificate number was issued to the consumer in electronic form, even though it can be reproduced or otherwise printed on paper by the consumer.
1. Exclusion explained. The exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices that are redeemable solely for admission to events or venues at a particular location or group of affiliated locations generally applies to cards, codes, or other devices that are not redeemed for a specified monetary value, but rather solely for admission or entry to an event or venue. The exclusion also covers a card, code, or other device that is usable to purchase goods or services in addition to entry into the event or the venue, either at the event or venue or at an affiliated location or location in geographic proximity to the event or venue.
2. Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6)
i. A consumer purchases a prepaid card that entitles the holder to a ticket for entry to an amusement park. The prepaid card may only be used for entry to the park. The card qualifies for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6) because it is redeemable for admission or entry and for goods or services in conjunction with that admission. In addition, if the prepaid card does not have a monetary value, and therefore is not “issued in a specified amount,” the card does not meet the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” in § 205.20(a). See comment 20(a)-3.
ii. Same facts as in i., except that the gift card also entitles the holder of the gift card to a dollar amount that can be applied towards the purchase of food and beverages or goods or services at the park or at nearby affiliated locations. The card qualifies for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6) because it is redeemable for admission or entry and for goods or services in conjunction with that admission.
iii. A consumer purchases a $25 gift card that the holder of the gift card can use to make purchases at a merchant, or, alternatively, can apply towards the cost of admission to the merchant’s affiliated amusement park. The card is not eligible for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6) because it is not redeemable solely for the admission or ticket itself (or for goods and services purchased in conjunction with such admission). The card meets the definition of “store gift card” and is therefore subject to § 205.20, unless a different exclusion applies.
1. Clear and conspicuous standard. All disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for purposes of this section if they are readily understandable and, in the case of written and electronic disclosures, the location and type size are readily noticeable to consumers. Disclosures need not be located on the front of the certificate or card, except where otherwise required, to be considered clear and conspicuous. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for the purposes of this section if they are in a print that contrasts with and is otherwise not obstructed by the background on which they are printed. For example, disclosures on a card or computer screen are not likely to be conspicuous if obscured by a logo printed in the background. Similarly, disclosures on the back of a card that are printed on top of indentations from embossed type on the front of the card are not likely to be conspicuous if the indentations obstruct the readability of the disclosures. To the extent permitted, oral disclosures meet the standard when they are given at a volume and speed sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them.
2. Abbreviations and symbols. Disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols, such as “mo.” for month or a “/” to indicate “per.” Under the clear and conspicuous standard, it is sufficient to state, for example, that a particular fee is charged “$2.50/mo. after 12 mos.”
1. Electronic disclosures. Disclosures provided electronically pursuant to this section are not subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq.). Electronic disclosures must be in a retainable form. For example, a person may satisfy the requirement if it provides an online disclosure in a format that is capable of being printed. Electronic disclosures may not be provided through a hyperlink or in another manner by which the purchaser can bypass the disclosure. A person is not required to confirm that the consumer has read the electronic disclosures.
1. Method of purchase. The disclosures required by this paragraph must be provided before a certificate or card is purchased regardless of whether the certificate or card is purchased in person, online, by telephone, or by other means.
2. Electronic disclosures. Section 205.20(c)(3) provides that the disclosures required by this section must be provided to the consumer prior to purchase. For certificates or cards purchased electronically, disclosures made to the consumer after a consumer has initiated an online purchase of a certificate or card, but prior to completing the purchase of the certificate or card, would satisfy the prior-to-purchase requirement. However, electronic disclosures made available on a person’s Web site that may or may not be accessed by the consumer are not provided to the consumer and therefore would not satisfy the prior-to-purchase requirement.
3. Non-physical certificates and cards. If no physical certificate or card is issued, the disclosures must be provided to the consumer before the certificate or card is purchased. For example, where a gift certificate or card is a code that is provided by telephone, the required disclosures may be provided orally prior to purchase. See also § 205.20(c)(2).
1. Non-physical certificates and cards. If no physical certificate or card is issued, the disclosures required by this paragraph must be disclosed on the code, confirmation, or other written or electronic document provided to the consumer. For example, where a gift certificate or card is a code or confirmation that is provided to a consumer on-line or sent to a consumer’s e-mail address, the required disclosures may be provided electronically on the same document as the code or confirmation.
2. No disclosures on a certificate or card. Disclosures required by § 205.20(c)(4) need not be made on a certificate or card if it is accompanied by a certificate or card that complies with this section. For example, a person may issue or sell a supplemental gift card that is smaller than a standard size and that does not bear the applicable disclosures if it is accompanied by a fully compliant certificate or card. See also comment 20(c)(2)-2.
1. One-year period. Section 205.20(d) provides that a person may impose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee only if there has been no activity with respect to a certificate or card for one year. The following examples illustrate this rule
i. A certificate or card is purchased on January 15 of year one. If there has been no activity on the certificate or card since the certificate or card was purchased, a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed on the certificate or card on January 15 of year two.
ii. Same facts as i., and a fee was imposed on January 15 of year two. Because no more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed in any given calendar month, the earliest date that another dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed, assuming there continues to be no activity on the certificate or card, is February 1 of year two. A dormancy, inactivity, or service fee is permitted to be imposed on February 1 of year two because there has been no activity on the certificate or card for the preceding year (February 1 of year one through January 31 of year two), and February is a new calendar month. The imposition of a fee on January 15 of year two is not activity for purposes of § 205.20(d). See comment 20(a)(7)-1.
iii. Same facts as i., and a fee was imposed on January 15 of year two. On January 31 of year two, the consumer uses the card to make a purchase. Another dormancy, inactivity, or service fee could not be imposed until January 31 of year three, assuming there has been no activity on the certificate or card since January 31 of year two.
2. Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3). Sections 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3) contain similar, but not identical, disclosure requirements. Section 205.20(d)(2) requires the disclosure of dormancy, inactivity, and service fees on a certificate or card. Section 205.20(c)(3) requires that vendor person that issues or sells such certificate or card disclose to a consumer any dormancy, inactivity, and service fees associated with the certificate or card before such certificate or card may be purchased. Depending on the context, a single disclosure that meets the clear and conspicuous requirements of both §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3) may be used to disclose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee. For example, if the disclosures on a certificate or card, required by § 205.20(d)(2), are visible to the consumer without having to remove packaging or other materials sold with the certificate or card, for a purchase made in person, the disclosures also meet the requirements of § 205.20(c)(3). Otherwise, a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may need to be disclosed multiple times to satisfy the requirements of §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3). For example, if the disclosures on a certificate or card, required by § 205.20(d)(2), are obstructed by packaging sold with the certificate or card, for a purchase made in person, they also must be disclosed on the packaging sold with the certificate or card to meet the requirements of § 205.20(c)(3).
3. Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2). In addition to any disclosures required under § 205.20(d)(2), any applicable disclosures under §§ 205.20(e)(3) and (f)(2) of this section must also be provided on the certificate or card.
4. One fee per month. Under § 205.20(d)(3), no more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed in any given calendar month. For example, if a dormancy fee is imposed on January 1, following a year of inactivity, and a consumer makes a balance inquiry on January 15, a balance inquiry fee may not be imposed at that time because a dormancy fee was already imposed earlier that month and a balance inquiry fee is a type of service fee. If, however, the dormancy fee could be imposed on January 1, following a year of inactivity, and the consumer makes a balance inquiry on the same date, the person assessing the fees may choose whether to impose the dormancy fee or the balance inquiry fee on January 1. The restriction in § 205.20(d)(3) does not apply to any fee that is not a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee. For example, assume a service fee is imposed on a general-use prepaid card on January 1, following a year of inactivity. If a consumer cashes out the remaining funds by check on January 15, a cash-out fee, to the extent such cash-out fee is permitted under § 205.20(e)(4), may be imposed at that time because a cash-out fee is not a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee.
5. Accumulation of fees. Section 205.20(d) prohibits the accumulation of dormancy, inactivity, or service fees for previous periods into a single fee because such a practice would circumvent the limitation in § 205.20(d)(3) that only one fee may be charged per month. For example, if a consumer purchases and activates a store gift card on January 1 but never uses the card, a monthly maintenance fee of $2.00 a month may not be accumulated such that a fee of $24 is imposed on January 1 the following year.
1. Reasonable opportunity. Under § 205.20(e)(1), no person may sell or issue a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card with an expiration date, unless there are policies and procedures in place to provide consumers with a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date. Consumers are deemed to have a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date if
i. There are policies and procedures established to prevent the sale of a certificate or card unless the certificate or card expiration date is at least five years after the date the certificate or card was sold or initially issued to a consumer; or
ii. A certificate or card is available to consumers to purchase five years and six months before the certificate or card expiration date.
2. Applicability to replacement certificates or cards. Section 205.20(e)(1) applies solely to the purchase of a certificate or card. Therefore, § 205.20(e)(1) does not apply to the replacement of such certificates or cards. Certificates or cards issued as a replacement may bear a certificate or card expiration date of less than five years from the date of issuance of the replacement certificate or card. If the certificate or card expiration date for a replacement certificate or card is later than the date set forth in § 205.20(e)(2)(i), then pursuant to § 205.20(e)(2), the expiration date for the underlying funds at the time the replacement certificate or card is issued must be no earlier than the expiration date for the replacement certificate or card. For purposes of § 205.20(e)(2), funds are not considered to be loaded to a store gift card or general-use prepaid card solely because a replacement card has been issued or activated for use.
3. Disclosure of funds expiration – date not required. Section 205.20(e)(3)(i) does not require disclosure of the precise date the funds will expire. It is sufficient to disclose, for example, “Funds expire 5 years from the date funds last loaded to the card.”; “Funds can be used 5 years from the date money was last added to the card.”; or “Funds do not expire.”
4. Disclosure not required if no expiration date. If the certificate or card and underlying funds do not expire, the disclosure required by § 205.20(e)(3)(i) need not be stated on the certificate or card. If the certificate or card and underlying funds expire at the same time, only one expiration date need be disclosed on the certificate or card.
5. Reference to toll-free telephone number and Web site. If a certificate or card does not expire, or if the underlying funds are not available after the certificate or card expires, the disclosure required by § 205.20(e)(3)(ii) need not be stated on the certificate or card. See, however, § 205.20(f)(2).
6. Relationship to § 226.20(f)(2). The same toll-free telephone number and Web site may be used to comply with §§ 226.20(e)(3)(ii) and (f)(2). Neither a toll-free number nor a Web site must be maintained or disclosed if no fees are imposed in connection with a certificate or card, and the certificate or card and the underlying funds do not expire.
7. Distinguishing between certificate or card expiration and funds expiration. If applicable, a disclosure must be made on the certificate or card that notifies a consumer that the certificate or card expires, but the funds either do not expire or expire later than the certificate or card, and that the consumer may contact the issuer for a replacement card. The disclosure must be made with equal prominence and in close proximity to the certificate or card expiration date. The close proximity requirement does not apply to oral disclosures. In the case of a certificate or card, close proximity means that the disclosure must be on the same side as the certificate or card expiration date. For example, if the disclosure is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the certificate or card expiration date, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent and in close proximity. The disclosure need not be embossed on the certificate or card to be deemed equally prominent, even if the expiration date is embossed on the certificate or card. The disclosure may state on the front of the card, for example, “Funds expire after card. Call for replacement card.” or “Funds do not expire. Call for new card after 09/2016.” Disclosures made pursuant to § 205.20(e)(3)(iii)(A) may also fulfill the requirements of § 205.20(e)(3)(i). For example, making a disclosure that “Funds do not expire” to comply with § 205.20(e)(3)(iii)(A) also fulfills the requirements of § 205.20(e)(3)(i).
8. Expiration date safe harbor. A non-reloadable certificate or card that bears an expiration date that is at least seven years from the date of manufacture need not state the disclosure required by § 205.20(e)(3)(iii). However, § 205.20(e)(1) still prohibits the sale or issuance of such certificate or card unless there are policies and procedures in place to provide a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to purchase the certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date. In addition, under § 205.20(e)(2), the funds may not expire before the certificate or card expiration date, even if the expiration date of the certificate or card bears an expiration date that is more than five years at the date of purchase. For purposes of this safe harbor, the date of manufacture is the date on which the certificate or card expiration date is printed on the certificate or card.
9. Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2). In addition to any disclosures required to be made under § 205.20(e)(3), any applicable disclosures under §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (f)(2) must also be provided on the certificate or card.
10. Replacement or remaining balance of an expired certificate or card. When a certificate or card expires, but the underlying funds have not expired, an issuer, at its option in accordance with applicable state law, may provide either a replacement certificate or card or otherwise provide the certificate or card holder, for example, by check, with the remaining balance on the certificate or card. In either case, the issuer may not charge a fee for the service.
11. Replacement of a lost or stolen certificate or card not required. Section 205.20(e)(4) does not require the replacement of a certificate or card that has been lost or stolen.
12. Date of issuance or loading. For purposes of § 205.20(e)(2)(i), a certificate or card is not issued or loaded with funds until the certificate or card is activated for use.
13. Application of expiration date provisions after redemption of certificate or card. The requirement that funds underlying a certificate or card must not expire for at least five years from the date of issuance or date of last load ceases to apply once the certificate or card has been fully redeemed, even if the underlying funds are not used to contemporaneously purchase a specific good or service. For example, some certificates or cards can be used to purchase music, media, or virtual goods. Once redeemed by a consumer, the entire balance on the certificate or card is debited from the certificate or card and credited or transferred to another “account” established by the merchant of such goods or services. The consumer can then make purchases of songs, media, or virtual goods from the merchant using that “account” either at the time the value is transferred from the certificate or card or at a later time. Under these circumstances, once the card has been fully redeemed and the “account” credited with the amount of the underlying funds, the five-year minimum expiration term no longer applies to the underlying funds. However, if the consumer only partially redeems the value of the certificate or card, the five-year minimum expiration term requirement continues to apply to the funds remaining on the certificate or card.
1. Reference to toll-free telephone number and Web site. If a certificate or card does not have any fees, the disclosure under § 205.20(f)(2) is not required on the certificate or card. See, however, § 205.20(e)(3)(ii).
2. Relationship to § 226.20(e)(3)(ii). The same toll-free telephone number and Web site may be used to comply with §§ 226.20(e)(3)(ii) and (f)(2). Neither a toll-free number nor a Web site must be maintained or disclosed if no fees are imposed in connection with a certificate or card, and both the certificate or card and underlying funds do not expire.
3. Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2). In addition to any disclosures required pursuant to § 205.20(f)(2), any applicable disclosures under §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (e)(3) must also be provided on the certificate or card.
1. Period of eligibility for loyalty, award, or promotional programs. For purposes of § 205.20(g)(2), the period of eligibility is the time period during which a consumer must engage in a certain action or actions to meet the terms of eligibility for a loyalty, award, or promotional program and obtain the card, code, or other device. Under § 205.20(g)(2), a gift card issued pursuant to a loyalty, award, or promotional program that began prior to August 22, 2010 need not state the disclosures in § 205.20(a)(4)(iii) regardless of whether the consumer became eligible to receive the gift card prior to August 22, 2010, or after that date. For example, a product manufacturer may provide a $20 rebate card to a consumer if the consumer purchases a particular product and submits a fully completed entry between January 1, 2010 and December 31, 2010. Similarly, a merchant may provide a $20 gift card to a consumer if the consumer makes $200 worth of qualifying purchases between June 1, 2010 and October 30, 2010. Under both examples, gift cards provided pursuant to these loyalty, award, or promotional programs need not state the disclosures in § 205.20(a)(4)(iii) to qualify for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(3) for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards because the period of eligibility for each program began prior to August 22, 2010.
1. Application to certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010. Certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 may be sold to a consumer on or after August 22, 2010 without satisfying the requirements of § 205.20(c)(3), (d)(2), (e)(1), (e)(3), and (f) through January 30, 2011, provided that issuers of such certificates or cards comply with the additional substantive and disclosure requirements of §§ 205.20(h)(1)(i) through (iv). Issuers of certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 need not satisfy these additional requirements if the certificates or cards fully comply with the rule (§§ 205.20(a) through (f)). For example, the in-store signage and other disclosures required by § 205.20(h)(2) do not apply to gift cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 that do not have fees and do not expire, and which otherwise comply with the rule.
2. Expiration of temporary exemption. Certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 that do not fully comply with §§ 205.20(a) through (f) may not be issued or sold to consumers on or after January 31, 2011.
1. Disclosures through third parties. Issuers may make the disclosures required by § 205.20(h)(2) through a third party, such as a retailer or merchant. For example, an issuer may have a merchant install in-store signage with the disclosures required by § 205.20(h)(2) on the issuer’s behalf.
2. General advertising disclosures. Section 205.20(h)(2) does not impose an obligation on the issuer to advertise gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards.
1. Review of forms. The Board will not review or approve disclosure forms or statements for financial institutions. However, the Board has issued model clauses for institutions to use in designing their disclosures. If an institution uses these clauses accurately to reflect its service, the institution is protected from liability for failure to make disclosures in proper form.
2. Use of forms. The appendix contains model disclosure clauses for optional use by financial institutions to facilitate compliance with the disclosure requirements of sections 205.5(b)(2) and (b)(3), 205.6(a), 205.7, 205.8(b), 205.14(b)(1)(ii), 205.15(d)(1) and (d)(2), and 205.18(c)(1) and (c)(2). The use of appropriate clauses in making disclosures will protect a financial institution from liability under sections 915 and 916 of the act provided the clauses accurately reflect the institution’s EFT services.
3. Altering the clauses. Financial institutions may use clauses of their own design in conjunction with the Board’s model clauses. The inapplicable words or portions of phrases in parentheses should be deleted. The catchlines are not part of the clauses and need not be used. Financial institutions may make alterations, substitutions, or additions in the clauses to reflect the services offered, such as technical changes (including the substitution of a trade name for the word “card,” deletion of inapplicable services, or substitution of lesser liability limits). Several of the model clauses include references to a telephone number and address. Where two or more of these clauses are used in a disclosure, the telephone number and address may be referenced and need not be repeated.
PART 206 – LIMITATIONS ON INTERBANK LIABILITIES (REGULATION F)
§ 206.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority and purpose. This part (Regulation F, 12 CFR part 206) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under authority of section 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371b-2). The purpose of this part is to limit the risks that the failure of a depository institution would pose to insured depository institutions.
(b) Scope. This part applies to all depository institutions insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
§ 206.2 Definitions.
As used in this part, unless the context requires otherwise:
(a) Bank means an insured depository institution, as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813), and includes an insured national bank, state bank, District bank, or savings association, and an insured branch of a foreign bank.
(b) Commonly-controlled correspondent means a correspondent that is commonly controlled with the bank and for which the bank is subject to liability under section 5(e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. A correspondent is considered to be commonly controlled with the bank if:
(1) 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the bank and the correspondent are owned, directly or indirectly, by the same depository institution or company; or
(2) Either the bank or the correspondent owns 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other.
(c) Correspondent means a U.S. depository institution or a foreign bank, as defined in this part, to which a bank has exposure, but does not include a commonly controlled correspondent.
(d) Exposure means the potential that an obligation will not be paid in a timely manner or in full. “Exposure” includes credit and liquidity risks, including operational risks, related to intraday and interday transactions.
(e) Foreign bank means an institution that: (1) Is organized under the laws of a country other than the United States;
(2) Engages in the business of banking;
(3) Is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authorities of the country of the bank’s organization;
(4) Receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of business; and
(5) Has the power to accept demand deposits.
(f) Primary federal supervisor has the same meaning as the term “appropriate Federal banking agency” in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
(g) Total capital means the total of a bank’s Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital under the risk-based capital guidelines provided by the bank’s primary federal supervisor. For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), total capital means the bank’s Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter). For an insured branch of a foreign bank organized under the laws of a country that subscribes to the principles of the Basel Capital Accord, “total capital” means total Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital as calculated under the standards of that country. For an insured branch of a foreign bank organized under the laws of a country that does not subscribe to the principles of the Basel Capital Accord (Accord), “total capital” means total Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital as calculated under the provisions of the Accord.
(h) U.S. depository institution means a bank, as defined in § 206.2(a) of this part, other than an insured branch of a foreign bank.
§ 206.3 Prudential standards.
(a) General. A bank shall establish and maintain written policies and procedures to prevent excessive exposure to any individual correspondent in relation to the condition of the correspondent.
(b) Standards for selecting correspondents. (1) A bank shall establish policies and procedures that take into account credit and liquidity risks, including operational risks, in selecting correspondents and terminating those relationships.
(2) Where exposure to a correspondent is significant, the policies and procedures shall require periodic reviews of the financial condition of the correspondent and shall take into account any deterioration in the correspondent’s financial condition. Factors bearing on the financial condition of the correspondent include the capital level of the correspondent, level of nonaccrual and past due loans and leases, level of earnings, and other factors affecting the financial condition of the correspondent. Where public information on the financial condition of the correspondent is available, a bank may base its review of the financial condition of a correspondent on such information, and is not required to obtain non-public information for its review. However, for those foreign banks for which there is no public source of financial information, a bank will be required to obtain information for its review.
(3) A bank may rely on another party, such as a bank rating agency or the bank’s holding company, to assess the financial condition of or select a correspondent, provided that the bank’s board of directors has reviewed and approved the general assessment or selection criteria used by that party.
(c) Internal limits on exposure. (1) Where the financial condition of the correspondent and the form or maturity of the exposure create a significant risk that payments will not be made in full or in a timely manner, a bank’s policies and procedures shall limit the bank’s exposure to the correspondent, either by the establishment of internal limits or by other means. Limits shall be consistent with the risk undertaken, considering the financial condition and the form and maturity of exposure to the correspondent. Limits may be fixed as to amount or flexible, based on such factors as the monitoring of exposure and the financial condition of the correspondent. Different limits may be set for different forms of exposure, different products, and different maturities.
(2) A bank shall structure transactions with a correspondent or monitor exposure to a correspondent, directly or through another party, to ensure that its exposure ordinarily does not exceed the bank’s internal limits, including limits established for credit exposure, except for occasional excesses resulting from unusual market disturbances, market movements favorable to the bank, increases in activity, operational problems, or other unusual circumstances. Generally, monitoring may be done on a retrospective basis. The level of monitoring required depends on:
(i) The extent to which exposure approaches the bank’s internal limits;
(ii) The volatility of the exposure; and
(iii) The financial condition of the correspondent.
(3) A bank shall establish appropriate procedures to address excesses over its internal limits.
(d) Review by board of directors. The policies and procedures established under this section shall be reviewed and approved by the bank’s board of directors at least annually.
§ 206.4 Credit exposure.
(a) Limits on credit exposure. (1) The policies and procedures on exposure established by a bank under § 206.3(c) of this part shall limit a bank’s interday credit exposure to an individual correspondent to not more than 25 percent of the bank’s total capital, unless the bank can demonstrate that its correspondent is at least adequately capitalized, as defined in § 206.5(a) of this part.
(2) Where a bank is no longer able to demonstrate that a correspondent is at least adequately capitalized for the purposes of § 206.4(a) of this part, including where the bank cannot obtain adequate information concerning the capital ratios of the correspondent, the bank shall reduce its credit exposure to comply with the requirements of § 206.4(a)(1) of this part within 120 days after the date when the current Report of Condition and Income or other relevant report normally would be available.
(b) Calculation of credit exposure. Except as provided in §§ 206.4 (c) and (d) of this part, the credit exposure of a bank to a correspondent shall consist of the bank’s assets and off-balance sheet items that are subject to capital requirements under the capital adequacy guidelines of the bank’s primary federal supervisor, and that involve claims on the correspondent or capital instruments issued by the correspondent. For this purpose, off-balance sheet items shall be valued on the basis of current exposure. The term “credit exposure” does not include exposure related to the settlement of transactions, intraday exposure, transactions in an agency or similar capacity where losses will be passed back to the principal or other party, or other sources of exposure that are not covered by the capital adequacy guidelines.
(c) Netting. Transactions covered by netting agreements that are valid and enforceable under all applicable laws may be netted in calculating credit exposure.
(d) Exclusions. A bank may exclude the following from the calculation of credit exposure to a correspondent:
(1) Transactions, including reverse repurchase agreements, to the extent that the transactions are secured by government securities or readily marketable collateral, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, based on the current market value of the collateral;
(2) The proceeds of checks and other cash items deposited in an account at a correspondent that are not yet available for withdrawal;
(3) Quality assets, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, on which the correspondent is secondarily liable, or obligations of the correspondent on which a creditworthy obligor in addition to the correspondent is available, including but not limited to:
(i) Loans to third parties secured by stock or debt obligations of the correspondent;
(ii) Loans to third parties purchased from the correspondent with recourse;
(iii) Loans or obligations of third parties backed by stand-by letters of credit issued by the correspondent; or
(iv) Obligations of the correspondent backed by stand-by letters of credit issued by a creditworthy third party;
(4) exposure that results from the merger with or acquisition of another bank for one year after that merger or acquisition is consummated; and
(5) The portion of the bank’s exposure to the correspondent that is covered by federal deposit insurance.
(e) Credit exposure of subsidiaries. In calculating credit exposure to a correspondent under this part, a bank shall include credit exposure to the correspondent of any entity that the bank is required to consolidate on its Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report.
(f) Definitions. As used in this section:
(1) Government securities means obligations of, or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States government or any department, agency, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States, or any corporation wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by the United States.
(2) Readily marketable collateral means financial instruments or bullion that may be sold in ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions on an auction or a similarly available daily bid- ask-price market.
(3)(i) Quality asset means an asset:
(A) That is not in a nonaccrual status;
(B) On which principal or interest is not more than thirty days past due; and
(C) Whose terms have not been renegotiated or compromised due to the deteriorating financial conditions of the additional obligor.
(ii) An asset is not considered a “quality asset” if any other loans to the primary obligor on the asset have been classified as “substandard,” “doubtful,” or “loss,” or treated as “other loans specially mentioned” in the most recent report of examination or inspection of the bank or an affiliate prepared by either a federal or a state supervisory agency.
§ 206.5 Capital levels of correspondents.
(a) Adequately capitalized correspondents.
(1) A total risk-based capital ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, of 8.0 percent or greater;
(2) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, of 4.0 percent or greater; and
(3) A leverage ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, of 4.0 percent or greater.
(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) is considered to have met the minimum capital requirements in this paragraph (a).
(b) Frequency of monitoring capital levels. A bank shall obtain information to demonstrate that a correspondent is at least adequately capitalized on a quarterly basis, either from the most recently available Report of Condition and Income, Thrift Financial Report, financial statement, or bank rating report for the correspondent. For a foreign bank correspondent for which quarterly financial statements or reports are not available, a bank shall obtain such information on as frequent a basis as such information is available. Information obtained directly from a correspondent for the purpose of this section should be based on the most recently available Report of Condition and Income, Thrift Financial Report, or financial statement of the correspondent.
(c) Foreign banks. A correspondent that is a foreign bank may be considered adequately capitalized under this section without regard to the minimum leverage ratio required under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(d) Reliance on information. A bank may rely on information as to the capital levels of a correspondent obtained from the correspondent, a bank rating agency, or other party that it reasonably believes to be accurate.
(e) Definitions. For the purposes of this section:
(1) Total risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of qualifying total capital to weighted risk assets.
(2) Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to weighted risk assets.
(3) Leverage ratio means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to average total consolidated assets, as calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the correspondent’s primary federal supervisor.
(f) Calculation of capital ratios. (1) For a correspondent that is a U.S. depository institution, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the correspondent’s primary federal supervisor.
(2) For a correspondent that is a foreign bank organized in a country that has adopted the risk-based framework of the Basel Capital Accord, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the appropriate supervisory authority of the country in which the correspondent is chartered.
(3) For a correspondent that is a foreign bank organized in a country that has not adopted the risk-based framework of the Basel Capital Accord, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Basel Capital Accord.
§ 206.6 Waiver.
The Board may waive the application of § 206.4(a) of this part to a bank if the primary Federal supervisor of the bank advises the Board that the bank is not reasonably able to obtain necessary services, including payment-related services and placement of funds, without incurring exposure to a correspondent in excess of the otherwise applicable limit.
PART 207 – DISCLOSURE AND REPORTING OF CRA-RELATED AGREEMENTS (REGULATION G)
§ 207.1 Purpose and scope of this part.
(a) General. This part implements section 711 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y). That section requires any nongovernmental entity or person, insured depository institution, or affiliate of an insured depository institution that enters into a covered agreement to –
(1) Make the covered agreement available to the public and the appropriate Federal banking agency; and
(2) File an annual report with the appropriate Federal banking agency concerning the covered agreement.
(b) Scope of this part. The provisions of this part apply to –
(1) State member banks and their subsidiaries;
(2) Bank holding companies;
(3) Savings and loan holding companies;
(4) Affiliates of bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, other than banks, savings associations and subsidiaries of banks and savings associations; and
(5) Nongovernmental entities or persons that enter into covered agreements with any company listed in paragraph (b)(1) through (4) of this section.
(c) Relation to Community Reinvestment Act. This part does not affect in any way the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.), the Board’s Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228), or the Board’s interpretations or administration of that Act or regulation.
(d) Examples. (1) The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part.
(2) Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise in this part.
§ 207.2 Definition of covered agreement.
(a) General definition of covered agreement. A covered agreement is any contract, arrangement, or understanding that meets all of the following criteria –
(1) The agreement is in writing.
(2) The parties to the agreement include –
(i) One or more insured depository institutions or affiliates of an insured depository institution; and
(ii) One or more nongovernmental entities or persons (referred to hereafter as NGEPs).
(3) The agreement provides for the insured depository institution or any affiliate to –
(i) Provide to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) cash payments, grants, or other consideration (except loans) that have an aggregate value of more than $10,000 in any calendar year; or
(ii) Make to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) loans that have an aggregate principal amount of more than $50,000 in any calendar year.
(4) The agreement is made pursuant to, or in connection with, the fulfillment of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.) (CRA), as defined in § 207.4.
(5) The agreement is with a NGEP that has had a CRA communication as described in § 207.3 prior to entering into the agreement.
(b) Examples concerning written arrangements or understandings – (1) Example 1. A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more community development investments in the NGEP’s community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not reach an agreement concerning the community development investments the institution should make in the community, and the parties do not reach any mutual arrangement or understanding. Two weeks later, the institution unilaterally issues a press release announcing that it has established a general goal of making $100 million of community development grants in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods served by the insured depository institution over the next 5 years. The NGEP is not identified in the press release. The press release is not a written arrangement or understanding.
(2) Example 2. A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to offer new loan programs in the NGEP’s community. The NGEP and the insured depository institution reach a mutual arrangement or understanding that the institution will provide additional loans in the NGEP’s community. The institution tells the NGEP that it will issue a press release announcing the program. Later, the insured depository institution issues a press release announcing the loan program. The press release incorporates the key terms of the understanding reached between the NGEP and the insured depository institution. The written press release reflects the mutual arrangement or understanding of the NGEP and the insured depository institution and is, therefore, a written arrangement or understanding.
(3) Example 3. An NGEP sends a letter to an insured depository institution requesting that the institution provide a $15,000 grant to the NGEP. The insured depository institution responds in writing and agrees to provide the grant in connection with its annual grant program. The exchange of letters constitutes a written arrangement or understanding.
(c) Loan agreements that are not covered agreements. A covered agreement does not include –
(1) Any individual loan that is secured by real estate; or
(2) Any specific contract or commitment for a loan or extension of credit to an individual, business, farm, or other entity, or group of such individuals or entities, if –
(i) The funds are loaned at rates that are not substantially below market rates; and
(ii) The loan application or other loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to use the borrowed funds to make a loan or extension of credit to one or more third parties.
(d) Examples concerning loan agreements – (1) Example 1. An insured depository institution provides an organization with a $1 million loan that is documented in writing and is secured by real estate owned or to-be-acquired by the organization. The agreement is an individual mortgage loan and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, regardless of the interest rate on the loan or whether the organization intends or is authorized to re-loan the funds to a third party.
(2) Example 2. An insured depository institution commits to provide a $500,000 line of credit to a small business that is documented by a written agreement. The loan is made at rates that are within the range of rates offered by the institution to similarly situated small businesses in the market and the loan documentation does not indicate that the small business intends or is authorized to re-lend the borrowed funds. The agreement is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(3) Example 3. An insured depository institution offers small business loans that are guaranteed by the Small Business Administration (SBA). A small business obtains a $75,000 loan, documented in writing, from the institution under the institution’s SBA loan program. The loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to re-lend the funds. Although the rate charged on the loan is well below that charged by the institution on commercial loans, the rate is within the range of rates that the institution would charge a similarly situated small business for a similar loan under the SBA loan program. Accordingly, the loan is not made at substantially below market rates and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(4) Example 4. A bank holding company enters into a written agreement with a community development organization that provides that insured depository institutions owned by the bank holding company will make $250 million in small business loans in the community over the next 5 years. The written agreement is not a specific contract or commitment for a loan or an extension of credit and, thus, is not exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Each small business loan made by the insured depository institution pursuant to this general commitment would, however, be exempt from coverage if the loan is made at rates that are not substantially below market rates and the loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intended or was authorized to re-lend the funds.
(e) Agreements that include exempt loan agreements. If an agreement includes a loan, extension of credit or loan commitment that, if documented separately, would be exempt under paragraph (c) of this section, the exempt loan, extension of credit or loan commitment may be excluded for purposes of determining whether the agreement is a covered agreement.
(f) Determining annual value of agreements that lack schedule of disbursements. For purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a multi-year agreement that does not include a schedule for the disbursement of payments, grants, loans or other consideration by the insured depository institution or affiliate, is considered to have a value in the first year of the agreement equal to all payments, grants, loans and other consideration to be provided at any time under the agreement.
§ 207.3 CRA communications.
(a) Definition of CRA communication. A CRA communication is any of the following –
(1) Any written or oral comment or testimony provided to a Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate.
(2) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that discusses the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the institution and must be included in the institution’s CRA public file.
(3) Any discussion or other contact with the insured depository institution or any affiliate about –
(i) Providing (or refraining from providing) written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate;
(ii) Providing (or refraining from providing) written comments to the insured depository institution that concern the adequacy of the institution’s performance under the CRA and must be included in the institution’s CRA public file; or
(iii) The adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate.
(b) Discussions or contacts that are not CRA communications – (1) Timing of contacts with a Federal banking agency. An oral or written communication with a Federal banking agency is not a CRA communication if it occurred more than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement.
(2) Timing of contacts with insured depository institutions and affiliates. A communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate is not a CRA communication if the communication occurred –
(i) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any written communication;
(ii) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any oral communication in which the NGEP discusses providing (or refraining from providing) comments or testimony to a Federal banking agency or written comments that must be included in the institution’s CRA public file in connection with a request to, or agreement by, the institution or affiliate to take (or refrain from taking) any action that is in fulfillment of the CRA; or
(iii) More than 1 year before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any other oral communication not described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
(3) Knowledge of communication by insured depository institution or affiliate. (i) A communication is only a CRA communication under paragraph (a) of this section if the insured depository institution or its affiliate has knowledge of the communication under this paragraph (b)(3)(ii) or (b)(3)(iii) of this section.
(ii) Communication with insured depository institution or affiliate. An insured depository institution or affiliate has knowledge of a communication by the NGEP to the institution or its affiliate under this paragraph only if one of the following representatives of the insured depository institution or any affiliate has knowledge of the communication.
(A) An employee who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the NGEP; or
(B) An employee designated with responsibility for compliance with the CRA or executive officer if the employee or executive officer knows that the institution or affiliate is negotiating, intends to negotiate, or has been informed by the NGEP that it expects to request that the institution or affiliate negotiate an agreement with the NGEP.
(iii) Other communications. An insured depository institution or affiliate is deemed to have knowledge of –
(A) Any testimony provided to a Federal banking agency at a public meeting or hearing;
(B) Any comment submitted to a Federal banking agency that is conveyed in writing by the agency to the insured depository institution or affiliate; and
(C) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that must be and is included in the institution’s CRA public file.
(4) Communication where NGEP has knowledge. A NGEP has a CRA communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate only if any of the following individuals has knowledge of the communication –
(i) A director, employee, or member of the NGEP who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate;
(ii) A person who functions as an executive officer of the NGEP and who knows that the NGEP is negotiating or intends to negotiate an agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate; or
(iii) Where the NGEP is an individual, the NGEP.
(c) Examples of CRA communications – (1) Examples of actions that are CRA communications. The following are examples of CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive and assume that the communication occurs within the relevant time period as described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section and the appropriate representatives have knowledge of the communication as specified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section.
(i) Example 1. A NGEP files a written comment with a Federal banking agency that states than an insured depository institution successfully addresses the credit needs of its community. The written comment is in response to a general request from the agency for comments on an application of the insured depository institution to open a new branch and a copy of the comment is provided to the institution.
(ii) Example 2. A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution must improve its CRA performance.
(iii) Example 3. A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more mortgage loans in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods in its community.
(iv) Example 4. A bank holding company files an application with a Federal banking agency to acquire an insured depository institution. Two weeks later, the NGEP meets with an executive officer of the bank holding company to discuss the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the target insured depository institution. The insured depository institution was an affiliate of the bank holding company at the time the NGEP met with the target institution. (See § 207.11(a).) Accordingly, the NGEP had a CRA communication with an affiliate of the bank holding company.
(2) Examples of actions that are not CRA communications. The following are examples of actions that are not by themselves CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive.
(i) Example 1. A NGEP provides to a Federal banking agency comments or testimony concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate in response to a direct request by the agency for comments or testimony from that NGEP. Direct requests for comments or testimony do not include a general invitation by a Federal banking agency for comments or testimony from the public in connection with a CRA performance evaluation of, or application for a deposit facility (as defined in section 803 of the CRA (12 U.S.C. 2902(3)) by, an insured depository institution or an application by a company to acquire an insured depository institution.
(ii) Example 2. A NGEP makes a statement concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate at a widely attended conference or seminar regarding a general topic. A public or private meeting, public hearing, or other meeting regarding one or more specific institutions, affiliates or transactions involving an application for a deposit facility is not considered a widely attended conference or seminar.
(iii) Example 3. A NGEP, such as a civil rights group, community group providing housing and other services in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, veterans organization, community theater group, or youth organization, sends a fundraising letter to insured depository institutions and to other businesses in its community. The letter encourages all businesses in the community to meet their obligation to assist in making the local community a better place to live and work by supporting the fundraising efforts of the NGEP.
(iv) Example 4. A NGEP discusses with an insured depository institution or affiliate whether particular loans, services, investments, community development activities, or other activities are generally eligible for consideration by a Federal banking agency under the CRA. The NGEP and insured depository institution or affiliate do not discuss the adequacy of the CRA performance of the insured depository institution or affiliate.
(v) Example 5. A NGEP engaged in the sale or purchase of loans in the secondary market sends a general offering circular to financial institutions offering to sell or purchase a portfolio of loans. An insured depository institution that receives the offering circular discusses with the NGEP the types of loans included in the loan pool, whether such loans are generally eligible for consideration under the CRA, and which loans are made to borrowers in the institution’s local community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not discuss the adequacy of the institution’s CRA performance.
(d) Multiparty covered agreements. (1) A NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple NGEPs is not required to comply with the requirements of this part if –
(i) The NGEP has not had a CRA communication; and
(ii) No representative of the NGEP identified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that another NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication.
(2) An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple insured depository institutions or affiliates is not required to comply with the disclosure and annual reporting requirements in §§ 207.6 and 207.7 if –
(i) No NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning the insured depository institution or any affiliate; and
(ii) No representative of the insured depository institution or any affiliate identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that an NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning any other insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement.
§ 207.4 Fulfillment of the CRA.
(a) List of factors that are in fulfillment of the CRA. Fulfillment of the CRA, for purposes of this part, means the following list of factors –
(1) Comments to a Federal banking agency or included in CRA public file. Providing or refraining from providing written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the performance under the CRA of an insured depository institution or CRA affiliate that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement or written comments that are required to be included in the CRA public file of any such insured depository institution; or
(2) Activities given favorable CRA consideration. Performing any of the following activities if the activity is of the type that is likely to receive favorable consideration by a Federal banking agency in evaluating the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement –
(i) Home-purchase, home-improvement, small business, small farm, community development, and consumer lending, as described in § 228.22 of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.22), including loan purchases, loan commitments, and letters of credit;
(ii) Making investments, deposits, or grants, or acquiring membership shares, that have as their primary purpose community development, as described in § 228.23 of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.23);
(iii) Delivering retail banking services, as described in § 228.24(d) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.24(d));
(iv) Providing community development services, as described in § 228.24(e) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.24(e));
(v) In the case of a wholesale or limited-purpose insured depository institution, community development lending, including originating and purchasing loans and making loan commitments and letters of credit, making qualified investments, or providing community development services, as described in § 228.25(c) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.25(c));
(vi) In the case of a small insured depository institution, any lending or other activity described in § 228.26(a) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.26(a)); or
(vii) In the case of an insured depository institution that is evaluated on the basis of a strategic plan, any element of the strategic plan, as described in § 228.27(f) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.27(f)).
(b) Agreements relating to activities of CRA affiliates. An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that concerns any activity described in paragraph (a) of this section of a CRA affiliate must, prior to the time the agreement is entered into, notify each NGEP that is a party to the agreement that the agreement concerns a CRA affiliate.
§ 207.5 Related agreements considered a single agreement.
The following rules must be applied in determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 207.2.
(a) Agreements entered into by same parties. All written agreements to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement if the agreements –
(1) Are entered into with the same NGEP;
(2) Were entered into within the same 12-month period; and
(3) Are each in fulfillment of the CRA.
(b) Substantively related contracts. All written contracts to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement, without regard to whether the other parties to the contracts are the same or whether each such contract is in fulfillment of the CRA, if the contracts were negotiated in a coordinated fashion and a NGEP is a party to each contract.
§ 207.6 Disclosure of covered agreements.
(a) Applicability date. This section applies only to covered agreements entered into after November 12, 1999.
(b) Disclosure of covered agreements to the public – (1) Disclosure required. Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that enters into a covered agreement must promptly make a copy of the covered agreement available to any individual or entity upon request.
(2) Nondisclosure of confidential and proprietary information permitted. In responding to a request for a covered agreement from any individual or entity under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate may withhold from public disclosure confidential or proprietary information that the party believes the relevant supervisory agency could withhold from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 et seq.) (FOIA).
(3) Information that must be disclosed. Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a party must disclose any of the following information that is contained in a covered agreement –
(i) The names and addresses of the parties to the agreement;
(ii) The amount of any payments, fees, loans, or other consideration to be made or provided by any party to the agreement;
(iii) Any description of how the funds or other resources provided under the agreement are to be used;
(iv) The term of the agreement (if the agreement establishes a term); and
(v) Any other information that the relevant supervisory agency determines is not properly exempt from public disclosure.
(4) Request for review of withheld information. Any individual or entity may request that the relevant supervisory agency review whether any information in a covered agreement withheld by a party must be disclosed. Any requests for agency review of withheld information must be filed, and will be processed in accordance with, the relevant supervisory agency’s rules concerning the availability of information (see § 261.12 of the Board’s Rules Regarding the Availability of Information (12 CFR 261.12)).
(5) Duration of obligation. The obligation to disclose a covered agreement to the public terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the agreement.
(6) Reasonable copy and mailing fees. Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate may charge an individual or entity that requests a copy of a covered agreement a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing the agreement.
(7) Use of CRA public file by insured depository institution or affiliate. An insured depository institution and any affiliate of an insured depository institution may fulfill its obligation under this paragraph (b) by placing a copy of the covered agreement in the insured depository institution’s CRA public file if the institution makes the agreement available in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 228.43 of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.43).
(c) Disclosure by NGEPs of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency. (1) Each NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement must provide the following within 30 days of receiving a request from the relevant supervisory agency –
(i) A complete copy of the agreement; and
(ii) In the event the NGEP proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information and an explanation justifying the exclusions. Any public version must include the information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
(2) The obligation of a NGEP to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the covered agreement.
(d) Disclosure by insured depository institution or affiliate of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency – (1) In general. Within 60 days of the end of each calendar quarter, each insured depository institution and affiliate must provide each relevant supervisory agency with –
(i)(A) A complete copy of each covered agreement entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter; and
(B) In the event the institution or affiliate proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information (other than any information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section) and an explanation justifying the exclusions; or
(ii) A list of all covered agreements entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter that contains –
(A) The name and address of each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement;
(B) The name and address of each NGEP that is a party to the agreement;
(C) The date the agreement was entered into;
(D) The estimated total value of all payments, fees, loans and other consideration to be provided by the institution or any affiliate of the institution under the agreement; and
(E) The date the agreement terminates.
(2) Prompt filing of covered agreements contained in list required. (i) If an insured depository institution or affiliate files a list of the covered agreements entered into by the institution or affiliate pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the institution or affiliate must provide any relevant supervisory agency a complete copy and public version of any covered agreement referenced in the list within 7 calendar days of receiving a request from the agency for a copy of the agreement.
(ii) The obligation of an insured depository institution or affiliate to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency under this paragraph (d)(2) terminates 36 months after the end of the term of the agreement.
(3) Joint filings. In the event that 2 or more insured depository institutions or affiliates are parties to a covered agreement, the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) may jointly file the documents required by this paragraph (d). Any joint filing must identify the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) for whom the filings are being made.
§ 207.7 Annual reports.
(a) Applicability date. This section applies only to covered agreements entered into on or after May 12, 2000.
(b) Annual report required. Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement must file an annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning the disbursement, receipt, and uses of funds or other resources under the covered agreement.
(c) Duration of reporting requirement – (1) NGEPs. A NGEP must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the NGEP receives or uses funds or other resources under the agreement.
(2) Insured depository institutions and affiliates. An insured depository institution or affiliate must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the institution or affiliate –
(i) provides or receives any payments, fees, or loans under the covered agreement that must be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section; or
(ii) has data to report on loans, investments, and services provided by a party to the covered agreement under the covered agreement under paragraph (e)(1)(vi) of this section.
(d) Annual reports filed by NGEP – (1) Contents of report. The annual report filed by a NGEP under this section must include the following –
(i) The name and mailing address of the NGEP filing the report;
(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement;
(iii) The amount of funds or resources received under the covered agreement during the fiscal year; and
(iv) A detailed, itemized list of how any funds or resources received by the NGEP under the covered agreement were used during the fiscal year, including the total amount used for –
(A) Compensation of officers, directors, and employees;
(B) Administrative expenses;
(C) Travel expenses;
(D) Entertainment expenses;
(E) Payment of consulting and professional fees; and
(F) Other expenses and uses (specify expense or use).
(2) More detailed reporting of uses of funds or resources permitted – (i) In general. If a NGEP allocated and used funds received under a covered agreement for a specific purpose, the NGEP may fulfill the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section with respect to such funds by providing –
(A) A brief description of each specific purpose for which the funds or other resources were used; and
(B) The amount of funds or resources used during the fiscal year for each specific purpose.
(ii) Specific purpose defined. A NGEP allocates and uses funds for a specific purpose if the NGEP receives and uses the funds for a purpose that is more specific and limited than the categories listed in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
(3) Use of other reports. The annual report filed by a NGEP may consist of or incorporate a report prepared for any other purpose, such as the Internal Revenue Service Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax on Form 990, or any other Internal Revenue Service form, state tax form, report to members or shareholders, audited or unaudited financial statements, audit report, or other report, so long as the annual report filed by the NGEP contains all of the information required by this paragraph (d).
(4) Consolidated reports permitted. A NGEP that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file with each relevant supervisory agency a single consolidated annual report covering all the covered agreements. Any consolidated report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (d). The information reported under paragraphs (d)(1)(iv) and (d)(2) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements.
(5) Examples of annual report requirements for NGEPs – (i) Example 1. A NGEP receives an unrestricted grant of $15,000 under a covered agreement, includes the funds in its general operating budget and uses the funds during its fiscal year. The NGEP’s annual report for the fiscal year must provide the name and mailing address of the NGEP, information sufficient to identify the covered agreement, and state that the NGEP received $15,000 during the fiscal year. The report must also indicate the total expenditures made by the NGEP during the fiscal year for compensation, administrative expenses, travel expenses, entertainment expenses, consulting and professional fees, and other expenses and uses. The NGEP’s annual report may provide this information by submitting an Internal Revenue Service Form 990 that includes the required information. If the Internal Revenue Service Form does not include information for all of the required categories listed in this part, the NGEP must report the total expenditures in the remaining categories either by providing that information directly or by providing another form or report that includes the required information.
(ii) Example 2. An organization receives $15,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement and allocates and uses the $15,000 during the fiscal year to purchase computer equipment to support its functions. The organization’s annual report must include the name and address of the organization, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the organization received $15,000 during the year. In addition, since the organization allocated and used the funds for a specific purpose that is more narrow and limited than the categories of expenses included in the detailed, itemized list of expenses, the organization would have the option of providing either the total amount it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section, or a statement that it used the $15,000 to purchase computer equipment and a brief description of the equipment purchased.
(iii) Example 3. A community group receives $50,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement. During its fiscal year, the community group specifically allocates and uses $5,000 of the funds to pay for a particular business trip and uses the remaining $45,000 for general operating expenses. The group’s annual report for the fiscal year must include the name and address of the group, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the group received $50,000. Because the group did not allocate and use all of the funds for a specific purpose, the group’s annual report must provide the total amount of funds it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. The group’s annual report also could state that it used $5,000 for a particular business trip and include a brief description of the trip.
(iv) Example 4. A community development organization is a party to two separate covered agreements with two unaffiliated insured depository institutions. Under each agreement, the organization receives $15,000 during its fiscal year and uses the funds to support its activities during that year. If the organization elects to file a consolidated annual report, the consolidated report must identify the organization and the two covered agreements, state that the organization received $15,000 during the fiscal year under each agreement, and provide the total amount that the organization used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
(e) Annual report filed by insured depository institution or affiliate – (1) General. The annual report filed by an insured depository institution or affiliate must include the following –
(i) The name and principal place of business of the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report;
(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement;
(iii) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans provided by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement to any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year;
(iv) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans received by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement from any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year;
(v) A general description of the terms and conditions of any payments, fees, or loans reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, or, in the event such terms and conditions are set forth –
(A) In the covered agreement, a statement identifying the covered agreement and the date the agreement (or a list identifying the agreement) was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; or
(B) In a previous annual report filed by the insured depository institution or affiliate, a statement identifying the date the report was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; and
(vi) The aggregate amount and number of loans, aggregate amount and number of investments, and aggregate amount of services provided under the covered agreement to any individual or entity not a party to the agreement –
(A) By the insured depository institution or affiliate during its fiscal year; and
(B) By any other party to the agreement, unless such information is not known to the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report or such information is or will be contained in the annual report filed by another party under this section.
(2) Consolidated reports permitted – (i) Party to multiple agreements. An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file a single consolidated annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning all the covered agreements.
(ii) Affiliated entities party to the same agreement. An insured depository institution and its affiliates that are parties to the same covered agreement may file a single consolidated annual report relating to the agreement with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement.
(iii) Content of report. Any consolidated annual report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (e). The amounts and data required to be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iv) and (vi) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements.
(f) Time and place of filing – (1) General. Each party must file its annual report with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement no later than six months following the end of the fiscal year covered by the report.
(2) Alternative method of fulfilling annual reporting requirement for a NGEP. (i) A NGEP may fulfill the filing requirements of this section by providing the following materials to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement no later than six months following the end of the NGEP’s fiscal year –
(A) A copy of the NGEP’s annual report required under paragraph (d) of this section for the fiscal year; and
(B) Written instructions that the insured depository institution or affiliate promptly forward the annual report to the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP.
(ii) An insured depository institution or affiliate that receives an annual report from a NGEP pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section must file the report with the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP within 30 days.
§ 207.8 Release of information under FOIA.
The Board will make covered agreements and annual reports available to the public in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 et seq.) and the Board’s Rules Regarding the Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261). A party to a covered agreement may request confidential treatment of proprietary and confidential information in a covered agreement or an annual report under those procedures.
§ 207.9 Compliance provisions.
(a) Willful failure to comply with disclosure and reporting obligations. (1) If the Board determines that a NGEP has willfully failed to comply in a material way with §§ 207.6 or 207.7, the Board will notify the NGEP in writing of that determination and provide the NGEP a period of 90 days (or such longer period as the Board finds to be reasonable under the circumstances) to comply.
(2) If the NGEP does not comply within the time period established by the Board, the agreement shall thereafter be unenforceable by that NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y).
(3) The Board may assist any insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that is unenforceable by a NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y) in identifying a successor to assume the NGEP’s responsibilities under the agreement.
(b) Diversion of funds. If a court or other body of competent jurisdiction determines that funds or resources received under a covered agreement have been diverted contrary to the purposes of the covered agreement for an individual’s personal financial gain, the Board may take either or both of the following actions –
(1) Order the individual to disgorge the diverted funds or resources received under the agreement;
(2) Prohibit the individual from being a party to any covered agreement for a period not to exceed 10 years.
(c) Notice and opportunity to respond. Before making a determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or taking any action under paragraph (b) of this section, the Board will provide written notice and an opportunity to present information to the Board concerning any relevant facts or circumstances relating to the matter.
(d) Inadvertent or de minimis errors. Inadvertent or de minimis errors in annual reports or other documents filed with the Board under § 207.6 or § 207.7 will not subject the reporting party to any penalty.
(e) Enforcement of provisions in covered agreements. No provision of this part shall be construed as authorizing the Board to enforce the provisions of any covered agreement.
§ 207.10 Transition provisions.
(a) Disclosure of covered agreements entered into before the effective date of this part. The following disclosure requirements apply to covered agreements that were entered into after November 12, 1999, and that terminated before April 1, 2001.
(1) Disclosure to the public. Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the public under § 207.6 until at least April 1, 2002.
(2) Disclosure to the relevant supervisory agency. (i) Each NGEP that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the relevant supervisory agency under § 207.6 until at least April 1, 2002.
(ii) Each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must, by June 30, 2001, provide each relevant supervisory agency either –
(A) A copy of the agreement under § 207.6(d)(1)(i); or
(B) The information described in § 207.6(d)(1)(ii) for each agreement.
(b) Filing of annual reports that relate to fiscal years ending on or before December 31, 2000. In the event that a NGEP, insured depository institution or affiliate has any information to report under § 207.7 for a fiscal year that ends on or before December 31, 2000, and that concerns a covered agreement entered into between May 12, 2000, and December 31, 2000, the annual report for that fiscal year must be provided no later than June 30, 2001, to –
(1) Each relevant supervisory agency; or
(2) In the case of a NGEP, to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement in accordance with § 207.7(f)(2).
§ 207.11 Other definitions and rules of construction used in this part.
(a) Affiliate. “Affiliate” means –
(1) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company; and
(2) For the purpose of determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 207.2, an “affiliate” includes any company that would be under common control or merged with another company on consummation of any transaction pending before a Federal banking agency at the time –
(i) The parties enter into the agreement; and
(ii) The NGEP that is a party to the agreement makes a CRA communication, as described in § 207.3.
(b) Control. “Control” is defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)).
(c) CRA affiliate. A “CRA affiliate” of an insured depository institution is any company that is an affiliate of an insured depository institution to the extent, and only to the extent, that the activities of the affiliate were considered by the appropriate Federal banking agency when evaluating the CRA performance of the institution at its most recent CRA examination prior to the agreement. An insured depository institution or affiliate also may designate any company as a CRA affiliate at any time prior to the time a covered agreement is entered into by informing the NGEP that is a party to the agreement of such designation.
(d) CRA public file. “CRA public file” means the public file maintained by an insured depository institution and described in § 228.43 of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.43).
(e) Executive officer. The term “executive officer” has the same meaning as in § 215.2(e)(1) of the Board’s Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)).
(f) Federal banking agency; appropriate Federal banking agency. The terms “Federal banking agency” and “appropriate Federal banking agency” have the same meanings as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
(g) Fiscal year. (1) The fiscal year for a NGEP that does not have a fiscal year shall be the calendar year.
(2) Any NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate that has a fiscal year may elect to have the calendar year be its fiscal year for purposes of this part.
(h) Insured depository institution. “Insured depository institution” has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
(i) NGEP. “NGEP” means a nongovernmental entity or person.
(j) Nongovernmental entity or person – (1) General. A “nongovernmental entity or person” is any partnership, association, trust, joint venture, joint stock company, corporation, limited liability corporation, company, firm, society, other organization, or individual.
(2) Exclusions. A nongovernmental entity or person does not include –
(i) The United States government, a state government, a unit of local government (including a county, city, town, township, parish, village, or other general-purpose subdivision of a state) or an Indian tribe or tribal organization established under Federal, state or Indian tribal law (including the Department of Hawaiian Home Lands), or a department, agency, or instrumentality of any such entity;
(ii) A federally-chartered public corporation that receives Federal funds appropriated specifically for that corporation;
(iii) An insured depository institution or affiliate of an insured depository institution; or
(iv) An officer, director, employee, or representative (acting in his or her capacity as an officer, director, employee, or representative) of an entity listed in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(k) Party. The term “party” with respect to a covered agreement means each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that entered into the agreement.
(l) Relevant supervisory agency. The “relevant supervisory agency” for a covered agreement means the appropriate Federal banking agency for –
(1) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement;
(2) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) or CRA affiliate that makes payments or loans or provides services that are subject to the covered agreement; and
(3) Any company (other than an insured depository institution or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement.
(m) Term of agreement. An agreement that does not have a fixed termination date is considered to terminate on the last date on which any party to the agreement makes any payment or provides any loan or other resources under the agreement, unless the relevant supervisory agency for the agreement otherwise notifies each party in writing.
PART 208 – MEMBERSHIP OF STATE BANKING INSTITUTIONS IN THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (REGULATION H)
Subpart A – General Membership and Branching Requirements
§ 208.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. Subpart A of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, Subpart A) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under 12 U.S.C. 24, 36; sections 9, 11, 21, 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), 481-486, 601 and 611); sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1 and 1835a of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1, and 1835); and 12 U.S.C. 3906-3909.
(b) Purpose and scope of Part 208. The requirements of this part 208 govern State member banks and state banks applying for admission to membership in the Federal Reserve System (System) under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (Act), except for § 208.7, which also applies to certain foreign banks licensed by a State. This part 208 does not govern banks eligible for membership under section 2 or 19 of the Act.
(c) Purpose and scope of Subpart A. This Subpart A describes the eligibility requirements for membership of state-chartered banking institutions in the System, the general conditions imposed upon members, including capital and dividend requirements, as well as the requirements for establishing and maintaining branches.
§ 208.2 Definitions.
For the purposes of this part:
(a) Board of Directors means the governing board of any institution performing the usual functions of a board of directors.
(b) Board means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
(c) Branch. (1) Branch means any branch bank, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business that receives deposits, pays checks, or lends money. A branch may include a temporary, seasonal, or mobile facility that meets these criteria.
(2) Branch does not include:
(i) A loan origination facility where the proceeds of loans are not disbursed;
(ii) An office of an affiliated or unaffiliated institution that provides services to customers of the member bank on behalf of the member bank so long as the institution is not established or operated by the bank;
(iii) An automated teller machine;
(iv) A remote service unit;
(v) A facility to which the bank does not permit members of the public to have physical access for purposes of making deposits, paying checks, or borrowing money (such as an office established by the bank that receives deposits only through the mail); or
(vi) A facility that is located at the site of, or is an extension of, an approved main office or branch. The Board determines whether a facility is an extension of an existing main or branch office on a case-by-case basis.
(d) Capital stock and surplus means, unless otherwise provided in this part, or by statute:
(1) Tier 1 and tier 2 capital included in a member bank’s risk-based capital (as defined in § 217.2 of Regulation Q); and
(2) The balance of a member bank’s allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, not included in its tier 2 capital for calculation of risk-based capital, based on the bank’s most recent Report of Condition and Income filed under 12 U.S.C. 324.
(3) For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), capital stock and surplus means the bank’s Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) plus allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable.
(e) Eligible bank means a member bank that:
(1) Is well capitalized as defined in subpart D of this part;
(2) Has a composite Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (CAMELS) rating of 1 or 2;
(3) Has a Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) (12 U.S.C. 2906) rating of “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory;”
(4) Has a compliance rating of 1 or 2; and
(5) Has no major unresolved supervisory issues outstanding (as determined by the Board or appropriate Federal Reserve Bank in its discretion).
(f) State bank means any bank incorporated by special law of any State, or organized under the general laws of any State, or of the United States, including a Morris Plan bank, or other incorporated banking institution engaged in a similar business.
(g) State member bank or member bank means a state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
§ 208.3 Application and conditions for membership in the Federal Reserve System.
(a) Applications for membership and stock. (1) State banks applying for membership in the Federal Reserve System shall file with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank an application for membership in the Federal Reserve System and for stock in the Reserve Bank,
(2) Board approval. If an applying bank conforms to all the requirements of the Federal Reserve Act and this section, and is otherwise qualified for membership, the Board may approve its application subject to such conditions as the Board may prescribe.
(3) Effective date of membership. A State bank becomes a member of the Federal Reserve System on the date its Federal Reserve Bank stock is credited to its account (or its deposit is accepted, if it is a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock) in accordance with the Board’s Regulation I (12 CFR part 209).
(b) Factors considered in approving applications for membership. Factors given special consideration by the Board in passing upon an application are:
(1) Financial condition and management. The financial history and condition of the applying bank and the general character of its management.
(2) Capital. The adequacy of the bank’s capital in accordance with § 208.4, and its future earnings prospects.
(3) Convenience and needs. The convenience and needs of the community.
(4) Corporate powers. Whether the bank’s corporate powers are consistent with the purposes of the Federal Reserve Act.
(c) Expedited approval for eligible banks and bank holding companies – (1) Availability of expedited treatment. The expedited membership procedures described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section are available to:
(i) An eligible bank; and
(ii) A bank that cannot be determined to be an eligible bank because it has not received CAMELS compliance or CRA ratings from a bank regulatory authority, if it is controlled by a bank holding company that meets the criteria for expedited processing under § 225.14(c) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.14(c)).
(2) Expedited procedures. A completed membership application filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank will be deemed approved on the fifteenth day after receipt of the complete application by the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank, unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is approved prior to that date or the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is not eligible for expedited review for any reason, including, without limitation, that:
(i) The bank will offer banking services that are materially different from those currently offered by the bank, or by the affiliates of the proposed bank;
(ii) The bank or bank holding company does not meet the criteria under § 208.3(c)(1);
(iii) The application contains a material error or is otherwise deficient; or
(iv) The application raises significant supervisory, compliance, policy or legal issues that have not been resolved, or a timely substantive adverse comment is submitted. A comment will be considered substantive unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously considered, or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues.
(d) Conditions of membership – (1) Safety and soundness. Each member bank shall at all times conduct its business and exercise its powers with due regard to safety and soundness. Each member bank shall comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), set forth in appendix D-1 to this part, and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards prescribed pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805) and section 216 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681w), set forth in appendix D-2 to this part.
(2) General character of bank’s business. A member bank may not, without the permission of the Board, cause or permit any change in the general character of its business or in the scope of the corporate powers it exercises at the time of admission to membership.
(3) Compliance with conditions of membership. Each member bank shall comply at all times with this Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) and any other conditions of membership prescribed by the Board.
(e) Waivers – (1) Conditions of membership. A member bank may petition the Board to waive a condition of membership. The Board may grant a waiver of a condition of membership upon a showing of good cause and, in its discretion, may limit, among other items, the scope, duration, and timing of the waiver.
(2) Reports of affiliates. Pursuant to section 21 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 486), the Board waives the requirement for the submission of reports of affiliates of member banks, unless such reports are specifically requested by the Board.
(f) Voluntary withdrawal from membership. Voluntary withdrawal from membership becomes effective upon cancellation of the Federal Reserve Bank stock held by the member bank, and after the bank has made due provision to pay any indebtedness due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank in accordance with the Board’s Regulation I (12 CFR part 209).
§ 208.4 Capital adequacy.
(a) Adequacy. A member bank’s capital, calculated in accordance with part 217, shall be at all times adequate in relation to the character and condition liabilities and other corporate responsibilities. If at any time, in light of all the circumstances, the bank’s capital appears inadequate in relation to its assets, liabilities, and responsibilities, the bank shall increase the amount of its capital, within such period as the Board deems reasonable, to an amount which, in the judgment of the Board, shall be adequate.
(b) Standards for evaluating capital adequacy. Standards and measures, by which the Board evaluates the capital adequacy of member banks for risk-based capital purposes and for leverage measurement purposes, are located in part 217 of this chapter.
§ 208.5 Dividends and other distributions.
(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this section:
(1) Capital surplus means the total of surplus as reportable in the bank’s Reports of Condition and Income and surplus on perpetual preferred stock.
(2) Permanent capital means the total of the bank’s perpetual preferred stock and related surplus, common stock and surplus, and minority interest in consolidated subsidiaries, as reportable in the Reports of Condition and Income.
(b) Limitations. The limitations in this section on the payment of dividends and withdrawal of capital apply to all cash and property dividends or distributions on common or preferred stock. The limitations do not apply to dividends paid in the form of common stock.
(c) Earnings limitations on payment of dividends. (1) A member bank may not declare or pay a dividend if the total of all dividends declared during the calendar year, including the proposed dividend, exceeds the sum of the bank’s net income (as reportable in its Reports of Condition and Income) during the current calendar year and the retained net income of the prior two calendar years, unless the dividend has been approved by the Board.
(2) “Retained net income” in a calendar year is equal to the bank’s net income (as reported in its Report of Condition and Income for such year), less any dividends declared during such year.
(d) Limitation on withdrawal of capital by dividend or otherwise. (1) A member bank may not declare or pay a dividend if the dividend would exceed the bank’s undivided profits as reportable on its Reports of Condition and Income, unless the bank has received the prior approval of the Board and of at least two-thirds of the shareholders of each class of stock outstanding.
(2) A member bank may not permit any portion of its permanent capital to be withdrawn unless the withdrawal has been approved by the Board and by at least two-thirds of the shareholders of each class of stock outstanding.
(3) If a member bank has capital surplus in excess of that required by law, the excess amount may be transferred to the bank’s undivided profits account and be available for the payment of dividends if:
(i) The amount transferred came from the earnings of prior periods, excluding earnings transferred as a result of stock dividends;
(ii) The bank’s board of directors approves the transfer of funds; and
(iii) The transfer has been approved by the Board.
(e) Payment of capital distributions. All member banks also are subject to the restrictions on payment of capital distributions contained in § 208.45 of subpart D of this part implementing section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
(f) Compliance. A member bank shall use the date a dividend is declared to determine compliance with this section.
§ 208.6 Establishment and maintenance of branches.
(a) Branching. (1) To the extent authorized by state law, a member bank may establish and maintain branches (including interstate branches) subject to the same limitations and restrictions that apply to the establishment and maintenance of national bank branches (12 U.S.C. 36 and 1831u), except that approval of such branches shall be obtained from the Board rather than from the Comptroller of the Currency.
(2) Branch applications. A State member bank wishing to establish a branch in the United States or its territories must file an application in accordance with the Board’s Rules of Procedure, located at 12 CFR 262.3, and must comply with the public notice and comment rules contained in paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section. Branches of member banks located in foreign nations, in the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States, and in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, are subject to the Board’s Regulation K (12 CFR part 211).
(3) Public notice of branch applications – (i) Location of publication. A State member bank wishing to establish a branch in the United States or its territories must publish notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the form and at the locations specified in § 262.3 of the Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3).
(ii) Contents of notice. The newspaper notice referred to in paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall provide an opportunity for interested persons to comment on the application for a period of at least 15 days.
(iii) Timing of publication. Each newspaper notice shall be published no more than 7 calendar days before and no later than the calendar day on which an application is filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
(4) Public comment – (i) Timely comments. Interested persons may submit information and comments regarding a branch application under § 208.6. A comment shall be considered timely for purposes of this subpart if the comment, together with all supplemental information, is submitted in writing in accordance with the Board’s Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3) and received by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank prior to the expiration of the public comment period provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section.
(ii) Extension of comment period. The Board may, in its discretion, extend the public comment period regarding any application under § 208.6. In the event that an interested person requests a copy of an application submitted under § 208.6, the Board may, in its discretion and based on the facts and circumstances, grant such person an extension of the comment period for up to 15 calendar days.
(b) Factors considered in approving domestic branch applications. Factors given special consideration by the Board in passing upon a branch application are:
(1) Financial condition and management. The financial history and condition of the applying bank and the general character of its management;
(2) Capital. The adequacy of the bank’s capital in accordance with § 208.4, and its future earnings prospects;
(3) Convenience and needs. The convenience and needs of the community to be served by the branch;
(4) CRA performance. In the case of branches with deposit-taking capability, the bank’s performance under the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.) and Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228); and
(5) Investment in bank premises. Whether the bank’s investment in bank premises in establishing the branch is consistent with § 208.21.
(c) Expedited approval for eligible banks and bank holding companies – (1) Availability of expedited treatment. The expedited branch application procedures described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section are available to:
(i) An eligible bank; and
(ii) A bank that cannot be determined to be an eligible bank because it has not received CAMELS compliance or CRA ratings from a bank regulatory authority, if it is controlled by a bank holding company that meets the criteria for expedited processing under § 225.14(c) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.14(c)).
(2) Expedited procedures. A completed domestic branch application filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank will be deemed approved on the fifth day after the close of the comment period, unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is approved prior to that date (but in no case will an application be approved before the third day after the close of the public comment period) or the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is not eligible for expedited review for any reason, including, without limitation, that:
(i) The bank or bank holding company does not meet the criteria under § 208.6(c)(1);
(ii) The application contains a material error or is otherwise deficient; or
(iii) The application or the notice required under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, raises significant supervisory, Community Reinvestment Act, compliance, policy or legal issues that have not been resolved, or a timely substantive adverse comment is submitted. A comment will be considered substantive unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously considered, or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues.
(d) Consolidated Applications – (1) Proposed branches; notice of branch opening. A member bank may seek approval in a single application or notice for any branches that it proposes to establish within one year after the approval date. The bank shall, unless notification is waived, notify the appropriate Reserve Bank not later than 30 days after opening any branch approved under a consolidated application. A bank is not required to open a branch approved under either a consolidated or single branch application.
(2) Duration of branch approval. Branch approvals remain valid for one year unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that in its judgment, based on reports of condition, examinations, or other information, there has been a change in the bank’s condition, financial or otherwise, that warrants reconsideration of the approval.
(e) Branch closings. A member bank shall comply with section 42 of the FDI Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1831r-1, with regard to branch closings.
(f) Branch relocations. A relocation of an existing branch does not require filing a branch application. A relocation of an existing branch, for purposes of determining whether to file a branch application, is a movement that does not substantially affect the nature of the branch’s business or customers served.
§ 208.7 Prohibition against use of interstate branches primarily for deposit production.
(a) Purpose and scope – (1) Purpose. The purpose of this section is to implement section 109 (12 U.S.C. 1835a) of the Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 (Interstate Act).
(2) Scope. (i) This section applies to any State member bank that has operated a covered interstate branch for a period of at least one year, and any foreign bank that has operated a covered interstate branch licensed by a State for a period of at least one year.
(ii) This section describes the requirements imposed under 12 U.S.C. 1835a, which requires the appropriate Federal banking agencies (the Board, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) to prescribe uniform rules that prohibit a bank from using any authority to engage in interstate branching pursuant to the Interstate Act, or any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law, primarily for the purpose of deposit production.
(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) Bank means, unless the context indicates otherwise:
(i) A State member bank as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(d)(2); and
(ii) A foreign bank as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7) and 12 CFR 211.21.
(2) Covered interstate branch means:
(i) Any branch of a State member bank, and any uninsured branch of a foreign bank licensed by a State, that:
(A) Is established or acquired outside the bank’s home State pursuant to the interstate branching authority granted by the Interstate Act or by any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law; or
(B) Could not have been established or acquired outside of the bank’s home State but for the establishment or acquisition of a branch described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
(ii) Any bank or branch of a bank controlled by an out-of-State bank holding company.
(3) Home State means:
(i) With respect to a State bank, the State that chartered the bank;
(ii) With respect to a national bank, the State in which the main office of the bank is located;
(iii) With respect to a bank holding company, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such company are the largest on the later of:
(A) July 1, 1966; or
(B) The date on which the company becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act.
(iv) With respect to a foreign bank:
(A) For purposes of determining whether a U.S. branch of a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the home State of the foreign bank as determined in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 3103(c) and 12 CFR 211.22; and
(B) For purposes of determining whether a branch of a U.S. bank controlled by a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such foreign bank are the largest on the later of:
(1) July 1, 1966; or
(2) The date on which the foreign bank becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act.
(4) Host State means a State in which a covered interstate branch is established or acquired.
(5) Host state loan-to-deposit ratio generally means, with respect to a particular host state, the ratio of total loans in the host state relative to total deposits from the host state for all banks (including institutions covered under the definition of “bank” in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(1)) that have that state as their home state, as determined and updated periodically by the appropriate Federal banking agencies and made available to the public.
(6) Out-of-State bank holding company means, with respect to any State, a bank holding company whose home State is another State.
(7) State means state as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3).
(8) Statewide loan-to-deposit ratio means, with respect to a bank, the ratio of the bank’s loans to its deposits in a state in which the bank has one or more covered interstate branches, as determined by the Board.
(c)(1) Application of screen. Beginning no earlier than one year after a covered interstate branch is acquired or established, the Board will consider whether the bank’s statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the relevant host State loan-to-deposit ratio.
(2) Results of screen. (i) If the Board determines that the bank’s statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is 50 percent or more of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, no further consideration under this section is required.
(ii) If the Board determines that the bank’s statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, or if reasonably available data are insufficient to calculate the bank’s statewide loan-to-deposit ratio, the Board will make a credit needs determination for the bank as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
(d) Credit needs determination – (1) In general. The Board will review the loan portfolio of the bank and determine whether the bank is reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities in the host state that are served by the bank.
(2) Guidelines. The Board will use the following considerations as guidelines when making the determination pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section:
(i) Whether covered interstate branches were formerly part of a failed or failing depository institution;
(ii) Whether covered interstate branches were acquired under circumstances where there was a low loan-to-deposit ratio because of the nature of the acquired institution’s business or loan portfolio;
(iii) Whether covered interstate branches have a high concentration of commercial or credit card lending, trust services, or other specialized activities, including the extent to which the covered interstate branches accept deposits in the host state;
(iv) The Community Reinvestment Act ratings received by the bank, if any, under 12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.;
(v) Economic conditions, including the level of loan demand, within the communities served by the covered interstate branches;
(vi) The safe and sound operation and condition of the bank; and
(vii) The Board’s Regulation BB – Community Reinvestment (12 CFR part 228) and interpretations of that regulation.
(e) Sanctions – (1) In general. If the Board determines that a bank is not reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state, and that the bank’s statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, the Board:
(i) May order that a bank’s covered interstate branch or branches be closed unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the Board, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank has an acceptable plan under which the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state; and
(ii) Will not permit the bank to open a new branch in the host state that would be considered to be a covered interstate branch unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the Board, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the community that the new branch will serve.
(2) Notice prior to closure of a covered interstate branch. Before exercising the Board’s authority to order the bank to close a covered interstate branch, the Board will issue to the bank a notice of the Board’s intent to order the closure and will schedule a hearing within 60 days of issuing the notice.
(3) Hearing. The Board will conduct a hearing scheduled under paragraph (e)(2) of this section in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1818(h) and 12 CFR part 263.
Subpart B – Investments and Loans
§ 208.20 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. Subpart B of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart B) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 24; sections 9, 11 and 21 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), and 481-486); sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1823(j), 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1823(j), 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1); and the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart B describes certain investment limitations on member banks, statutory requirements for amortizing losses on agricultural loans and extending credit in areas having special flood hazards, as well as the requirements for issuing letters of credit and acceptances.
§ 208.21 Investments in premises and securities.
(a) Investment in bank premises. No state member bank shall invest in bank premises, or in the stock, bonds, debentures, or other such obligations of any corporation holding the premises of such bank, or make loans to or upon the security of any such corporation unless:
(1) The bank notifies the appropriate Reserve Bank at least fifteen days prior to such investment and has not received notice that the investment is subject to further review by the end of the fifteen day notice period;
(2) The aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation that is an affiliate of the bank (as defined in section 2 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 221a), is less than or equal to the bank’s perpetual preferred stock and related surplus plus common stock plus surplus, as those terms are defined in the FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income; or
(3)(i) The aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation that is an affiliate of the bank, is less than or equal to 150 percent of the bank’s perpetual preferred stock and related surplus plus common stock plus surplus, as those terms are defined in the FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income; and
(ii) The bank:
(A) Has a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Interagency Bank Rating System
(B) Is well capitalized and will continue to be well capitalized, in accordance with subpart D of this part, after the investment or loan.
(b) Investments in securities. Member banks are subject to the same limitations and conditions with respect to purchasing, selling, underwriting, and holding investment securities and stocks as are national banks under 12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th. To determine whether an obligation qualifies as an investment security for the purposes of 12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th, and to calculate the limits with respect to the purchase of such obligations, a state member bank may look to part 1 of the rules of the Comptroller of the Currency (12 CFR part 1) and interpretations thereunder. A state member bank may consult the Board for a determination with respect to the application of 12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th, with respect to issues not addressed in 12 CFR part 1. The provisions of 12 CFR part 1 do not provide authority for a state member bank to purchase securities of a type or amount that the bank is not authorized to purchase under applicable state law.
§ 208.22 Community development and public welfare investments.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Low- or moderate-income area means:
(i) One or more census tracts in a Metropolitan Statistical Area where the median family income adjusted for family size in each census tract is less than 80 percent of the median family income adjusted for family size of the Metropolitan Statistical Area; or
(ii) If not in a Metropolitan Statistical Area, one or more census tracts or block-numbered areas where the median family income adjusted for family size in each census tract or block-numbered area is less than 80 percent of the median family income adjusted for family size of the State.
(2) Low- and moderate-income persons has the same meaning as low- and moderate-income persons as defined in 42 U.S.C. 5302(a)(20)(A).
(3) Small business means a business that meets the size-eligibility standards of 13 CFR 121.802(a)(2).
(b) Investments not requiring prior Board approval. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th) made applicable to member banks by paragraph 20 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335), a member bank may make an investment, without prior Board approval, if the following conditions are met:
(1) The investment is in a corporation, limited partnership, or other entity, and:
(i) The Board has determined that an investment in that entity or class of entities is a public welfare investment under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a), or a community development investment under Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.25(b)(6)); or
(ii) The Comptroller of the Currency has determined, by order or regulation, that an investment in that entity by a national bank is a public welfare investment under section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh)); or
(iii) The entity is a community development financial institution as defined in section 103(5) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)); or
(iv) The entity, directly or indirectly, engages solely in or makes loans solely for the purposes of one or more of the following community development activities:
(A) Investing in, developing, rehabilitating, managing, selling, or renting residential property if a majority of the units will be occupied by low- and moderate-income persons, or if the property is a “qualified low-income building” as defined in section 42(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42(c)(2));
(B) Investing in, developing, rehabilitating, managing, selling, or renting nonresidential real property or other assets located in a low- or moderate-income area and targeted towards low- and moderate-income persons;
(C) Investing in one or more small businesses located in a low- or moderate-income area to stimulate economic development;
(D) Investing in, developing, or otherwise assisting job training or placement facilities or programs that will be targeted towards low- and moderate-income persons;
(E) Investing in an entity located in a low- or moderate-income area if the entity creates long-term employment opportunities, a majority of which (based on full-time equivalent positions) will be held by low- and moderate-income persons; and
(F) Providing technical assistance, credit counseling, research, and program development assistance to low- and moderate-income persons, small businesses, or nonprofit corporations to help achieve community development;
(2) The investment is permitted by state law;
(3) The investment will not expose the member bank to liability beyond the amount of the investment;
(4) The aggregate of all such investments of the member bank does not exceed the sum of five percent of its capital stock and surplus;
(5) The member bank is well capitalized or adequately capitalized under §§ 208.43(b) (1) and (2);
(6) The member bank received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System as of its most recent examination and an overall rating of “1” or “2” as of its most recent consumer compliance examination; and
(7) The member bank is not subject to any written agreement, cease-and-desist order, capital directive, prompt-corrective-action directive, or memorandum of understanding issued by the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank.
(c) Notice to Federal Reserve Bank. Not more than 30 days after making an investment under paragraph (b) of this section, the member bank shall advise its Federal Reserve Bank of the investment, including the amount of the investment and the identity of the entity in which the investment is made.
(d) Investments requiring Board approval. (1) With prior Board approval, a member bank may make public welfare investments under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a), other than those specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(2) Requests for Board approval under this paragraph (d) shall include, at a minimum:
(i) The amount of the proposed investment;
(ii) A description of the entity in which the investment is to be made;
(iii) An explanation of why the investment is a public welfare investment under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a);
(iv) A description of the member bank’s potential liability under the proposed investment;
(v) The amount of the member bank’s aggregate outstanding public welfare investments under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act;
(vi) The amount of the member bank’s capital stock and surplus; and
(vii) If the bank investment is not eligible under paragraph (b) of this section, explain the reason or reasons why it is ineligible.
(3) The Board shall act on a request under this paragraph (d) within 60 calendar days of receipt of a request that meets the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, unless the Board notifies the requesting member bank that a longer time period will be required.
(e) Divestiture of investments. A member bank shall divest itself of an investment made under paragraph (b) or (d) of this section to the extent that the investment exceeds the scope of, or ceases to meet, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) or paragraph (d) of this section. The divestiture shall be made in the manner specified in 12 CFR 225.140, Regulation Y, for interests acquired by a lending subsidiary of a bank holding company or the bank holding company itself in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted.
§ 208.23 Agricultural loan loss amortization.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Accepting official means:
(i) The Reserve Bank in whose district the bank is located; or
(ii) The Director of the Division of Banking Supervision and Regulation in cases in which the Reserve Bank cannot determine that the bank qualifies.
(2) Agriculturally related other property means any property, real or personal, that the bank owned on January 1, 1983, and any additional property that it acquired prior to January 1, 1992, in connection with a qualified agricultural loan. For the purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the value of such property shall include the amount previously charged off as a loss.
(3) Participating bank means an agricultural bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1823(j)(4)(A)) that, as of January 1, 1992, had a proposal for a capital restoration plan accepted by an accepting official and received permission from the accepting official, subject to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, to amortize losses in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(4) Qualified agricultural loan means:
(i) Loans that finance agricultural production or are secured by farm land for purposes of Schedule RC-C of the FFIEC Consolidated Report of Condition or such other comparable schedule;
(ii) Loans secured by farm machinery;
(iii) Other loans that a bank proves to be sufficiently related to agriculture for classification as an agricultural loan by the Board; and
(iv) The remaining unpaid balance of any loans described in paragraphs (a)(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) of this section that have been charged off since January 1, 1984, and that qualify for deferral under this section.
(b)(1) Provided there is no evidence that the loss resulted from fraud or criminal abuse on the part of the bank, the officers, directors, or principal shareholders, a participating bank may amortize in its Reports of Condition and Income:
(i) Any loss on a qualified agricultural loan that the bank would be required to reflect in its financial statements for any period between and including 1984 and 1991; or
(ii) Any loss that the bank would be required to reflect in its financial statements for any period between and including 1983 and 1991 resulting from a reappraisal or sale of agriculturally-related other property.
(2) Amortization under this section shall be computed over a period not to exceed seven years on a quarterly straight-line basis commencing in the first quarter after the loan was or is charged off so as to be fully amortized not later than December 31, 1998.
(c) Accounting for amortization. Any bank that is permitted to amortize losses in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section may restate its capital and other relevant accounts and account for future authorized deferrals and authorization in accordance with the instructions to the FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. Any resulting increase in the capital account shall be included in capital pursuant to part 217 of this chapter.
(d) Conditions of participation. In order for a bank to maintain its status as a participating bank, it shall:
(1) Adhere to the approved capital plan and obtain the prior approval of the accepting official before making any modifications to the plan;
(2) Maintain accounting records for each asset subject to loss deferral under the program that document the amount and timing of the deferrals, repayments, and authorizations;
(3) Maintain the financial condition of the bank so that it does not deteriorate to the point where it is no longer a viable, fundamentally sound institution;
(4) Make a reasonable effort, consistent with safe and sound banking practices, to maintain in its loan portfolio a percentage of agricultural loans, including agriculturally-related other property, not less than the percentage of such loans in its loan portfolio on January 1, 1986; and
(5) Provide the accepting official, upon request, with any information the accepting official deems necessary to monitor the bank’s amortization, its compliance with the conditions of participation, and its continued eligibility.
(e) Revocation of eligibility for loss amortization. The failure to comply with any condition in an acceptance, with the capital restoration plan, or with the conditions stated in paragraph (d) of this section, is grounds for revocation of acceptance for loss amortization and for an administrative action against the bank under 12 U.S.C. 1818(b). In addition, acceptance of a bank for loss amortization shall not foreclose any administrative action against the bank that the Board may deem appropriate.
(f) Expiration date. The terms of this section will no longer be in effect as of January 1, 1999.
§ 208.24 Letters of credit and acceptances.
(a) Standby letters of credit. For the purpose of this section, standby letters of credit include every letter of credit (or similar arrangement however named or designated) that represents an obligation to the beneficiary on the part of the issuer:
(1) To repay money borrowed by or advanced to or for the account of the account party; or
(2) To make payment on account of any evidence of indebtedness undertaken by the account party; or
(3) To make payment on account of any default by the party procuring the issuance of the letter of credit in the performance of an obligation.
(b) Ineligible acceptance. An ineligible acceptance is a time draft accepted by a bank, which does not meet the requirements for discount with a Federal Reserve Bank.
(c) Bank’s lending limits. Standby letters of credit and ineligible acceptances count toward member banks’ lending limits imposed by state law.
(d) Exceptions. A standby letter of credit or ineligible acceptance is not subject to the restrictions set forth in paragraph (c) of this section if prior to or at the time of issuance of the credit:
(1) The issuing bank is paid an amount equal to the bank’s maximum liability under the standby letter of credit; or
(2) The party procuring the issuance of a letter of credit or ineligible acceptance has set aside sufficient funds in a segregated, clearly earmarked deposit account to cover the bank’s maximum liability under the standby letter of credit or ineligible acceptance.
§ 208.25 Loans in areas having special flood hazards.
(a) Purpose and scope – (1) Purpose. The purpose of this section is to implement the requirements of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
(2) Scope. This section, except for paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, applies to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes located or to be located in areas determined by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency to have special flood hazards. Paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section apply to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes, regardless of location.
(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Act means the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
(2) Administrator of FEMA means the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
(3) Building means a walled and roofed structure, other than a gas or liquid storage tank, that is principally above ground and affixed to a permanent site, and a walled and roofed structure while in the course of construction, alteration, or repair.
(4) Community means a State or a political subdivision of a State that has zoning and building code jurisdiction over a particular area having special flood hazards.
(5) Designated loan means a loan secured by a building or mobile home that is located or to be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act.
(6) Mobile home means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that is built on a permanent chassis and designed for use with or without a permanent foundation when attached to the required utilities. The term mobile home does not include a recreational vehicle. For purposes of this section, the term mobile home means a mobile home on a permanent foundation. The term mobile home includes a manufactured home as that term is used in the NFIP.
(7) Mutual aid society means an organization –
(i) Whose members share a common religious, charitable, educational, or fraternal bond;
(ii) That covers losses caused by damage to members’ property pursuant to an agreement, including damage caused by flooding, in accordance with this common bond; and
(iii) That has a demonstrated history of fulfilling the terms of agreements to cover losses to members’ property caused by flooding.
(8) NFIP means the National Flood Insurance Program authorized under the Act.
(9) Private flood insurance means an insurance policy that:
(i) Is issued by an insurance company that is:
(A) Licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or
(B) Recognized, or not disapproved, as a surplus lines insurer by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property;
(ii) Provides flood insurance coverage that is at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP for the same type of property, including when considering deductibles, exclusions, and conditions offered by the insurer. To be at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP, the policy must, at a minimum:
(A) Define the term “flood” to include the events defined as a “flood” in an SFIP;
(B) Contain the coverage specified in an SFIP, including that relating to building property coverage; personal property coverage, if purchased by the insured mortgagor(s); other coverages; and increased cost of compliance coverage;
(C) Contain deductibles no higher than the specified maximum, and include similar non-applicability provisions, as under an SFIP, for any total policy coverage amount up to the maximum available under the NFIP at the time the policy is provided to the lender;
(D) Provide coverage for direct physical loss caused by a flood and may only exclude other causes of loss that are excluded in an SFIP. Any exclusions other than those in an SFIP may pertain only to coverage that is in addition to the amount and type of coverage that could be provided by an SFIP or have the effect of providing broader coverage to the policyholder; and
(E) Not contain conditions that narrow the coverage provided in an SFIP;
(iii) Includes all of the following:
(A) A requirement for the insurer to give written notice 45 days before cancellation or non-renewal of flood insurance coverage to:
(1) The insured; and
(2) The member bank that made the designated loan secured by the property covered by the flood insurance, or the servicer acting on its behalf;
(B) Information about the availability of flood insurance coverage under the NFIP;
(C) A mortgage interest clause similar to the clause contained in an SFIP; and
(D) A provision requiring an insured to file suit not later than one year after the date of a written denial of all or part of a claim under the policy; and
(iv) Contains cancellation provisions that are as restrictive as the provisions contained in an SFIP.
(10) Residential improved real estate means real estate upon which a home or other residential building is located or to be located.
(11) Servicer means the person responsible for:
(i) Receiving any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower under the terms of a loan, including amounts for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges with respect to the property securing the loan; and
(ii) Making payments of principal and interest and any other payments from the amounts received from the borrower as may be required under the terms of the loan.
(12) SFIP means, for purposes of paragraph (b)(9) of this section, a standard flood insurance policy issued under the NFIP in effect as of the date private flood insurance is provided to a member bank.
(13) Special flood hazard area means the land in the flood plain within a community having at least a one percent chance of flooding in any given year, as designated by the Administrator of FEMA.
(14) Table funding means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds.
(c) Requirement to purchase flood insurance where available – (1) In general. A member bank shall not make, increase, extend, or renew any designated loan unless the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered by flood insurance for the term of the loan. The amount of insurance must be at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the designated loan or the maximum limit of coverage available for the particular type of property under the Act. Flood insurance coverage under the Act is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures a loan and not the land itself.
(2) Table funded loans. A member bank that acquires a loan from a mortgage broker or other entity through table funding shall be considered to be making a loan for the purposes of this section.
(3) Private flood insurance – (i) Mandatory acceptance. A member bank must accept private flood insurance, as defined in paragraph (b)(9) of this section, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the policy meets the requirements for coverage in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(ii) Compliance aid for mandatory acceptance. A member bank may determine that a policy meets the definition of private flood insurance in paragraph (b)(9) of this section, without further review of the policy, if the following statement is included within the policy or as an endorsement to the policy: “This policy meets the definition of private flood insurance contained in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(b)(7) and the corresponding regulation.”
(iii) Discretionary acceptance. A member bank may accept a flood insurance policy issued by a private insurer that is not issued under the NFIP and that does not meet the definition of private flood insurance in paragraph (b)(9) of this section in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the policy:
(A) Provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
(B) Is issued by an insurer that is licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property, is issued by a surplus lines insurer recognized, or not disapproved, by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction where the property to be insured is located;
(C) Covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees, except in the case of a policy that is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group and for which the premium is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense; and
(D) Provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the member bank documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
(iv) Mutual aid societies. Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, a member bank may accept a plan issued by a mutual aid society, as defined in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if:
(A) The Board has determined that such plans qualify as flood insurance for purposes of the Act.
(B) The plan provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
(C) The plan covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees; and
(D) The plan provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the member bank documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
(d) Exemptions. The flood insurance requirement prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section does not apply with respect to:
(1) Any State-owned property covered under a policy of self-insurance satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA, who publishes and periodically revises the list of States falling within this exemption;
(2) Property securing any loan with an original principal balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less; or
(3) Any structure that is a part of any residential property but is detached from the primary residential structure of such property and does not serve as a residence. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3):
(i) “A structure that is a part of a residential property” is a structure used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and not used primarily for agricultural, commercial, industrial, or other business purposes;
(ii) A structure is “detached” from the primary residential structure if it is not joined by any structural connection to that structure; and
(iii) “Serve as a residence” shall be based upon the good faith determination of the member bank that the structure is intended for use or actually used as a residence, which generally includes sleeping, bathroom, or kitchen facilities.
(e) Escrow requirement – (1) In general – (i) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) or (e)(3) of this section, a member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under paragraph (c) of this section for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan.
(ii) Exceptions. Paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section does not apply if:
(A) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;
(B) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section;
(C) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:
(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section;
(2) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and
(3) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;
(D) The loan is a home equity line of credit;
(E) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or
(F) The loan has a term of not longer than 12 months.
(iii) Duration of exception. If a member bank, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply, then the bank or its servicer shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under paragraph (c) of this section as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA).
(iv) Escrow account. The member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due.
(2) Notice. For any loan for which a member bank is required to escrow under paragraphs (e)(1) or (e)(3)(ii) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section during the term of the loan, the member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under paragraph (i) of this section informing the borrower that the member bank is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A to this section.
(3) Small lender exception – (i) Qualification. Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (4) of this section do not apply to a member bank:
(A) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and
(B) On or before July 6, 2012:
(1) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and
(2) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home.
(ii) Change in status. If a member bank previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the member bank must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status.
(4) Option to escrow – (i) In general. A member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under paragraph (c) of this section for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the member bank has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, unless:
(A) The loan or the member bank qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) or (e)(3) of this section, respectively;
(B) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or
(C) The member bank is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
(ii) Notice. For any loan subject to paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section, the member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the member bank has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B to this section.
(iii) Timing. The member bank or servicer must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the member bank or servicer receives the borrower’s request to escrow.
(f) Required use of standard flood hazard determination form – (1) Use of form. A state member bank shall use the standard flood hazard determination form developed by the Administrator of FEMA when determining whether the building or mobile home offered as collateral security for a loan is or will be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act. The standard flood hazard determination form may be used in a printed, computerized, or electronic manner. A state member bank may obtain the standard flood hazard determination form from FEMA’s Web site at www.fema.gov.
(2) Retention of form. A state member bank shall retain a copy of the completed standard flood hazard determination form, in either hard copy or electronic form, for the period of time the state member bank owns the loan.
(g) Force placement of flood insurance – (1) Notice and purchase of coverage. If a member bank, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan, that the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the designated loan is not covered by flood insurance or is covered by flood insurance in an amount less than the amount required under paragraph (c) of this section, then the member bank or its servicer shall notify the borrower that the borrower should obtain flood insurance, at the borrower’s expense, in an amount at least equal to the amount required under paragraph (c) of this section, for the remaining term of the loan. If the borrower fails to obtain flood insurance within 45 days after notification, then the member bank or its servicer shall purchase insurance on the borrower’s behalf. The member bank or its servicer may charge the borrower for the cost of premiums and fees incurred in purchasing the insurance, including premiums or fees incurred for coverage beginning on the date on which flood insurance coverage lapsed or did not provide a sufficient coverage amount.
(2) Termination of force-placed insurance – (i) Termination and refund. Within 30 days of receipt by a member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, of a confirmation of a borrower’s existing flood insurance coverage, the member bank or its servicer shall:
(A) Notify the insurance provider to terminate any insurance purchased by the member bank or its servicer under paragraph (g)(1) of this section; and
(B) Refund to the borrower all premiums paid by the borrower for any insurance purchased by the member bank or its servicer under paragraph (g)(1) of this section during any period during which the borrower’s flood insurance coverage and the insurance coverage purchased by the member bank or its servicer were each in effect, and any related fees charged to the borrower with respect to the insurance purchased by the member bank or its servicer during such period.
(ii) Sufficiency of demonstration. For purposes of confirming a borrower’s existing flood insurance coverage under paragraph (g)(2) of this section, a member bank or its servicer shall accept from the borrower an insurance policy declarations page that includes the existing flood insurance policy number and the identity of, and contact information for, the insurance company or agent.
(h) Determination fees. – (1) General. Notwithstanding any Federal or State law other than the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129), any member bank, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank, may charge a reasonable fee for determining whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located or will be located in a special flood hazard area. A determination fee may also include, but is not limited to, a fee for life-of-loan monitoring.
(2) Borrower fee. The determination fee authorized by paragraph (h)(1) of this section may be charged to the borrower if the determination:
(i) Is made in connection with a making, increasing, extending, or renewing of the loan that is initiated by the borrower;
(ii) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA’s revision or updating of flood plain areas or flood-risk zones;
(iii) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA’s publication of a notice or compendium that:
(A) Affects the area in which the building or mobile home securing the loan is located; or
(B) By determination of the Administrator of FEMA, may reasonably require a determination whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area; or
(iv) Results in the purchase of flood insurance coverage by the lender or its servicer on behalf of the borrower under paragraph (g) of this section.
(3) Purchaser or transferee fee. The determination fee authorized by paragraph (h)(1) of this section may be charged to the purchaser or transferee of a loan in the case of the sale or transfer of the loan.
(i) Notice of special flood hazards and availability of Federal disaster relief assistance. When a member bank makes, increases, extends, or renews a loan secured by a building or a mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the bank shall mail or deliver a written notice to the borrower and to the servicer in all cases whether or not flood insurance is available under the Act for the collateral securing the loan.
(1) Contents of notice. The written notice must include the following information:
(i) A warning, in a form approved by the Administrator of FEMA, that the building or the mobile home is or will be located in a special flood hazard area;
(ii) A description of the flood insurance purchase requirements set forth in section 102(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b));
(iii) A statement, where applicable, that flood insurance coverage is available from private insurance companies that issue standard flood insurance policies on behalf of the NFIP or directly from the NFIP;
(iv) A statement that flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP also may be available from a private insurance company that issues policies on behalf of the company;
(v) A statement that the borrower is encouraged to compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and that the borrower should direct inquiries regarding the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage to an insurance agent; and
(vi) A statement whether Federal disaster relief assistance may be available in the event of damage to the building or mobile home caused by flooding in a Federally declared disaster.
(2) Timing of notice. The member bank shall provide the notice required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section to the borrower within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction, and to the servicer as promptly as practicable after the bank provides notice to the borrower and in any event no later than the time the bank provides other similar notices to the servicer concerning hazard insurance and taxes. Notice to the servicer may be made electronically or may take the form of a copy of the notice to the borrower.
(3) Record of receipt. The member bank shall retain a record of the receipt of the notices by the borrower and the servicer for the period of time the bank owns the loan.
(4) Alternate method of notice. Instead of providing the notice to the borrower required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section, a member bank may obtain satisfactory written assurance from a seller or lessor that, within a reasonable time before the completion of the sale or lease transaction, the seller or lessor has provided such notice to the purchaser or lessee. The member bank shall retain a record of the written assurance from the seller or lessor for the period of time the bank owns the loan.
(5) Use of sample form of notice. A member bank will be considered to be in compliance with the requirement for notice to the borrower of this paragraph (i) of this section by providing written notice to the borrower containing the language presented in appendix A of this section within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction. The notice presented in appendix A of this section satisfies the borrower notice requirements of the Act.
(j) Notice of servicer’s identity – (1) Notice requirement. When a member bank makes, increases, extends, renews, sells, or transfers a loan secured by a building or mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the bank shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator’s designee) in writing of the identity of the servicer of the loan. The Administrator of FEMA has designated the insurance provider to receive the member bank’s notice of the servicer’s identity. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA’s designee.
(2) Transfer of servicing rights. The member bank shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator’s designee) of any change in the servicer of a loan described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section within 60 days after the effective date of the change. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA’s designee. Upon any change in the servicing of a loan described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, the duty to provide notice under this paragraph (j)(2) of this section shall transfer to the transferee servicer.
We are giving you this notice to inform you that:
The building or mobile home securing the loan for which you have applied is or will be located in an area with special flood hazards.
The area has been identified by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) as a special flood hazard area using FEMA’s Flood Insurance Rate Map or the Flood Hazard Boundary Map for the following community: ______. This area has a one percent (1%) chance of a flood equal to or exceeding the base flood elevation (a 100-year flood) in any given year. During the life of a 30-year mortgage loan, the risk of a 100-year flood in a special flood hazard area is 26 percent (26%).
Federal law allows a lender and borrower jointly to request the Administrator of FEMA to review the determination of whether the property securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area. If you would like to make such a request, please contact us for further information.
____ The community in which the property securing the loan is located participates in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). Federal law will not allow us to make you the loan that you have applied for if you do not purchase flood insurance. The flood insurance must be maintained for the life of the loan. If you fail to purchase or renew flood insurance on the property, Federal law authorizes and requires us to purchase the flood insurance for you at your expense.
• At a minimum, flood insurance purchased must cover the lesser of:
(1) the outstanding principal balance of the loan; or
(2) the maximum amount of coverage allowed for the type of property under the NFIP.
Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures your loan and not the land itself.
• Federal disaster relief assistance (usually in the form of a low-interest loan) may be available for damages incurred in excess of your flood insurance if your community’s participation in the NFIP is in accordance with NFIP requirements.
• Although you may not be required to maintain flood insurance on all structures, you may still wish to do so, and your mortgage lender may still require you to do so to protect the collateral securing the mortgage. If you choose not to maintain flood insurance on a structure and it floods, you are responsible for all flood losses relating to that structure.
Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP may be purchased through an insurance agent who will obtain the policy either directly through the NFIP or through an insurance company that participates in the NFIP. Flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may be available from private insurers that do not participate in the NFIP. You should compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and contact an insurance agent as to the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage.
Federal law may require a lender or its servicer to escrow all premiums and fees for flood insurance that covers any residential building or mobile home securing a loan that is located in an area with special flood hazards. If your lender notifies you that an escrow account is required for your loan, then you must pay your flood insurance premiums and fees to the lender or its servicer with the same frequency as you make loan payments for the duration of your loan. These premiums and fees will be deposited in the escrow account, which will be used to pay the flood insurance provider.]
____ Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is not available for the property securing the loan because the community in which the property is located does not participate in the NFIP. In addition, if the non-participating community has been identified for at least one year as containing a special flood hazard area, properties located in the community will not be eligible for Federal disaster relief assistance in the event of a Federally declared flood disaster.
You have the option to escrow all premiums and fees for the payment on your flood insurance policy that covers any residential building or mobile home that is located in an area with special flood hazards and that secures your loan. If you choose this option:
• Your payments will be deposited in an escrow account to be paid to the flood insurance provider.
• The escrow amount for flood insurance will be added to the regular mortgage payment that you make to your lender or its servicer.
• The payments you make into the escrow account will accumulate over time and the funds will be used to pay your flood insurance policy when your lender or servicer receives a notice from your flood insurance provider that the flood insurance premium is due.
To choose this option, follow the instructions below. If you have any questions about the option, contact [Insert Name of Lender or Servicer] at [Insert Contact Information].
[Insert Instructions for Selecting to Escrow]
Subpart C – Bank Securities and Securities-Related Activities
§ 208.30 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. Subpart C of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart C) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 24, 92a, 93a; sections 1818 and 1831p-1(a)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818, 1831p-1(a)(2)); and sections 78b, 78l(b), 78l(g), 78l(i), 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5, 78q, 78q-1, and 78w of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78b, 78l(b), 78l(g), 78l(i), 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5, 78q, 78q-1, 78w).
(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart C describes the requirements imposed upon member banks acting as transfer agents, registered clearing agencies, or sellers of securities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. This subpart C also describes the reporting requirements imposed on member banks whose securities are subject to registration under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
§ 208.31 State member banks as transfer agents.
(a) The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-l) prescribing procedures for registration of transfer agents for which the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency (17 CFR 240.17Ac2-1) apply to member bank transfer agents. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the Board.
(b) The rules adopted by the SEC pursuant to section 17A prescribing operational and reporting requirements for transfer agents (17 CFR 240.17Ac2-2 and 240.17Ad-1 through 240.17Ad-16) apply to member bank transfer agents.
§ 208.32 Notice of disciplinary sanctions imposed by registered clearing agency.
(a) Notice requirement. Any member bank or any of its subsidiaries that is a registered clearing agency pursuant to section 17A(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act), and that:
(1) Imposes any final disciplinary sanction on any participant therein;
(2) Denies participation to any applicant; or
(3) Prohibits or limits any person in respect to access to services offered by the clearing agency, shall file with the Board (and the appropriate regulatory agency, if other than the Board, for a participant or applicant) notice thereof in the manner prescribed in this section.
(b) Notice of final disciplinary actions. (1) Any registered clearing agency for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency that takes any final disciplinary action with respect to any participant shall promptly file a notice thereof with the Board in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. For the purposes of this paragraph (b), final disciplinary action means the imposition of any disciplinary sanction pursuant to section 17A(b)(3)(G) of the Act, or other action of a registered clearing agency which, after notice and opportunity for hearing, results in final disposition of charges of:
(i) One or more violations of the rules of the registered clearing agency; or
(ii) Acts or practices constituting a statutory disqualification of a type defined in paragraph (iv) or (v) (except prior convictions) of section 3(a)(39) of the Act.
(2) However, if a registered clearing agency fee schedule specifies certain charges for errors made by its participants in giving instructions to the registered clearing agency which are de minimis on a per error basis, and whose purpose is, in part, to provide revenues to the clearing agency to compensate it for effort expended in beginning to process an erroneous instruction, such error charges shall not be considered a final disciplinary action for purposes of this paragraph (b).
(c) Contents of final disciplinary action notice. Any notice filed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section shall consist of the following, as appropriate:
(1) The name of the respondent and the respondent’s last known address, as reflected on the records of the clearing agency, and the name of the person, committee, or other organizational unit that brought the charges. However, identifying information as to any respondent found not to have violated a provision covered by a charge may be deleted insofar as the notice reports the disposition of that charge and, prior to the filing of the notice, the respondent does not request that identifying information be included in the notice;
(2) A statement describing the investigative or other origin of the action;
(3) As charged in the proceeding, the specific provision or provisions of the rules of the clearing agency violated by the respondent, or the statutory disqualification referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and a statement describing the answer of the respondent to the charges;
(4) A statement setting forth findings of fact with respect to any act or practice in which the respondent was charged with having engaged in or omitted; the conclusion of the clearing agency as to whether the respondent violated any rule or was subject to a statutory disqualification as charged; and a statement of the clearing agency in support of its resolution of the principal issues raised in the proceedings;
(5) A statement describing any sanction imposed, the reasons therefor, and the date upon which the sanction became or will become effective; and
(6) Such other matters as the clearing agency may deem relevant.
(d) Notice of final denial, prohibition, termination or limitation based on qualification or administrative rules. (1) Any registered clearing agency, for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, that takes any final action that denies or conditions the participation of any person, or prohibits or limits access, to services offered by the clearing agency, shall promptly file notice thereof with the Board (and the appropriate regulatory agency, if other than the Board, for the affected person) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section; but such action shall not be considered a final disciplinary action for purposes of paragraph (b) of this section where the action is based on an alleged failure of such person to:
(i) Comply with the qualification standards prescribed by the rules of the registered clearing agency pursuant to section 17A(b)(4)(B) of the Act; or
(ii) Comply with any administrative requirements of the registered clearing agency (including failure to pay entry or other dues or fees, or to file prescribed forms or reports) not involving charges of violations that may lead to a disciplinary sanction.
(2) However, no such action shall be considered final pursuant to this paragraph (d) that results merely from a notice of such failure to comply to the person affected, if such person has not sought an adjudication of the matter, including a hearing, or otherwise exhausted the administrative remedies within the registered clearing agency with respect to such a matter.
(e) Contents of notice required by paragraph (d) of this section. Any notice filed pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section shall consist of the following, as appropriate:
(1) The name of each person concerned and each person’s last known address, as reflected in the records of the clearing agency;
(2) The specific grounds upon which the action of the clearing agency was based, and a statement describing the answer of the person concerned;
(3) A statement setting forth findings of fact and conclusions as to each alleged failure of the person to comply with qualification standards or administrative obligations, and a statement of the clearing agency in support of its resolution of the principal issues raised in the proceeding;
(4) The date upon which such action became or will become effective; and
(5) Such other matters as the clearing agency deems relevant.
(f) Notice of final action based on prior adjudicated statutory disqualifications. Any registered clearing agency for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency that takes any final action shall promptly file notice thereof with the Board (and the appropriate regulatory agency, if other than the Board, for the affected person) in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, where the final action:
(1) Denies or conditions participation to any person, or prohibits or limits access to services offered by the clearing agency; and
(2) Is based upon a statutory disqualification of a type defined in paragraph (A), (B) or (C) of section 3(a)(39) of the Act, consisting of a prior conviction, as described in subparagraph (E) of section 3(a)(39) of the Act. However, no such action shall be considered final pursuant to this paragraph (f) that results merely from a notice of such disqualification to the person affected, if such person has not sought an adjudication of the matter, including a hearing, or otherwise exhausted the administrative remedies within the clearing agency with respect to such a matter.
(g) Contents of notice required by paragraph (f) of this section. Any notice filed pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section shall consist of the following, as appropriate:
(1) The name of each person concerned and each person’s last known address, as reflected in the records of the clearing agency;
(2) A statement setting forth the principal issues raised, the answer of any person concerned, and a statement of the clearing agency in support of its resolution of the principal issues raised in the proceeding;
(3) Any description furnished by or on behalf of the person concerned of the activities engaged in by the person since the adjudication upon which the disqualification is based;
(4) A copy of the order or decision of the court, appropriate regulatory agency, or self-regulatory organization that adjudicated the matter giving rise to the statutory disqualification;
(5) The nature of the action taken and the date upon which such action is to be made effective; and
(6) Such other matters as the clearing agency deems relevant.
(h) Notice of summary suspension of participation. Any registered clearing agency for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency that summarily suspends or closes the accounts of a participant pursuant to the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C) of the Act shall, within one business day after such action becomes effective, file notice thereof with the Board and the appropriate regulatory agency for the participant, if other than the Board, of such action in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
(i) Contents of notice of summary suspension. Any notice pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section shall contain at least the following information, as appropriate:
(1) The name of the participant concerned and the participant’s last known address, as reflected in the records of the clearing agency;
(2) The date upon which the summary action became or will become effective;
(3) If the summary action is based upon the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C)(i) of the Act, a copy of the relevant order or decision of the self-regulatory organization, if available to the clearing agency;
(4) If the summary action is based upon the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C)(ii) of the Act, a statement describing the default of any delivery of funds or securities to the clearing agency;
(5) If the summary action is based upon the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C)(iii) of the Act, a statement describing the financial or operating difficulty of the participant based upon which the clearing agency determined that the suspension and closing of accounts was necessary for the protection of the clearing agency, its participants, creditors, or investors;
(6) The nature and effective date of the suspension; and
(7) Such other matters as the clearing agency deems relevant.
§ 208.33 Application for stay or review of disciplinary sanctions imposed by registered clearing agency.
(a) Stays. The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) pursuant to section 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-2) apply to applications by member banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the Board.
(b) Reviews. The regulations adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 19 of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for reviews of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-3(a)-(f)) apply to applications by member banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the Board. The Board’s Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 263) apply to review proceedings under this § 208.33 to the extent not inconsistent with this § 208.33.
§ 208.34 Recordkeeping and confirmation of certain securities transactions effected by State member banks.
(a) Exceptions and safe and sound operations. (1) A State member bank may be excepted from one or more of the requirements of this section if it meets one of the following conditions of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section:
(i) De minimis transactions. The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(4) and paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this section shall not apply to banks having an average of less than 200 securities transactions per year for customers over the prior three calendar year period, exclusive of transactions in government securities;
(ii) Government securities. The recordkeeping requirements of paragraph (c) of this section shall not apply to banks effecting fewer than 500 government securities brokerage transactions per year; provided that this exception shall not apply to government securities transactions by a State member bank that has filed a written notice, or is required to file notice, with the Federal Reserve Board that it acts as a government securities broker or a government securities dealer;
(iii) Municipal securities. The municipal securities activities of a State member bank that are subject to regulations promulgated by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board shall not be subject to the requirements of this section; and
(iv) Foreign branches. The requirements of this section shall not apply to the activities of foreign branches of a State member bank.
(2) Every State member bank qualifying for an exemption under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that conducts securities transactions for customers shall, to ensure safe and sound operations, maintain effective systems of records and controls regarding its customer securities transactions that clearly and accurately reflect appropriate information and provide an adequate basis for an audit of the information.
(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Asset-backed security shall mean a security that is serviced primarily by the cash flows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period plus any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders.
(2) Collective investment fund shall mean funds held by a State member bank as fiduciary and, consistent with local law, invested collectively as follows:
(i) In a common trust fund maintained by such bank exclusively for the collective investment and reinvestment of monies contributed thereto by the bank in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act; or
(ii) In a fund consisting solely of assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus or similar trusts which are exempt from Federal income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.).
(3) Completion of the transaction effected by or through a state member bank shall mean:
(i) For purchase transactions, the time when the customer pays the bank any part of the purchase price (or the time when the bank makes the book-entry for any part of the purchase price if applicable); however, if the customer pays for the security prior to the time payment is requested or becomes due, then the transaction shall be completed when the bank transfers the security into the account of the customer; and
(ii) For sale transactions, the time when the bank transfers the security out of the account of the customer or, if the security is not in the bank’s custody, then the time when the security is delivered to the bank; however, if the customer delivers the security to the bank prior to the time delivery is requested or becomes due then the transaction shall be completed when the banks makes payment into the account of the customer.
(4) Crossing of buy and sell orders shall mean a security transaction in which the same bank acts as agent for both the buyer and the seller.
(5) Customer shall mean any person or account, including any agency, trust, estate, guardianship, or other fiduciary account, for which a State member bank effects or participates in effecting the purchase or sale of securities, but shall not include a broker, dealer, bank acting as a broker or dealer, municipal securities broker or dealer, or issuer of the securities which are the subject of the transactions.
(6) Debt security as used in paragraph (c) of this section shall mean any security, such as a bond, debenture, note or any other similar instrument which evidences a liability of the issuer (including any security of this type that is convertible into stock or similar security) and fractional or participation interests in one or more of any of the foregoing; provided, however, that securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., shall not be included in this definition.
(7) Government security shall mean:
(i) A security that is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States;
(ii) A security that is issued or guaranteed by a corporation in which the United States has a direct or indirect interest and which is designated by the Secretary of the Treasury for exemption as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors;
(iii) A security issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by any corporation whose securities are designated, by statute specifically naming the corporation, to constitute exempt securities within the meaning of the laws administered by the Securities and Exchange Commission; or
(iv) Any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a security as described in paragraphs (b)(7) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this section other than a put, call, straddle, option, or privilege that is traded on one or more national securities exchanges, or for which quotations are disseminated though an automated quotation system operated by a registered securities association.
(8) Investment discretion with respect to an account shall mean if the State member bank, directly or indirectly, is authorized to determine what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account, or makes decisions as to what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account even though some other person may have responsibility for such investment decisions.
(9) Municipal security shall mean a security which is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States, or any security which is an industrial development bond (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 103(c)(2) the interest on which is excludable from gross income under 26 U.S.C. 103(a)(1), by reason of the application of paragraph (4) or (6) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) (determined as if paragraphs (4)(A), (5) and (7) were not included in 26 U.S.C. 103(c)), paragraph (1) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) does not apply to such security.
(10) Periodic plan shall mean:
(i) A written authorization for a State member bank to act as agent to purchase or sell for a customer a specific security or securities, in a specific amount (calculated in security units or dollars) or to the extent of dividends and funds available, at specific time intervals, and setting forth the commission or charges to be paid by the customer or the manner of calculating them (including dividend reinvestment plans, automatic investment plans, and employee stock purchase plans); or
(ii) Any prearranged, automatic transfer or sweep of funds from a deposit account to purchase a security, or any prearranged, automatic redemption or sale of a security with the funds being transferred into a deposit account (including cash management sweep services).
(11) Security shall mean:
(i) Any note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement or in any oil, gas, or other mineral royalty or lease, any collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, for a security, any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on any security, or group or index of securities (including any interest therein or based on the value thereof), any instrument commonly known as a “security”; or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing.
(ii) But does not include a deposit or share account in a federally or state insured depository institution, a loan participation, a letter of credit or other form of bank indebtedness incurred in the ordinary course of business, currency, any note, draft, bill of exchange, or bankers acceptance which has a maturity at the time of issuance of not exceeding nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited, units of a collective investment fund, interests in a variable amount (master) note of a borrower of prime credit, or U.S. Savings Bonds.
(c) Recordkeeping. Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, every State member bank effecting securities transactions for customers, including transactions in government securities, and municipal securities transactions by banks not subject to registration as municipal securities dealers, shall maintain the following records with respect to such transactions for at least three years. Nothing contained in this section shall require a bank to maintain the records required by this paragraph in any given manner, provided that the information required to be shown is clearly and accurately reflected and provides an adequate basis for the audit of such information. Records may be maintained in hard copy, automated, or electronic form provided the records are easily retrievable, readily available for inspection, and capable of being reproduced in a hard copy. A bank may contract with third party service providers, including broker/dealers, to maintain records required under this part.
(1) Chronological records of original entry containing an itemized daily record of all purchases and sales of securities. The records of original entry shall show the account or customer for which each such transaction was effected, the description of the securities, the unit and aggregate purchase or sale price (if any), the trade date and the name or other designation of the broker/dealer or other person from whom purchased or to whom sold;
(2) Account records for each customer which shall reflect all purchases and sales of securities, all receipts and deliveries of securities, and all receipts and disbursements of cash with respect to transactions in securities for such account and all other debits and credits pertaining to transactions in securities;
(3) A separate memorandum (order ticket) of each order to purchase or sell securities (whether executed or canceled), which shall include:
(i) The account(s) for which the transaction was effected;
(ii) Whether the transaction was a market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions;
(iii) The time the order was received by the trader or other bank employee responsible for effecting the transaction;
(iv) The time the order was placed with the broker/dealer, or if there was no broker/dealer, the time the order was executed or canceled;
(v) The price at which the order was executed; and
(vi) The broker/dealer utilized;
(4) A record of all broker/dealers selected by the bank to effect securities transactions and the amount of commissions paid or allocated to each such broker during the calendar year; and
(5) A copy of the written notification required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
(d) Content and time of notification. Every State member bank effecting a securities transaction for a customer shall give or send to such customer either of the following types of notifications at or before completion of the transaction or; if the bank uses a broker/dealer’s confirmation, within one business day from the bank’s receipt of the broker/dealer’s confirmation:
(1) A copy of the confirmation of a broker/dealer relating to the securities transaction; and if the bank is to receive remuneration from the customer or any other source in connection with the transaction, and the remuneration is not determined pursuant to a prior written agreement between the bank and the customer, a statement of the source and the amount of any remuneration to be received; or
(2) A written notification disclosing:
(i) The name of the bank;
(ii) The name of the customer;
(iii) Whether the bank is acting as agent for such customer, as agent for both such customer and some other person, as principal for its own account, or in any other capacity;
(iv) The date of execution and a statement that the time of execution will be furnished within a reasonable time upon written request of such customer specifying the identity, price and number of shares or units (or principal amount in the case of debt securities) of such security purchased or sold by such customer;
(v) The amount of any remuneration received or to be received, directly or indirectly, by any broker/dealer from such customer in connection with the transaction;
(vi) The amount of any remuneration received or to be received by the bank from the customer and the source and amount of any other remuneration to be received by the bank in connection with the transaction, unless remuneration is determined pursuant to a written agreement between the bank and the customer, provided, however, in the case of Government securities and municipal securities, this paragraph (d)(2)(vi) shall apply only with respect to remuneration received by the bank in an agency transaction. If the bank elects not to disclose the source and amount of remuneration it has or will receive from a party other than the customer pursuant to this paragraph (d)(2)(vi), the written notification must disclose whether the bank has received or will receive remuneration from a party other than the customer, and that the bank will furnish within a reasonable time the source and amount of this remuneration upon written request of the customer. This election is not available, however, if, with respect to a purchase, the bank was participating in a distribution of that security; or with respect to a sale, the bank was participating in a tender offer for that security;
(vii) The name of the broker/dealer utilized; or, where there is no broker/dealer, the name of the person from whom the security was purchased or to whom it was sold, or the fact that such information will be furnished within a reasonable time upon written request;
(viii) In the case of a transaction in a debt security subject to redemption before maturity, a statement to the effect that the debt security may be redeemed in whole or in part before maturity, that the redemption could affect the yield represented and that additional information is available on request;
(ix) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected exclusively on the basis of a dollar price:
(A) The dollar price at which the transaction was effected;
(B) The yield to maturity calculated from the dollar price; provided, however, that this paragraph (c)(2)(ix)(B) shall not apply to a transaction in a debt security that either has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer with a variable interest payable thereon, or is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject to continuous prepayment;
(x) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected on the basis of yield:
(A) The yield at which the transaction was effected, including the percentage amount and its characterization (e.g., current yield, yield to maturity, or yield to call) and if effected at yield to call, the type of call, the call date, and the call price; and
(B) The dollar price calculated from the yield at which the transaction was effected; and
(C) If effected on a basis other than yield to maturity and the yield to maturity is lower than the represented yield, the yield to maturity as well as the represented yield; provided, however, that this paragraph (c)(2)(x)(C) shall not apply to a transaction in a debt security that either has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer with a variable interest rate payable thereon, or is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject to continuous prepayment;
(xi) In the case of a transaction in a debt security that is an asset-backed security which represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment, a statement indicating that the actual yield of such asset-backed security may vary according to the rate at which the underlying receivables or other financial assets are prepaid and a statement of the fact that information concerning the factors that affect yield (including at a minimum, the estimated yield, weighted average life, and the prepayment assumptions underlying yield) will be furnished upon written request of such customer; and
(xii) In the case of a transaction in a debt security, other than a government security, that the security is unrated by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization, if that is the case.
(e) Notification by agreement; alternative forms and times of notification. A State member bank may elect to use the following alternative procedures if a transaction is effected for:
(1) Accounts (except periodic plans) where the bank does not exercise investment discretion and the bank and the customer agree in writing to a different arrangement as to the time and content of the notification; provided, however, that such agreement makes clear the customer’s right to receive the written notification pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section at no additional cost to the customer;
(2) Accounts (except collective investment funds) where the bank exercises investment discretion in other than an agency capacity, in which instance the bank shall, upon request of the person having the power to terminate the account or, if there is no such person, upon the request of any person holding a vested beneficial interest in such account, give or send to such person the written notification within a reasonable time. The bank may charge such person a reasonable fee for providing this information;
(3) Accounts, where the bank exercises investment discretion in an agency capacity, in which instance:
(i) The bank shall give or send to each customer not less frequently than once every three months an itemized statement which shall specify the funds and securities in the custody or possession of the bank at the end of such period and all debits, credits and transactions in the customer’s accounts during such period; and
(ii) If requested by the customer, the bank shall give or send to each customer within a reasonable time the written notification described in paragraph (c) of this section. The bank may charge a reasonable fee for providing the information described in paragraph (c) of this section;
(4) A collective investment fund, in which instance the bank shall at least annually furnish a copy of a financial report of the fund, or provide notice that a copy of such report is available and will be furnished upon request, to each person to whom a regular periodic accounting would ordinarily be rendered with respect to each participating account. This report shall be based upon an audit made by independent public accountants or internal auditors responsible only to the board of directors of the bank;
(5) A periodic plan, in which instance the bank:
(i) Shall (except for a cash management sweep service) give or send to the customer a written statement not less than every three months if there are no securities transactions in the account, showing the customer’s funds and securities in the custody or possession of the bank; all service charges and commissions paid by the customer in connection with the transaction; and all other debits and credits of the customer’s account involved in the transaction; or
(ii) Shall for a cash management sweep service or similar periodic plan as defined in § 208.34(b)(10)(ii) give or send its customer a written statement in the same form as prescribed in paragraph (e)(3) above for each month in which a purchase or sale of a security takes place in a deposit account and not less than once every three months if there are no securities transactions in the account subject to any other applicable laws or regulations;
(6) Upon the written request of the customer the bank shall furnish the information described in paragraph (d) of this section, except that any such information relating to remuneration paid in connection with the transaction need not be provided to the customer when paid by a source other than the customer. The bank may charge a reasonable fee for providing the information described in paragraph (d) of this section.
(f) Settlement of securities transactions. All contracts for the purchase or sale of a security shall provide for completion of the transaction within the number of business days in the standard settlement cycle for the security followed by registered broker dealers in the United States unless otherwise agreed to by the parties at the time of the transaction.
(g) Securities trading policies and procedures. Every State member bank effecting securities transactions for customers shall establish written policies and procedures providing:
(1) Assignment of responsibility for supervision of all officers or employees who:
(i) Transmit orders to or place orders with broker/dealers;
(ii) Execute transactions in securities for customers; or
(iii) Process orders for notification and/or settlement purposes, or perform other back office functions with respect to securities transactions effected for customers; provided that procedures established under this paragraph (g)(1)(iii) should provide for supervision and reporting lines that are separate from supervision of personnel under paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(ii) of this section;
(2) For the fair and equitable allocation of securities and prices to accounts when orders for the same security are received at approximately the same time and are placed for execution either individually or in combination;
(3) Where applicable and where permissible under local law, for the crossing of buy and sell orders on a fair and equitable basis to the parties to the transaction; and
(4) That bank officers and employees who make investment recommendations or decisions for the accounts of customers, who participate in the determination of such recommendations or decisions, or who, in connection with their duties, obtain information concerning which securities are being purchased or sold or recommended for such action, must report to the bank, within ten days after the end of the calendar quarter, all transactions in securities made by them or on their behalf, either at the bank or elsewhere in which they have a beneficial interest. The report shall identify the securities purchased or sold and indicate the dates of the transactions and whether the transactions were purchases or sales. Excluded from this requirement are transactions for the benefit of the officer or employee over which the officer or employee has no direct or indirect influence or control, transactions in mutual fund shares, and all transactions involving in the aggregate $10,000 or less during the calendar quarter. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(4), the term securities does not include government securities.
§ 208.35 Qualification requirements for transactions in certain securities. [Reserved]
§ 208.36 Reporting requirements for State member banks subject to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
(a) Filing, disclosure and other requirements – (1) General. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a member bank whose securities are subject to registration pursuant to section 12(b) or section 12(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the 1934 Act) (15 U.S.C. 78l(b) and (g)) shall comply with the rules, regulations and forms adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (Commission) pursuant to –
(i) Sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f) and 16 of the 1934 Act (15 U.S.C. 78f(m), 78l, 78m, 78n(a), (c), (d) and (f), and 78p); and
(ii) Sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406 and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (codified at 15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264 and 7265).
(2) References to the Commission. Any references to the “Securities and Exchange Commission” or the “Commission” in the rules, regulations and forms described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall with respect to securities issued by member banks be deemed to refer to the Board unless the context otherwise requires.
(b) Elections permitted for member banks with total assets of $150 million or less. (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section or the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission pursuant to the 1934 Act a member bank that has total assets of $150 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year, and no foreign offices, may elect to substitute for the financial statements required by the Commission’s Form 10-Q, the balance sheet and income statement from the quarterly report of condition required to be filed by the bank with the Board under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 324) (Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Form 033 or 034).
(2) A member bank qualifying for and electing to file financial statements from its quarterly report of condition pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section in its form 10-Q shall include earnings per share or net loss per share data prepared in accordance with GAAP and disclose any material contingencies, as required by Article 10 of the Commission’s Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.10-01), in the Management’s Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operations section of Form 10-Q.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a member bank may, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, make the election described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if it has no foreign offices and had total assets of $150 million or less, determined based on the lesser of total assets as of December 31, 2019, and total assets as of the end of the bank’s most recent fiscal year. The relief provided under this paragraph (b)(3) of this section does not apply to a member bank if the Board determines that permitting the member bank to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the member bank. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the member bank since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the member bank has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the member bank. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (b)(3), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
(c) Required filings – (1) Place and timing of filing. All papers required to be filed with the Board, pursuant to the 1934 Act or regulations thereunder, shall be submitted to the Division of Banking Supervision and Regulation, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551. Material may be filed by delivery to the Board, through the mails, or otherwise. The date on which papers are actually received by the Board shall be the date of filing thereof if all of the requirements with respect to the filing have been complied with.
(2) Filing fees. No filing fees specified by the Commission’s rules shall be paid to the Board.
(3) Public inspection. Copies of the registration statement, definitive proxy solicitation materials, reports, and annual reports to shareholders required by this section (exclusive of exhibits) shall be available for public inspection at the Board’s offices in Washington, DC, as well as at the Federal Reserve Banks of New York, Chicago, and San Francisco and at the Reserve Bank in the district in which the reporting bank is located.
(d) Confidentiality of filing. Any person filing any statement, report, or document under the 1934 Act may make written objection to the public disclosure of any information contained therein in accordance with the following procedure:
(1) The person shall omit from the statement, report, or document, when it is filed, the portion thereof that the person desires to keep undisclosed (hereinafter called the confidential portion). The person shall indicate at the appropriate place in the statement, report, or document that the confidential portion has been omitted and filed separately with the Board.
(2) The person shall file the following with the copies of the statement, report, or document filed with the Board:
(i) As many copies of the confidential portion, each clearly marked “CONFIDENTIAL TREATMENT,” as there are copies of the statement, report, or document filed with the Board. Each copy of the confidential portion shall contain the complete text of the item and, notwithstanding that the confidential portion does not constitute the whole of the answer, the entire answer thereto; except that in case the confidential portion is part of a financial statement or schedule, only the particular financial statement or schedule need be included. All copies of the confidential portion shall be in the same form as the remainder of the statement, report, or document; and
(ii) An application making objection to the disclosure of the confidential portion. The application shall be on a sheet or sheets separate from the confidential portion, and shall:
(A) Identify the portion of the statement, report, or document that has been omitted;
(B) Include a statement of the grounds of objection; and
(C) Include the name of each exchange, if any, with which the statement, report, or document is filed.
(3) The copies of the confidential portion and the application filed in accordance with this paragraph shall be enclosed in a separate envelope marked “CONFIDENTIAL TREATMENT,” and addressed to Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
(4) Pending determination by the Board on the objection filed in accordance with this paragraph, the confidential portion shall not be disclosed by the Board.
(5) If the Board determines to sustain the objection, a notation to that effect shall be made at the appropriate place in the statement, report, or document.
(6) If the Board determines not to sustain the objection because disclosure of the confidential portion is in the public interest, a finding and determination to that effect shall be entered and notice of the finding and determination sent by registered or certified mail to the person.
(7) If the Board determines not to sustain the objection, pursuant to paragraph (d)(6) of this section, the confidential portion shall be made available to the public:
(i) 15 days after notice of the Board’s determination not to sustain the objection has been given, as required by paragraph (d)(6) of this section, provided that the person filing the objection has not previously filed with the Board a written statement that he intends, in good faith, to seek judicial review of the finding and determination; or
(ii) 60 days after notice of the Board’s determination not to sustain the objection has been given as required by paragraph (d)(6) of this section and the person filing the objection has filed with the Board a written statement of intent to seek judicial review of the finding and determination, but has failed to file a petition for judicial review of the Board’s determination; or
(iii) Upon final judicial determination, if adverse to the party filing the objection.
(8) If the confidential portion is made available to the public, a copy thereof shall be attached to each copy of the statement, report, or document filed with the Board.
§ 208.37 Government securities sales practices.
(a) Scope. This subpart is applicable to state member banks that have filed notice as, or are required to file notice as, government securities brokers or dealers pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401).
(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Bank that is a government securities broker or dealer means a state member bank that has filed notice, or is required to file notice, as a government securities broker or dealer pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and Part 401).
(2) Customer does not include a broker or dealer or a government securities broker or dealer.
(3) Government security has the same meaning as this term has in section 3(a)(42) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(42)).
(4) Non-institutional customer means any customer other than:
(i) A bank, savings association, insurance company, or registered investment company;
(ii) An investment adviser registered under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3); or
(iii) Any entity (whether a natural person, corporation, partnership, trust, or otherwise) with total assets of at least $50 million.
(c) Business conduct. A bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall observe high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of its business as a government securities broker or dealer.
(d) Recommendations to customers. In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of a government security, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer’s other security holdings and as to the customer’s financial situation and needs.
(e) Customer information. Prior to the execution of a transaction recommended to a non-institutional customer, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall make reasonable efforts to obtain information concerning:
(1) The customer’s financial status;
(2) The customer’s tax status;
(3) The customer’s investment objectives; and
(4) Such other information used or considered to be reasonable by the bank in making recommendations to the customer.
Subpart D – Prompt Corrective Action
(a) Authority. Subpart D of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, Subpart D) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 38 (section 38) of the FDI Act as added by section 131 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)) (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart D defines the capital measures and capital levels that are used for determining the supervisory actions authorized under section 38 of the FDI Act. (Section 38 of the FDI Act establishes a framework of supervisory actions for insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized.) This subpart also establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of directives and orders pursuant to section 38. Certain of the provisions of this subpart apply to officers, directors, and employees of state member banks. Other provisions apply to any company that controls a member bank and to the affiliates of the member bank.
(c) Other supervisory authority. Neither section 38 nor this subpart in any way limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, violations of law, or other practices. Action under section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the Board, including issuance of cease and desist orders, capital directives, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.
(d) Disclosure of capital categories. The assignment of a bank under this subpart within a particular capital category is for purposes of implementing and applying the provisions of section 38. Unless permitted by the Board or otherwise required by law, no bank may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this subpart or that the Board or any other Federal banking agency has assigned the bank to a particular capital category.
(e) Timing. The calculation of the definitions of common equity tier 1 capital, the common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, the leverage ratio, the supplementary leverage ratio, tangible equity, tier 1 capital, the tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, total assets, total leverage exposure, the total risk-based capital ratio, and total risk-weighted assets under this subpart is subject to the timing provisions at 12 CFR 217.1(f) and the transitions at 12 CFR part 217, subpart G.
§ 208.41 Definitions for purposes of this subpart.
For purposes of this subpart, except as modified in this section or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in section 38 and section 3 of the FDI Act.
(a) Advanced approaches bank means a bank that is described in § 217.100(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.100(b)(1)).
(b) Bank means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
(c) Common equity tier 1 capital means the amount of capital as defined in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(d) Common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of common equity tier 1 capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(1) or § 217.10(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10(b)(1), 12 CFR 217.10(c)(1)), as applicable.
(e) Control – (1) Control has the same meaning assigned to it in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841), and the term controlled shall be construed consistently with the term control.
(2) Exclusion for fiduciary ownership. No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares in a fiduciary capacity. Shares shall not be deemed to have been acquired in a fiduciary capacity if the acquiring insured depository institution or company has sole discretionary authority to exercise voting rights with respect to the shares.
(3) Exclusion for debts previously contracted. No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares acquired in securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, until two years after the date of acquisition. The two-year period may be extended at the discretion of the appropriate Federal banking agency for up to three one-year periods.
(f) Controlling person means any person having control of an insured depository institution and any company controlled by that person.
(g) Global systemically important BHC has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(h) Leverage ratio means the ratio of tier 1 capital to average total consolidated assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10).
(i) Management fee means any payment of money or provision of any other thing of value to a company or individual for the provision of management services or advice to the bank, or related overhead expenses, including payments related to supervisory, executive, managerial, or policy making functions, other than compensation to an individual in the individual’s capacity as an officer or employee of the bank.
(j) Supplementary leverage ratio means the ratio of tier 1 capital to total leverage exposure, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10).
(k) Tangible equity means the amount of tier 1 capital, plus the amount of outstanding perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) not included in tier 1 capital.
(l) Tier 1 capital means the amount of capital as defined in § 217.20 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20).
(m) Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of tier 1 capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(2) or § 217.10(c)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10(b)(2), 12 CFR 217.10(c)(2)), as applicable.
(n) Total assets means quarterly average total assets as reported in a bank’s Call Report, minus items deducted from tier 1 capital. At its discretion the Federal Reserve may calculate total assets using a bank’s period-end assets rather than quarterly average assets.
(o) Total leverage exposure means the total leverage exposure, as calculated in accordance with § 217.11 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.11).
(p) Total risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of total capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(3) or § 217.10(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10(b)(3), 12 CFR 217.10(c)(3)), as applicable.
(q) Total risk-weighted assets means standardized total risk-weighted assets, and for an advanced approaches bank also includes advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, as defined in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
§ 208.42 Notice of capital category.
(a) Effective date of determination of capital category. A member bank shall be deemed to be within a given capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart as of the date the bank is notified of, or is deemed to have notice of, its capital category, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Notice of capital category. A member bank shall be deemed to have been notified of its capital levels and its capital category as of the most recent date:
(1) A Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) is required to be filed with the Board;
(2) A final report of examination is delivered to the bank; or
(3) Written notice is provided by the Board to the bank of its capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart or that the bank’s capital category has changed as provided in paragraph (c) of this section or § 208.43(c).
(c) Adjustments to reported capital levels and capital category – (1) Notice of adjustment by bank. A member bank shall provide the Board with written notice that an adjustment to the bank’s capital category may have occurred no later than 15 calendar days following the date that any material event occurred that would cause the bank to be placed in a lower capital category from the category assigned to the bank for purposes of section 38 and this subpart on the basis of the bank’s most recent Call Report or report of examination.
(2) Determination by Board to change capital category. After receiving notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board shall determine whether to change the capital category of the bank and shall notify the bank of the Board’s determination.
§ 208.43 Capital measures and capital category definitions.
(a) Capital measures. (1) For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart, the relevant capital measures are:
(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The total risk-based capital ratio;
(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The tier 1 risk-based capital ratio;
(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio; and
(iv) Leverage Measure:
(A) The leverage ratio; and
(B) With respect to an advanced approaches bank, on January 1, 2018, and thereafter, the supplementary leverage ratio.
(C) With respect to any bank that is a subsidiary (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter) of a global systemically important BHC, on Jan. 1, 2018, and thereafter, the supplementary leverage ratio.
(2) For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), the leverage ratio calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter is used to determine the well capitalized capital category under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section.
(b) Capital categories. For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart, a member bank is deemed to be:
(1)(i) “Well capitalized” if:
(A) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater; and
(B) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and
(C) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.5 percent or greater; and
(D) Leverage Measure:
(1) The bank has a leverage ratio of 5.0 percent or greater; and
(2) Beginning on January 1, 2018, with respect to any bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC under the definition of “subsidiary” in § 217.2 of this chapter, the bank has a supplementary leverage ratio of 6.0 percent or greater; and
(E) The bank is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the Board pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3907), or section 38 of the FDI Act, or any regulation thereunder, to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
(ii) A qualifying community banking organization, as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter, that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under § 217.12 of this chapter, shall be considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section.
(2) “Adequately capitalized” if:
(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater;
(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater;
(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 4.5 percent or greater;
(iv) Leverage Measure:
(A) The bank has a leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
(B) With respect to an advanced approaches bank or bank that is a Category III Board-regulated institution (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter), the bank has a supplementary leverage ratio of 3.0 percent or greater; and
(v) The bank does not meet the definition of a “well capitalized” bank.
(3) “Undercapitalized” if:
(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of less than 8.0 percent;
(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 6.0 percent;
(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 4.5 percent; or
(iv) Leverage Measure:
(A) The bank has a leverage ratio of less than 4.0 percent; or
(B) With respect to an advanced approaches bank or bank that is a Category III Board-regulated institution (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter), the bank has a supplementary leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent.
(4) “Significantly undercapitalized” if:
(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of less than 6.0 percent;
(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 4.0 percent;
(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 3.0 percent; or
(iv) Leverage Measure: the bank has a leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent.
(5) “Critically undercapitalized” if the bank has a ratio of tangible equity to total assets that is equal to or less than 2.0 percent.
(c) Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than capital. The Board may reclassify a well capitalized member bank as adequately capitalized and may require an adequately-capitalized or an undercapitalized member bank to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the bank were in the next lower capital category (except that the Board may not reclassify a significantly undercapitalized bank as critically undercapitalized) (each of these actions are hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassifications”) in the following circumstances:
(1) Unsafe or unsound condition. The Board has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to 12 CFR 263.203, that the bank is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
(2) Unsafe or unsound practice. The Board has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to 12 CFR 263.203, that, in the most recent examination of the bank, the bank received and has not corrected, a less-than-satisfactory rating for any of the categories of asset quality, management, earnings, liquidity, or sensitivity to market risk.
§ 208.44 Capital restoration plans.
(a) Schedule for filing plan – (1) In general. A member bank shall file a written capital restoration plan with the appropriate Reserve Bank within 45 days of the date that the bank receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless the Board notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. An adequately capitalized bank that has been required, pursuant to § 208.43(c), to comply with supervisory actions as if the bank were undercapitalized is not required to submit a capital restoration plan solely by virtue of the reclassification.
(2) Additional capital restoration plans. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a bank that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved under section 38 and this subpart is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a revised calculation of its capital measures or a reclassification of the institution under § 208.43(c), unless the Board notifies the bank that it must submit a new or revised capital plan. A bank that is notified that it must submit a new or revised capital restoration plan shall file the plan in writing with the appropriate Reserve Bank within 45 days of receiving such notice, unless the Board notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.
(b) Contents of plan. All financial data submitted in connection with a capital restoration plan shall be prepared in accordance with the instructions provided on the Call Report, unless the Board instructs otherwise. The capital restoration plan shall include all of the information required to be filed under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act. A bank that is required to submit a capital restoration plan as the result of a reclassification of the bank pursuant to § 208.43(c) shall include a description of the steps the bank will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice. No plan shall be accepted unless it includes any performance guarantee described in section 38(e)(2)(C) of that Act by each company that controls the bank.
(c) Review of capital restoration plans. Within 60 days after receiving a capital restoration plan under this subpart, the Board shall provide written notice to the bank of whether the plan has been approved. The Board may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan shall be provided.
(d) Disapproval of capital plan. If the Board does not approve a capital restoration plan, the bank shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the Board. Upon receiving notice that its capital restoration plan has not been approved, any undercapitalized member bank (as defined in § 208.43(b)(3)) shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions. These provisions shall be applicable until such time as the Board approves a new or revised capital restoration plan submitted by the bank.
(e) Failure to submit capital restoration plan. A member bank that is undercapitalized (as defined in § 208.43(b)(3)) and that fails to submit a written capital restoration plan within the period provided in this section shall, upon the expiration of that period, be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
(f) Failure to implement capital restoration plan. Any undercapitalized member bank that fails in any material respect to implement a capital restoration plan shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
(g) Amendment of capital plan. A bank that has filed an approved capital restoration plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the Board, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank shall implement the capital restoration plan as approved prior to the proposed amendment.
(h) Notice to FDIC. Within 45 days of the effective date of Board approval of a capital restoration plan, or any amendment to a capital restoration plan, the Board shall provide a copy of the plan or amendment to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
(i) Performance guarantee by companies that control a bank – (1) Limitation on Liability – (i) Amount limitation. The aggregate liability under the guarantee provided under section 38 and this subpart for all companies that control a specific member bank that is required to submit a capital restoration plan under this subpart shall be limited to the lesser of:
(A) An amount equal to 5.0 percent of the bank’s total assets at the time the bank was notified or deemed to have notice that the bank was undercapitalized; or
(B) The amount necessary to restore the relevant capital measures of the bank to the levels required for the bank to be classified as adequately capitalized, as those capital measures and levels are defined at the time that the bank initially fails to comply with a capital restoration plan under this subpart.
(ii) Limit on duration. The guarantee and limit of liability under section 38 and this subpart shall expire after the Board notifies the bank that it has remained adequately capitalized for each of four consecutive calendar quarters. The expiration or fulfillment by a company of a guarantee of a capital restoration plan shall not limit the liability of the company under any guarantee required or provided in connection with any capital restoration plan filed by the same bank after expiration of the first guarantee.
(iii) Collection on guarantee. Each company that controls a bank shall be jointly and severally liable for the guarantee for such bank as required under section 38 and this subpart, and the Board may require and collect payment of the full amount of that guarantee from any or all of the companies issuing the guarantee.
(2) Failure to provide guarantee. In the event that a bank that is controlled by a company submits a capital restoration plan that does not contain the guarantee required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act, the bank shall, upon submission of the plan, be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart that are applicable to banks that have not submitted an acceptable capital restoration plan.
(3) Failure to perform guarantee. Failure by any company that controls a bank to perform fully its guarantee of any capital plan shall constitute a material failure to implement the plan for purposes of section 38(f) of the FDI Act. Upon such failure, the bank shall be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart that are applicable to banks that have failed in a material respect to implement a capital restoration plan.
§ 208.45 Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions under section 38.
(a) Mandatory supervisory actions – (1) Provisions applicable to all banks. All member banks are subject to the restrictions contained in section 38(d) of the FDI Act on payment of capital distributions and management fees.
(2) Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized banks. Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 208.42 or § 208.44, that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
(i) Restricting payment of capital distributions and management fees (section 38(d));
(ii) Requiring that the Board monitor the condition of the bank (section 38(e)(1));
(iii) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan within the schedule established in this subpart (section 38(e)(2));
(iv) Restricting the growth of the bank’s assets (section 38(e)(3)); and
(v) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (section 3(e)(4)).
(3) Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized banks. In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 208.42 or § 208.44, that the bank is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the bank is subject to the provisions applicable to institutions that are significantly undercapitalized because the bank failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution (section 38(f)(4)).
(4) Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized banks. In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 208.32, that the bank is critically undercapitalized, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
(i) Restricting the activities of the bank (section 38(h)(1)); and
(ii) Restricting payments on subordinated debt of the bank (section 38(h)(2)).
(b) Discretionary supervisory actions. In taking any action under section 38 that is within the Board’s discretion to take in connection with: A member bank that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized, or significantly undercapitalized; an officer or director of such bank; or a company that controls such bank, the Board shall follow the procedures for issuing directives under 12 CFR 263.202 and 263.204, unless otherwise provided in section 38 or this subpart.
Subpart E – Real Estate Lending, Appraisal Standards, and Minimum Requirements for Appraisal Management Companies
§ 208.50 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. Subpart E of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart E) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to section 304 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, (12 U.S.C 1828(o)), Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act, (12 U.S.C 3331-3351), and section 1473 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, (12 U.S.C. 3353).
(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart prescribes standards for real estate lending to be used by state member banks in adopting internal real estate lending policies. The standards applicable to appraisals rendered in connection with Federally related transactions entered into by member banks and the minimum requirements for appraisal management companies are set forth in 12 CFR part 225, subparts G and M respectively (Regulation Y).
§ 208.51 Real estate lending standards.
(a) Adoption of written policies. Each state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System shall adopt and maintain written policies that establish appropriate limits and standards for extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate, or that are made for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real estate.
(b) Requirements of lending policies. (1) Real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section shall be:
(i) Consistent with safe and sound banking practices;
(ii) Appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its operations; and
(iii) Reviewed and approved by the bank’s board of directors at least annually.
(2) The lending policies shall establish:
(i) Loan portfolio diversification standards;
(ii) Prudent underwriting standards, including loan-to-value limits, that are clear and measurable;
(iii) Loan administration procedures for the bank’s real estate portfolio; and
(iv) Documentation, approval, and reporting requirements to monitor compliance with the bank’s real estate lending policies.
(c) Monitoring conditions. Each member bank shall monitor conditions in the real estate market in its lending area to ensure that its real estate lending policies continue to be appropriate for current market conditions.
(d) Interagency guidelines. The real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section should reflect consideration of the Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies (contained in appendix C of this part) established by the Federal bank and thrift supervisory agencies.
Subpart F – Miscellaneous Requirements
§ 208.60 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. Subpart F of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart F) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under sections 9, 11, 21, 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), 481-486, 601 and 611), section 7 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105), section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882), sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1), and the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5318).
(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart F describes a member bank’s obligation to implement security procedures to discourage certain crimes, to file suspicious activity reports, and to comply with the Bank Secrecy Act’s requirements for reporting and recordkeeping of currency and foreign transactions. It also describes the examination schedule for certain small insured member banks.
§ 208.61 Bank security procedures.
(a) Authority, purpose, and scope. Pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882), member banks are required to adopt appropriate security procedures to discourage robberies, burglaries, and larcenies, and to assist in the identification and prosecution of persons who commit such acts. It is the responsibility of the member bank’s board of directors to comply with the provisions of this section and ensure that a written security program for the bank’s main office and branches is developed and implemented.
(b) Designation of security officer. Upon becoming a member of the Federal Reserve System, a member bank’s board of directors shall designate a security officer who shall have the authority, subject to the approval of the board of directors, to develop, within a reasonable time, but no later than 180 days, and to administer a written security program for each banking office.
(c) Security program. (1) The security program shall:
(i) Establish procedures for opening and closing for business and for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times;
(ii) Establish procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the institution and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification and prosecution. Such procedures may include, but are not limited to: maintaining a camera that records activity in the banking office; using identification devices, such as prerecorded serial-numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices; and retaining a record of any robbery, burglary, or larceny committed against the bank;
(iii) Provide for initial and periodic training of officers and employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a burglary, robbery, or larceny; and
(iv) Provide for selecting, testing, operating, and maintaining appropriate security devices, as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(2) Security devices. Each member bank shall have, at a minimum, the following security devices:
(i) A means of protecting cash and other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space;
(ii) A lighting system for illuminating, during the hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the banking office;
(iii) Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior windows that may be opened;
(iv) An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery or burglary; and
(v) Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate, taking into consideration: the incidence of crimes against financial institutions in the area; the amount of currency and other valuables exposed to robbery, burglary, or larceny; the distance of the banking office from the nearest responsible law enforcement officers; the cost of the security devices; other security measures in effect at the banking office; and the physical characteristics of the structure of the banking office and its surroundings.
(d) Annual reports. The security officer for each member bank shall report at least annually to the bank’s board of directors on the implementation, administration, and effectiveness of the security program.
(e) Reserve Banks. Each Reserve Bank shall develop and maintain a written security program for its main office and branches subject to review and approval of the Board.
§ 208.62 Suspicious activity reports.
(a) Purpose. This section ensures that a member bank files a Suspicious Activity Report when it detects a known or suspected violation of Federal law, or a suspicious transaction related to a money laundering activity or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act. This section applies to all member banks.
(b) Definitions. For the purposes of this section:
(1) FinCEN means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network of the Department of the Treasury.
(2) Institution-affiliated party means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1786(r), or 1813(u) and 1818(b) (3), (4) or (5).
(3) SAR means a Suspicious Activity Report on the form prescribed by the Board.
(c) SARs required. A member bank shall file a SAR with the appropriate Federal law enforcement agencies and the Department of the Treasury in accordance with the form’s instructions by sending a completed SAR to FinCEN in the following circumstances:
(1) Insider abuse involving any amount. Whenever the member bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the bank has a substantial basis for identifying one of its directors, officers, employees, agents or other institution-affiliated parties as having committed or aided in the commission of a criminal act regardless of the amount involved in the violation.
(2) Violations aggregating $5,000 or more where a suspect can be identified. Whenever the member bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the bank has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. If it is determined prior to filing this report that the identified suspect or group of suspects has used an “alias,” then information regarding the true identity of the suspect or group of suspects, as well as alias identifiers, such as drivers’ licenses or social security numbers, addresses and telephone numbers, must be reported.
(3) Violations aggregating $25,000 or more regardless of a potential suspect. Whenever the member bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank and involving or aggregating $25,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, even though there is no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects.
(4) Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more that involve potential money laundering or violations of the Bank Secrecy Act. Any transaction (which for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4) means a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit, or other monetary instrument or investment security, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected) conducted or attempted by, at or through the member bank and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, if the bank knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that:
(i) The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activities or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activities (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under federal law;
(ii) The transaction is designed to evade any regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act; or
(iii) The transaction has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort in which the particular customer would normally be expected to engage, and the bank knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction.
(d) Time for reporting. A member bank is required to file a SAR no later than 30 calendar days after the date of initial detection of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a SAR. If no suspect was identified on the date of detection of the incident requiring the filing, a member bank may delay filing a SAR for an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect. In no case shall reporting be delayed more than 60 calendar days after the date of initial detection of a reportable transaction. In situations involving violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is on-going, the financial institution shall immediately notify, by telephone, an appropriate law enforcement authority and the Board in addition to filing a timely SAR.
(e) Reports to state and local authorities. Member banks are encouraged to file a copy of the SAR with state and local law enforcement agencies where appropriate.
(f) Exceptions. (1) A member bank need not file a SAR for a robbery or burglary committed or attempted that is reported to appropriate law enforcement authorities.
(2) A member bank need not file a SAR for lost, missing, counterfeit, or stolen securities if it files a report pursuant to the reporting requirements of 17 CFR 240.17f-1.
(g) Retention of records. A member bank shall maintain a copy of any SAR filed and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of the filing of the SAR. Supporting documentation shall be identified and maintained by the bank as such, and shall be deemed to have been filed with the SAR. A member bank must make all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement agencies upon request.
(h) Notification to board of directors. The management of a member bank shall promptly notify its board of directors, or a committee thereof, of any report filed pursuant to this section.
(i) Compliance. Failure to file a SAR in accordance with this section and the instructions may subject the member bank, its directors, officers, employees, agents, or other institution affiliated parties to supervisory action.
(j) Confidentiality of SARs. SARs are confidential. Any member bank subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR or the information contained in a SAR shall decline to produce the SAR or to provide any information that would disclose that a SAR has been prepared or filed citing this section, applicable law (e.g., 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)), or both, and notify the Board.
(k) Safe harbor. The safe harbor provisions of 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), which exempts any member bank that makes a disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation from liability under any law or regulation of the United States, or any constitution, law or regulation of any state or political subdivision, covers all reports of suspected or known criminal violations and suspicious activities to law enforcement and financial institution supervisory authorities, including supporting documentation, regardless of whether such reports are filed pursuant to this section or are filed on a voluntary basis.
§ 208.63 Procedures for monitoring Bank Secrecy Act compliance.
(a) Purpose. This section is issued to assure that all state member banks establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor their compliance with the provisions of the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5311, et seq.) and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of Treasury at 31 CFR part 103, requiring recordkeeping and reporting of currency transactions.
(b) Establishment of BSA compliance program – (1) Program requirement. Each bank shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to ensure and monitor compliance with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, the Bank Secrecy Act, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR part 103. The compliance program shall be reduced to writing, approved by the board of directors, and noted in the minutes.
(2) Customer identification program. Each bank is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the Board and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 103.121, which require a customer identification program to be implemented as part of the BSA compliance program required under this section.
(c) Contents of compliance program. The compliance program shall, at a minimum:
(1) Provide for a system of internal controls to assure ongoing compliance;
(2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by bank personnel or by an outside party;
(3) Designate an individual or individuals responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance; and
(4) Provide training for appropriate personnel.
§ 208.64 Frequency of examination.
(a) General. The Federal Reserve examines insured member banks pursuant to authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 325 and the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1820(d). The Federal Reserve is required to conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of every insured member bank at least once during each 12-month period.
(b) 18-month rule for certain small institutions. The Federal Reserve may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of an insured member bank at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, if the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) The bank has total assets of less than $3 billion;
(2) The bank is well capitalized as defined in subpart D of this part (§ 208.43);
(3) At the most recent examination conducted by either the Federal Reserve or applicable State banking agency, the Federal Reserve –
(i) Assigned the bank a rating of 1 or 2 for management as part of the bank’s rating under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (commonly referred to as CAMELS); and
(ii) Assigned the bank a composite CAMELS rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System;
(4) The bank currently is not subject to a formal enforcement proceeding or order by the Federal Reserve or the FDIC; and
(5) No person acquired control of the bank during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope examination would have been required but for this paragraph (b).
(c) Authority to conduct more frequent examinations. This section does not limit the authority of the Federal Reserve to examine any member bank as frequently as the agency deems necessary.
(d)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the extended examination cycle described in paragraph (b) of this section, the total assets of a member bank shall be determined based on the lesser of:
(i) The assets of the member bank as of December 31, 2019; and
(ii) The assets of the member bank as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
(2) Nothing in paragraph (d)(1) of this section limits the authority of the Federal Reserve to examine any member bank as frequently as the agency deems necessary pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
Subpart G – Financial Subsidiaries of State Member Banks
§ 208.71 What are the requirements to invest in or control a financial subsidiary?
(a) In general. A state member bank may control, or hold an interest in, a financial subsidiary only if:
(1) The state member bank and each depository institution affiliate of the state member bank are well capitalized and well managed;
(2) The aggregate consolidated total assets of all financial subsidiaries of the state member bank do not exceed the lesser of:
(i) 45 percent of the consolidated total assets of the parent bank; or
(ii) $50 billion, which dollar amount shall be adjusted according to an indexing mechanism jointly established by the Board and the Secretary of the Treasury;
(3) The state member bank, if it is one of the largest 100 insured banks (based on consolidated total assets as of the end of the previous calendar year), meets the debt rating or alternative requirement of paragraph (b) of this section, if applicable; and
(4) The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank has approved the bank to acquire the interest in or control the financial subsidiary under § 208.76.
(b) Debt rating or alternative requirement for 100 largest insured banks – (1) General. A state member bank meets the debt rating or alternative requirement of this paragraph (b) if:
(i) The bank has at least one issue of eligible debt outstanding that is currently rated in one of the three highest investment grade rating categories by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization; or
(ii) If the bank is one of the second 50 largest insured banks (based on consolidated total assets as of the end of the previous calendar year), the bank has a current long-term issuer credit rating from at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization that is within the three highest investment grade rating categories used by the organization.
(2) Financial subsidiaries engaged in financial activities only as agent. This paragraph (b) does not apply to a state member bank if the financial subsidiaries of the bank engage in financial activities described in § 208.72(a)(1) and (2) only in an agency capacity and not directly or indirectly as principal.
§ 208.72 What activities may a financial subsidiary conduct?
(a) Authorized activities. A financial subsidiary of a state member bank may engage in only the following activities:
(1) Any financial activity listed in § 225.86(a), (b), or (c) of the Board’s Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.86(a), (b), or (c));
(2) Any activity that the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Board, has determined to be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity and permissible for financial subsidiaries pursuant to Section 5136A(b) of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24a(b)); and
(3) Any activity that the state member bank is permitted to engage in directly (subject to the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activity by the state member bank).
(b) Impermissible activities. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a financial subsidiary may not engage as principal in the following activities:
(1) Insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability or death (except to the extent permitted under applicable state law and section 302 or 303(c) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6712 or 6713(c));
(2) Providing or issuing annuities the income of which is subject to tax treatment under section 72 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 72);
(3) Real estate development or real estate investment, unless otherwise expressly authorized by applicable state and Federal law; and
(4) Any merchant banking or insurance company investment activity permitted for financial holding companies by section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) and (I)).
§ 208.73 What additional provisions are applicable to state member banks with financial subsidiaries?
(a) Capital deduction required prior to January 1, 2015, for state member banks that are not advanced approaches banks (as defined in § 208.41). A state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must comply with the following rules in determining its compliance with applicable regulatory capital standards (including the well capitalized standard of § 208.71(a)(1)):
(1) The bank must not consolidate the assets and liabilities of any financial subsidiary with those of the bank.
(2) For purposes of determining the bank’s risk-based capital ratios under appendix A of this part, the bank must –
(i) Deduct 50 percent of the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from both the bank’s Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital; and
(ii) Deduct the entire amount of the bank’s outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank’s risk-weighted assets.
(3) For purposes of determining the bank’s leverage capital ratio under appendix B of this part, the bank must –
(i) Deduct 50 percent of the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank’s Tier 1 capital; and
(ii) Deduct the entire amount of the bank’s outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank’s average total assets.
(4) For purposes of determining the bank’s ratio of tangible equity to total assets under § 208.43(b)(5), the bank must deduct the entire amount of the bank’s outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank’s tangible equity and total assets.
(5) If the deduction from Tier 2 capital required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section exceeds the bank’s Tier 2 capital, any excess must be deducted from the bank’s Tier 1 capital.
(b) Capital requirements for advanced approaches banks (as defined in § 208.41) and, after January 1, 2015, all state member banks. Beginning on January 1, 2014, for a state member bank that is an advanced approaches bank, and beginning on January 1, 2015 for all state member banks, a state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must comply with the rules set forth in § 217.22(a)(7) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(a)(7)) in determining its compliance with applicable regulatory capital standards (including the well capitalized standard of § 208.71(a)(1)).
(c) Financial statement disclosure of capital deduction. Any published financial statement of a state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must, in addition to providing information prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, separately present financial information for the bank reflecting the capital deduction and adjustments required by paragraph (a) of this section.
(d) Safeguards for the bank. A state member bank that establishes, controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must:
(1) Establish and maintain procedures for identifying and managing financial and operational risks within the state member bank and the financial subsidiary that adequately protect the state member bank from such risks; and
(2) Establish and maintain reasonable policies and procedures to preserve the separate corporate identity and limited liability of the state member bank and the financial subsidiary.
(e) Application of Sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act. For purposes of sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1):
(1) A financial subsidiary of a state member bank shall be deemed an affiliate, and not a subsidiary, of the bank;
(2) The restrictions contained in section 23A(a)(1)(A) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(a)(1)(A)) shall not apply with respect to covered transactions between the bank and any individual financial subsidiary of the bank;
(3) The bank’s investment in a financial subsidiary shall not include retained earnings of the financial subsidiary;
(4) Any purchase of, or investment in, the securities of a financial subsidiary by an affiliate of the bank will be considered to be a purchase of, or investment in, such securities by the bank; and
(5) Any extension of credit by an affiliate of the bank to a financial subsidiary of the bank will be considered to be an extension of credit by the bank to the financial subsidiary if the Board determines that such treatment is necessary or appropriate to prevent evasions of the Federal Reserve Act and the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.
(f) Application of anti-tying prohibitions. A financial subsidiary of a state member bank shall be deemed a subsidiary of a bank holding company and not a subsidiary of the bank for purposes of the anti-tying prohibitions of section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1971 et seq.).
§ 208.74 What happens if the state member bank or a depository institution affiliate fails to continue to meet certain requirements?
(a) Qualifications and safeguards. The following procedures apply to a state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary.
(1) Notice by Board. If the Board finds that a state member bank or any of its depository institution affiliates fails to continue to be well capitalized and well managed, or the state member bank is not in compliance with the asset limitation set forth in § 208.71(a)(2) or the safeguards set forth in § 208.73(c), the Board will notify the state member bank in writing and identify the areas of noncompliance. The Board may provide this notice at any time before or after receiving notice from the state member bank under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Notification by state member bank. A state member bank must notify the appropriate Reserve Bank in writing within 15 calendar days of becoming aware that any depository institution affiliate of the bank has ceased to be well capitalized or well managed. The notification must identify the depository institution affiliate and the area(s) of noncompliance.
(3) Execution of agreement. Within 45 days after receiving a notice from the Board under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or such additional period of time as the Board may permit, the:
(i) State member bank must execute an agreement acceptable to the Board to comply with all applicable capital, management, asset and safeguard requirements; and
(ii) Any relevant depository institution affiliate of the state member bank must execute an agreement acceptable to its appropriate Federal banking agency to comply with all applicable capital and management requirements.
(4) Agreement requirements. Any agreement required by paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section must:
(i) Explain the specific actions that the state member bank will take to correct all areas of noncompliance;
(ii) Provide a schedule within which each action will be taken; and
(iii) Provide any other information the Board may require.
(5) Imposition of limits. Until the Board determines that the conditions described in the notice under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are corrected:
(i) The Board may impose any limitations on the conduct or activities of the state member bank or any subsidiary of the bank as the Board determines to be appropriate under the circumstances and consistent with the purposes of section 121 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, including requiring the Board’s prior approval for any financial subsidiary of the bank to acquire any company or engage in any additional activity; and
(ii) The appropriate Federal banking agency for any relevant depository institution affiliate may impose any limitations on the conduct or activities of the depository institution or any subsidiary of that institution as the agency determines to be appropriate under the circumstances and consistent with the purposes of section 121 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.
(6) Divestiture. The Board may require a state member bank to divest control of any financial subsidiary if the conditions described in a notice under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are not corrected within 180 days of receipt of the notice or such additional period of time as the Board may permit. Any divestiture must be completed in accordance with any terms and conditions established by the Board.
(7) Consultation. The Board will consult with all relevant Federal and state regulatory authorities in taking any action under this paragraph (a).
(b) Debt rating or alternative requirement. If a state member bank does not continue to meet any applicable debt rating or alternative requirement of § 208.71(b), the bank may not, directly or through a subsidiary, purchase or acquire any additional equity capital of any financial subsidiary until the bank restores its compliance with the requirements of that section. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the term “equity capital” includes, in addition to any equity instrument, any debt instrument issued by the financial subsidiary if the debt instrument qualifies as capital of the subsidiary under any Federal or state law, regulation or interpretation applicable to the subsidiary.
§ 208.75 What happens if the state member bank or any of its insured depository institution affiliates receives less than a “satisfactory” CRA rating?
(a) Limits on establishment of financial subsidiaries and expansion of existing financial subsidiaries. If a state member bank, or any insured depository institution affiliate of the bank, has received less than a “satisfactory” rating in meeting community credit needs in its most recent examination under the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.):
(1) The state member bank may not, directly or indirectly, acquire control of any financial subsidiary; and
(2) Any financial subsidiary controlled by the state member bank may not commence any additional activity or acquire control, including all or substantially all of the assets, of any company.
(b) Exception for certain activities. The prohibition in paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply to any activity, or to the acquisition of control of any company that is engaged only in activities, that the state member bank is permitted to conduct directly and that are conducted on the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activity by the state member bank.
(c) Duration of prohibitions. The prohibitions described in paragraph (a) of this section shall continue in effect until such time as the state member bank and each insured depository institution affiliate of the state member bank has achieved at least a “satisfactory” rating in meeting community credit needs in its most recent examination under the Community Reinvestment Act.
§ 208.76 What Federal Reserve approvals are necessary for financial subsidiaries?
(a) Notice requirements. (1) A state member bank may not acquire control of, or an interest in, a financial subsidiary unless it files a notice (in letter form, with enclosures) with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
(2) A state member bank may not engage in any additional activity pursuant to § 208.72(a)(1) or (2) through an existing financial subsidiary unless the state member bank files a notice (in letter form, with enclosures) with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
(b) Contents of Notice. Any notice required by paragraph (a) of this section must:
(1) In the case of a notice filed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, describe the transaction(s) through which the bank proposes to acquire control of, or an interest in, the financial subsidiary;
(2) Provide the name and head office address of the financial subsidiary;
(3) Provide a description of the current and proposed activities of the financial subsidiary and the specific authority permitting each activity;
(4) Provide the capital ratios as of the close of the previous calendar quarter for all relevant capital measures, as defined in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), for the bank and each of its depository institution affiliates;
(5) Certify that the bank and each of its depository institution affiliates was well capitalized at the close of the previous calendar quarter and is well capitalized as of the date the bank files its notice;
(6) Certify that the bank and each of its depository institution affiliates is well managed as of the date the bank files its notice;
(7) Certify that the bank meets the debt rating or alternative requirement of § 208.71(b), if applicable; and
(8) Certify that the bank and its financial subsidiaries are in compliance with the asset limit set forth in § 208.71(a)(2) both before the proposal and on a pro forma basis.
(c) Insurance activities. (1) If a notice filed under paragraph (a) of this section relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the notice must describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in or plans to conduct and identify each state where the company holds an insurance license and the state insurance regulatory authority that issued the license.
(2) The appropriate Reserve Bank will send a copy of any notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to the appropriate state insurance regulatory authorities and provide such authorities with an opportunity to comment on the proposal.
(d) Approval procedures. A notice filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank under paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed approved on the fifteenth day after receipt of a complete notice by the appropriate Reserve Bank, unless prior to that date the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the notice is approved, that the notice will require additional review, or that the bank does not meet the requirements of this subpart. Any notification of early approval of a notice must be in writing.
§ 208.77 Definitions.
The following definitions shall apply for purposes of this subpart:
(a) Affiliate, Company, Control, and Subsidiary. The terms “affiliate”, “company”, “control”, and “subsidiary” have the meanings given those terms in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
(b) Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, Depository Institution, Insured Bank and Insured Depository Institution. The terms “appropriate Federal banking agency”, “depository institution”, “insured bank” and “insured depository institution” have the meanings given those terms in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
(c) [Reserved]
(d) Eligible Debt. The term “eligible debt” means unsecured debt with an initial maturity of more than 360 days that:
(1) Is not supported by any form of credit enhancement, including a guarantee or standby letter of credit; and
(2) Is not held in whole or in any significant part by any affiliate, officer, director, principal shareholder, or employee of the bank or any other person acting on behalf of or with funds from the bank or an affiliate of the bank.
(e) Financial Subsidiary – (1) In general. The term “financial subsidiary” means any company that is controlled by one or more insured depository institutions other than:
(i) A subsidiary that engages only in activities that the state member bank is permitted to engage in directly and that are conducted on the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activities by the state member bank; or
(ii) A subsidiary that the state member bank is specifically authorized by the express terms of a Federal statute (other than section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335)), and not by implication or interpretation, to control, such as by section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601-604a, 611-631) or the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861 et seq.).
(2) Subsidiaries of financial subsidiaries. A financial subsidiary includes any company that is directly or indirectly controlled by the financial subsidiary.
(f) Long-term Issuer Credit Rating. The term “long-term issuer credit rating” means a written opinion issued by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization of the bank’s overall capacity and willingness to pay on a timely basis its unsecured, dollar-denominated financial obligations maturing in not less than one year.
(g) Well Capitalized – (1) Insured depository institutions. An insured depository institution is “well capitalized” if it has and maintains at least the capital levels required to be well capitalized under the capital adequacy regulations or guidelines adopted by the institution’s appropriate Federal banking agency under section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
(2) Uninsured depository institutions. A depository institution the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is “well capitalized” if the institution has and maintains at least the capital levels required for an insured depository institution to be well capitalized.
(h) Well Managed – (1) In general. The term “well managed” means:
(i) Unless otherwise determined in writing by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the institution has received a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or an equivalent rating under an equivalent rating system) and at least a rating of 2 for management (if such rating is given) in connection with its most recent examination or subsequent review by the institution’s appropriate Federal banking agency (or the appropriate state banking agency in an examination described in section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(d)); or
(ii) In the case of any depository institution that has not been examined by its appropriate Federal banking agency or been subject to an examination by its appropriate state banking agency that meets the requirements of section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (18 U.S.C. 1820(d)), the existence and use of managerial resources that the appropriate Federal banking agency determines are satisfactory.
(2) Merged depository institutions – (i) Merger involving well managed institutions. A depository institution that results from the merger of two or more depository institutions that are well managed will be considered to be well managed unless the appropriate Federal banking agency for the resulting depository institution determines otherwise.
(ii) Merger involving a poorly rated institution. A depository institution that results from the merger of a well managed depository institution with one or more depository institutions that are not well managed or that have not been examined shall be considered to be well managed if the appropriate Federal banking agency for the resulting depository institution determines that the institution is well managed.
Subpart H – Consumer Protection in Sales of Insurance
§ 208.81 Purpose and scope.
This subpart establishes consumer protections in connection with retail sales practices, solicitations, advertising, or offers of any insurance product or annuity to a consumer by:
(a) Any state member bank; or
(b) Any other person that is engaged in such activities at an office of the bank or on behalf of the bank.
§ 208.82 Definitions for purposes of this subpart.
As used in this subpart:
(a) Affiliate means a company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company.
(b) Bank means a state member bank.
(c) Company means any corporation, partnership, business trust, association or similar organization, or any other trust (unless by its terms the trust must terminate within twenty-five years or not later than twenty-one years and ten months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust). It does not include any corporation the majority of the shares of which are owned by the United States or by any State, or a qualified family partnership, as defined in section 2(o)(10) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841(o)(10)).
(d) Consumer means an individual who purchases, applies to purchase, or is solicited to purchase from you insurance products or annuities primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
(e) Control of a company has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(5)).
(f) Domestic violence means the occurrence of one or more of the following acts by a current or former family member, household member, intimate partner, or caretaker:
(1) Attempting to cause or causing or threatening another person physical harm, severe emotional distress, psychological trauma, rape, or sexual assault;
(2) Engaging in a course of conduct or repeatedly committing acts toward another person, including following the person without proper authority, under circumstances that place the person in reasonable fear of bodily injury or physical harm;
(3) Subjecting another person to false imprisonment; or
(4) Attempting to cause or causing damage to property so as to intimidate or attempt to control the behavior of another person.
(g) Electronic media includes any means for transmitting messages electronically between you and a consumer in a format that allows visual text to be displayed on equipment, for example, a personal computer monitor.
(h) Office means the premises of a bank where retail deposits are accepted from the public.
(i) Subsidiary has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(4)).
(j)(1) You means:
(i) A bank; or
(ii) Any other person only when the person sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity to a consumer at an office of the bank or on behalf of a bank.
(2) For purposes of this definition, activities on behalf of a bank include activities where a person, whether at an office of the bank or at another location sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity and at least one of the following applies:
(i) The person represents to a consumer that the sale, solicitation, advertisement, or offer of any insurance product or annuity is by or on behalf of the bank;
(ii) If the bank refers a consumer to a seller of insurance products or annuities and the bank has a contractual arrangement to receive commissions or fees derived from the sale of an insurance product or annuity resulting from that referral; or
(iii) Documents evidencing the sale, solicitation, advertising, or offer of an insurance product or annuity identify or refer to the bank.
§ 208.83 Prohibited practices.
(a) Anticoercion and antitying rules. You may not engage in any practice that would lead a consumer to believe that an extension of credit, in violation of section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972), is conditional upon either:
(1) The purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank or any of its affiliates; or
(2) An agreement by the consumer not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity.
(b) Prohibition on misrepresentations generally. You may not engage in any practice or use any advertisement at any office of, or on behalf of, the bank or a subsidiary of the bank that could mislead any person or otherwise cause a reasonable person to reach an erroneous belief with respect to:
(1) The fact that an insurance product or annuity sold or offered for sale by you or any subsidiary of the bank is not backed by the Federal government or the bank or the fact that the insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
(2) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves investment risk, the fact that there is an investment risk, including the potential that principal may be lost and that the product may decline in value; or
(3) In the case of a bank or subsidiary of the bank at which insurance products or annuities are sold or offered for sale, the fact that:
(i) The approval of an extension of credit to a consumer by the bank or subsidiary may not be conditioned on the purchase of an insurance product or annuity by the consumer from the bank or a subsidiary of the bank; and
(ii) The consumer is free to purchase the insurance product or annuity from another source.
(c) Prohibition on domestic violence discrimination. You may not sell or offer for sale, as principal, agent, or broker, any life or health insurance product if the status of the applicant or insured as a victim of domestic violence or as a provider of services to victims of domestic violence is considered as a criterion in any decision with regard to insurance underwriting, pricing, renewal, or scope of coverage of such product, or with regard to the payment of insurance claims on such product, except as required or expressly permitted under State law.
§ 208.84 What you must disclose.
(a) Insurance disclosures. In connection with the initial purchase of an insurance product or annuity by a consumer from you, you must disclose to the consumer, except to the extent the disclosure would not be accurate, that:
(1) The insurance product or annuity is not a deposit or other obligation of, or guaranteed by, the bank or an affiliate of the bank;
(2) The insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) or any other agency of the United States, the bank, or (if applicable) an affiliate of the bank; and
(3) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves an investment risk, there is investment risk associated with the product, including the possible loss of value.
(b) Credit disclosure. In the case of an application for credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold, you must disclose that the bank may not condition an extension of credit on either:
(1) The consumer’s purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank or any of its affiliates; or
(2) The consumer’s agreement not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity.
(c) Timing and method of disclosures – (1) In general. The disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be provided orally and in writing before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer. The disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section must be made orally and in writing at the time the consumer applies for an extension of credit in connection with which insurance is solicited, offered, or sold.
(2) Exceptions for transactions by mail. If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section. If you take an application for credit by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section.
(3) Exception for transactions by telephone. If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by telephone, you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section by mail within 3 business days beginning on the first business day after the sale, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C 6103(a). If you take an application for such credit by telephone, you may provide the written disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section by mail, provided you mail it to the consumer within three days beginning the first business day after the application is taken, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
(4) Electronic form of disclosures. (i) Subject to the requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (12 U.S.C. 7001(c)), you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section through electronic media instead of on paper, if the consumer affirmatively consents to receiving the disclosures electronically and if the disclosures are provided in a format that the consumer may retain or obtain later, for example, by printing or storing electronically (such as by downloading).
(ii) Any disclosures required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section that are provided by electronic media are not required to be provided orally.
(5) Disclosures must be readily understandable. The disclosures provided shall be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided. For instance, you may use the following disclosures, in visual media, such as television broadcasting, ATM screens, billboards, signs, posters and written advertisements and promotional materials, as appropriate and consistent with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
(6) Disclosures must be meaningful. (i) You must provide the disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in a meaningful form. Examples of the types of methods that could call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided include:
(A) A plain-language heading to call attention to the disclosures;
(B) A typeface and type size that are easy to read;
(C) Wide margins and ample line spacing;
(D) Boldface or italics for key words; and
(E) Distinctive type size, style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when the disclosures are combined with other information.
(ii) You have not provided the disclosures in a meaningful form if you merely state to the consumer that the required disclosures are available in printed material, but you do not provide the printed material when required and do not orally disclose the information to the consumer when required.
(iii) With respect to those disclosures made through electronic media for which paper or oral disclosures are not required, the disclosures are not meaningfully provided if the consumer may bypass the visual text of the disclosures before purchasing an insurance product or annuity.
(7) Consumer acknowledgment. You must obtain from the consumer, at the time a consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, or at the time of the initial purchase by the consumer of an insurance product or annuity, a written acknowledgment by the consumer that the consumer received the disclosures. You may permit a consumer to acknowledge receipt of the disclosures electronically or in paper form. If the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section are provided in connection with a transaction that is conducted by telephone, you must:
(i) Obtain an oral acknowledgment of receipt of the disclosures and maintain sufficient documentation to show that the acknowledgment was given; and
(ii) Make reasonable efforts to obtain a written acknowledgment from the consumer.
(d) Advertisements and other promotional material for insurance products or annuities. The disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section are required in advertisements and promotional material for insurance products or annuities unless the advertisements and promotional materials are of a general nature describing or listing the services or products offered by the bank.
§ 208.85 Where insurance activities may take place.
(a) General rule. A bank must, to the extent practicable, keep the area where the bank conducts transactions involving insurance products or annuities physically segregated from areas where retail deposits are routinely accepted from the general public, identify the areas where insurance product or annuity sales activities occur, and clearly delineate and distinguish those areas from the areas where the bank’s retail deposit-taking activities occur.
(b) Referrals. Any person who accepts deposits from the public in an area where such transactions are routinely conducted in the bank may refer a consumer who seeks to purchase an insurance product or annuity to a qualified person who sells that product only if the person making the referral receives no more than a one-time, nominal fee of a fixed dollar amount for each referral that does not depend on whether the referral results in a transaction.
§ 208.86 Qualification and licensing requirements for insurance sales personnel.
A bank may not permit any person to sell or offer for sale any insurance product or annuity in any part of its office or on its behalf, unless the person is at all times appropriately qualified and licensed under applicable State insurance licensing standards with regard to the specific products being sold or recommended.
Appendix A to Subpart H of Part 208 – Consumer Grievance Process
Any consumer who believes that any bank or any other person selling, soliciting, advertising, or offering insurance products or annuities to the consumer at an office of the bank or on behalf of the bank has violated the requirements of this subpart should contact the Consumer Complaints Section, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System at the following address: 20th & C Streets, NW, Washington, D.C. 20551.
Subpart I [Reserved]
Subpart J – Interpretations
§ 208.110 Sale of bank’s money orders off premises as establishment of branch office.
(a) The Board of Governors has been asked to consider whether the appointment by a member bank of an agent to sell the bank’s money orders, at a location other than the premises of the bank, constitutes the establishment of a branch office.
(b) Section 5155 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 36), which is also applicable to member banks, defines the term branch as including “any branch bank, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business * * * at which deposits are received, or checks paid, or money lent.” The basic question is whether the sale of a bank’s money orders by an agent amounts to the receipt of deposits at a branch place of business within the meaning of this statute.
(c) Money orders are classified as deposits for certain purposes. However, they bear a strong resemblance to traveler’s checks that are issued by banks and sold off premises. In both cases, the purchaser does not intend to establish a deposit account in the bank, although a liability on the bank’s part is created. Even though they result in a deposit liability, the Board is of the opinion that the issuance of a bank’s money orders by an authorized agent does not involve the receipt of deposits at a “branch place of business” and accordingly does not require the Board’s permission to establish a branch.
§ 208.111 Obligations concerning institutional customers.
(a) As a result of broadened authority provided by the Government Securities Act Amendments of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 78o-3 and 78o-5), the Board is adopting sales practice rules for the government securities market, a market with a particularly broad institutional component. Accordingly, the Board believes it is appropriate to provide further guidance to banks on their suitability obligations when making recommendations to institutional customers.
(b) The Board’s Suitability Rule, § 208.37(d), is fundamental to fair dealing and is intended to promote ethical sales practices and high standards of professional conduct. Banks’ responsibilities include having a reasonable basis for recommending a particular security or strategy, as well as having reasonable grounds for believing the recommendation is suitable for the customer to whom it is made. Banks are expected to meet the same high standards of competence, professionalism, and good faith regardless of the financial circumstances of the customer.
(c) In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale, or exchange of any government security, the bank shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer’s other security holdings and financial situation and needs.
(d) The interpretation in this section concerns only the manner in which a bank determines that a recommendation is suitable for a particular institutional customer. The manner in which a bank fulfills this suitability obligation will vary, depending on the nature of the customer and the specific transaction. Accordingly, the interpretation in this section deals only with guidance regarding how a bank may fulfill customer-specific suitability obligations under § 208.37(d).
(e) While it is difficult to define in advance the scope of a bank’s suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction recommended by a bank, the Board has identified certain factors that may be relevant when considering compliance with § 208.37(d). These factors are not intended to be requirements or the only factors to be considered but are offered merely as guidance in determining the scope of a bank’s suitability obligations.
(f) The two most important considerations in determining the scope of a bank’s suitability obligations in making recommendations to an institutional customer are the customer’s capability to evaluate investment risk independently and the extent to which the customer is exercising independent judgement in evaluating a bank’s recommendation. A bank must determine, based on the information available to it, the customer’s capability to evaluate investment risk. In some cases, the bank may conclude that the customer is not capable of making independent investment decisions in general. In other cases, the institutional customer may have general capability, but may not be able to understand a particular type of instrument or its risk. This is more likely to arise with relatively new types of instruments, or those with significantly different risk or volatility characteristics than other investments generally made by the institution. If a customer is either generally not capable of evaluating investment risk or lacks sufficient capability to evaluate the particular product, the scope of a bank’s customer-specific obligations under § 208.37(d) would not be diminished by the fact that the bank was dealing with an institutional customer. On the other hand, the fact that a customer initially needed help understanding a potential investment need not necessarily imply that the customer did not ultimately develop an understanding and make an independent investment decision.
(g) A bank may conclude that a customer is exercising independent judgement if the customer’s investment decision will be based on its own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations. Where the bank has reasonable grounds for concluding that the institutional customer is making independent investment decisions and is capable of independently evaluating investment risk, then a bank’s obligations under § 208.25(d) for a particular customer are fulfilled.
(h) A determination of capability to evaluate investment risk independently will depend on an examination of the customer’s capability to make its own investment decisions, including the resources available to the customer to make informed decisions. Relevant considerations could include:
(1) The use of one or more consultants, investment advisers, or bank trust departments;
(2) The general level of experience of the institutional customer in financial markets and specific experience with the type of instruments under consideration;
(3) The customer’s ability to understand the economic features of the security involved;
(4) The customer’s ability to independently evaluate how market developments would affect the security; and
(5) The complexity of the security or securities involved.
(i) A determination that a customer is making independent investment decisions will depend on the nature of the relationship that exists between the bank and the customer. Relevant considerations could include:
(1) Any written or oral understanding that exists between the bank and the customer regarding the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer and the services to be rendered by the bank;
(2) The presence or absence of a pattern of acceptance of the bank’s recommendations;
(3) The use by the customer of ideas, suggestions, market views and information obtained from other government securities brokers or dealers or market professionals, particularly those relating to the same type of securities; and
(4) The extent to which the bank has received from the customer current comprehensive portfolio information in connection with discussing recommended transactions or has not been provided important information regarding its portfolio or investment objectives.
(j) Banks are reminded that these factors are merely guidelines that will be utilized to determine whether a bank has fulfilled its suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction and that the inclusion or absence of any of these factors is not dispositive of the determination of suitability. Such a determination can only be made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all the facts and circumstances of a particular bank/customer relationship, assessed in the context of a particular transaction.
(k) For purposes of the interpretation in this section, an institutional customer shall be any entity other than a natural person. In determining the applicability of the interpretation in this section to an institutional customer, the Board will consider the dollar value of the securities that the institutional customer has in its portfolio and/or under management. While the interpretation in this section is potentially applicable to any institutional customer, the guidance contained in this section is more appropriately applied to an institutional customer with at least $10 million invested in securities in the aggregate in its portfolio and/or under management.
§ 208.112 Policy statement on section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act.
(a) Under section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 330), a state member bank may “exercise all corporate powers granted it by the State in which it was created . . . except that the [Board] may limit the activities of State member banks and subsidiaries of State member banks in a manner consistent with section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.” The Board interprets this provision as vesting the Board with the authority to prohibit or otherwise restrict state member banks and their subsidiaries from engaging as principal in any activity (including acquiring or retaining any investment) that is not permissible for a national bank, unless the activity is permissible for state banks by federal statute or under part 362 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation’s (FDIC) regulations, 12 CFR part 362. The Board reminds state member banks of the fundamental canon of federal banking law that activities are permissible for a national bank only if authority is provided under federal law, including the National Bank Act.
(b) The Board generally believes that the same bank activity, presenting the same risks, should be subject to the same regulatory framework, regardless of which agency supervises the bank. This principle of equal treatment helps to level the competitive playing field among banks with different charters and different federal supervisors and to mitigate the risks of regulatory arbitrage.
(c) In alignment with this principle, the Board generally presumes that it will exercise its discretion under section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 330) to limit state member banks and their subsidiaries to engaging as principal in only those activities that are permissible for national banks – in each case, subject to the terms, conditions, and limitations placed on national banks with respect to the activity – unless those activities are permissible for state banks by federal statute or under 12 CFR part 362. For example, if the OCC conditions permissibility on a national bank demonstrating, to the satisfaction of its supervisory office, that the bank has controls in place to conduct the activity in a safe and sound manner, and receiving a written nonobjection from OCC supervisory staff before engaging in a particular activity, then the activity would not be permissible for a state member bank unless the bank makes the same demonstration and receives a written nonobjection from Federal Reserve supervisory staff before commencing such activity.
(d) If a state member bank or its subsidiary proposes to engage in an activity as principal that is not permissible for a national bank or for an insured state member bank under federal statute or part 362 of this title, the state member bank or subsidiary may not engage in the activity unless the bank has received the prior permission of the Board under § 208.3(d)(2). Under that provision, a state member bank may not, without the permission of the Board, change the general character of its business or the scope of the corporate powers it exercises at the time of its admission. In determining whether to grant permission to engage in an activity under § 208.3(d)(2), the Board will rebuttably presume that a state member bank and its subsidiaries are prohibited from engaging as principal in any activity that is impermissible for national banks, unless the activity is permissible for state banks under federal statute or part 362 of this title. This presumption may be rebutted if there is a clear and compelling rationale for the Board to allow the proposed deviation in regulatory treatment among federally supervised banks, and the state member bank has robust plans for managing the risks of the proposed activity in accordance with principles of safe and sound banking. Depending on the applicant and the activity, an application to the FDIC may also be required under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a).
(e) This statement does not impact the legal obligation of insured state member banks to seek approval from the FDIC when required under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and part 362 of this title. As established under those provisions, insured state banks may not engage as principal in any type of activity that is not permissible for a national bank unless – (1) the FDIC has determined that the activity would pose no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund; and (2) the state bank is, and continues to be, in compliance with applicable capital standards.
(f) The Board also reiterates to state member banks that legal permissibility is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition to establish that a state member bank may engage in a particular activity. Under § 208.3(d)(1), a state member bank must at all times conduct its business and exercise its powers with due regard to safety and soundness. Under appendix D-1 of this part, at a minimum, a state member bank should have in place and implement internal controls and information systems that are appropriate for the nature, scope, and risks of its activities. Further, under § 208.3(d)(3), a state member bank must comply at all times with this part and conditions of membership prescribed by the Board; in addition, a state member bank must comply with other applicable laws and regulations, including those related to consumer compliance and anti-money laundering. With respect to any novel and unprecedented activities, appropriate systems to monitor and control risks, including liquidity, credit, market, operational, and compliance risks, are particularly important; Federal Reserve supervisors will expect banks to be able to explain and demonstrate an effective control environment related to such activities.
Subpart K – Forms, Instructions and Reports
§ 208.120 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. This subpart is issued by the Board under section 7 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(3) and (12), and section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 324.
(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart informs a state member bank where it may obtain forms and instructions for reports of conditions and implements 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(12) to allow reduced reporting for a covered depository institution when such institution makes its reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters of a year.
§ 208.121 Definitions.
Covered depository institution means a state member bank that meets all of the following criteria:
(1) Has less than $5 billion in total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of the preceding year, except that, during the calendar year 2021, a state member bank shall determine whether it meets the requirement in paragraph (1) of this section by using the lesser of its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition as of December 31, 2019, and its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of 2020. The relief provided under this paragraph (1) of this section does not apply to a state member bank if the Board determines that permitting the state member bank to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the state member bank. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the state member bank since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the state member bank has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the state member bank. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (1), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
(2) Has no foreign offices, as defined in this section;
(3) Is not required to or has not elected to use 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; and
(4) Is not a large institution or highly complex institution, as such terms are defined in 12 CFR 327.8, or treated as a large institution, as requested under 12 CFR 327.16(f).
Foreign country refers to one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States.
Foreign office means:
(1) A branch or consolidated subsidiary in a foreign country, unless the branch is located on a U.S. military facility;
(2) An international banking facility as such term is defined in 12 CFR 204.8;
(3) A majority-owned Edge Act or Agreement subsidiary including both its U.S. and its foreign offices; and
(4) For an institution chartered or headquartered in any U.S. state or the District of Columbia, a branch or consolidated subsidiary located in a U.S. territory or possession.
Report of condition means the FFIEC 031, FFIEC 041, or FFIEC 051 versions of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) or the FFIEC 002 (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks), as applicable, and as they may be amended or superseded from time to time in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
Total consolidated assets means total assets as reported in a state member bank’s report of condition.
§ 208.122 Reporting.
(a) A state member bank is required to file the report of condition (Call Report) in accordance with the instructions for these reports. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of, the Call Report. The Board uses Call Report data to monitor the condition, performance, and risk profile of individual state member banks and the banking industry. Reporting state member banks must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the Board may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. The report forms and instructions can be obtained from Federal Reserve District Banks or through the website of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, http://www.ffiec.gov/.
(b) Every insured U.S. branch of a foreign bank is required to file the FFIEC 002 version of the report of condition (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks) in accordance with the instructions for the report. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of the report. The Board uses the reported data to monitor the condition, performance, and risk profile of individual insured branches and the banking industry. Insured branches must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the Board may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. The report forms and instructions can be obtained from Federal Reserve District Banks or through the website of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, http://www.ffiec.gov/.
§ 208.123 Reduced reporting.
A covered depository institution may file the FFIEC 051 version of the report of condition, or any successor thereto, which shall provide for reduced reporting for the reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters for a year.
(a) Notwithstanding § 208.123, the Board in consultation with the applicable state chartering authority may require an otherwise eligible covered depository institution to file the FFIEC 041 version of the report of condition, or any successor thereto, based on an institution-specific determination. In making this determination, the Board may consider criteria including, but not limited to, whether the institution is significantly engaged in one or more complex, specialized, or other higher risk activities, such as those for which limited information is reported in the FFIEC 051 version of the report of condition compared to the FFIEC 041 version of the report of condition. Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit the Board’s authority to obtain information from a state member bank.
(b) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or violations of law.
Appendixes A-B to Part 208 [Reserved]
Appendix C to Part 208 – Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies
The agencies’ regulations require that each insured depository institution adopt and maintain a written policy that establishes appropriate limits and standards for all extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate or made for the purpose of financing the construction of a building or other improvements.
Each institution’s policies must be comprehensive, and consistent with safe and sound lending practices, and must ensure that the institution operates within limits and according to standards that are reviewed and approved at least annually by the board of directors. Real estate lending is an integral part of many institutions’ business plans and, when undertaken in a prudent manner, will not be subject to examiner criticism.
The lending policy should contain a general outline of the scope and distribution of the institution’s credit facilities and the manner in which real estate loans are made, serviced, and collected. In particular, the institution’s policies on real estate lending should:
• Identify the geographic areas in which the institution will consider lending.
• Establish a loan portfolio diversification policy and set limits for real estate loans by type and geographic market (e.g., limits on higher risk loans).
• Identify appropriate terms and conditions by type of real estate loan.
• Establish loan origination and approval procedures, both generally and by size and type of loan.
• Establish prudent underwriting standards that are clear and measurable, including loan-to-value limits, that are consistent with these supervisory guidelines.
• Establish review and approval procedures for exception loans, including loans with loan-to-value percentages in excess of supervisory limits.
• Establish loan administration procedures, including documentation, disbursement, collateral inspection, collection, and loan review.
• Establish real estate appraisal and evaluation programs.
• Require that management monitor the loan portfolio and provide timely and adequate reports to the board of directors.
The institution should consider both internal and external factors in the formulation of its loan policies and strategic plan. Factors that should be considered include:
• The size and financial condition of the institution.
• The expertise and size of the lending staff.
• The need to avoid undue concentrations of risk.
• Compliance with all real estate related laws and regulations, including the Community Reinvestment Act, anti-discrimination laws, and for savings associations, the Qualified Thrift Lender test.
• Market conditions.
The institution should monitor conditions in the real estate markets in its lending area so that it can react quickly to changes in market conditions that are relevant to its lending decisions. Market supply and demand factors that should be considered include:
• Demographic indicators, including population and employment trends.
• Zoning requirements.
• Current and projected vacancy, construction, and absorption rates.
• Current and projected lease terms, rental rates, and sales prices, including concessions.
• Current and projected operating expenses for different types of projects.
• Economic indicators, including trends and diversification of the lending area.
• Valuation trends, including discount and direct capitalization rates.
Prudently underwritten real estate loans should reflect all relevant credit factors, including:
• The capacity of the borrower, or income from the underlying property, to adequately service the debt.
• The value of the mortgaged property.
• The overall creditworthiness of the borrower.
• The level of equity invested in the property.
• Any secondary sources of repayment.
• Any additional collateral or credit enhancements (such as guarantees, mortgage insurance or takeout commitments).
The lending policies should reflect the level of risk that is acceptable to the board of directors and provide clear and measurable underwriting standards that enable the institution’s lending staff to evaluate these credit factors. The underwriting standards should address:
• The maximum loan amount by type of property.
• Maximum loan maturities by type of property.
• Amortization schedules.
• Pricing structure for different types of real estate loans.
• Loan-to-value limits by type of property.
For development and construction projects, and completed commercial properties, the policy should also establish, commensurate with the size and type of the project or property:
• Requirements for feasibility studies and sensitivity and risk analyses (e.g., sensitivity of income projections to changes in economic variables such as interest rates, vacancy rates, or operating expenses).
• Minimum requirements for initial investment and maintenance of hard equity by the borrower (e.g., cash or unencumbered investment in the underlying property).
• Minimum standards for net worth, cash flow, and debt service coverage of the borrower or underlying property.
• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on non-amortizing loans.
• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on the use of interest reserves.
• Pre-leasing and pre-sale requirements for income-producing property.
• Pre-sale and minimum unit release requirements for non-income-producing property loans.
• Limits on partial recourse or nonrecourse loans and requirements for guarantor support.
• Requirements for takeout commitments.
• Minimum covenants for loan agreements.
The institution should also establish loan administration procedures for its real estate portfolio that address:
• Documentation, including:
• Loan closing and disbursement.
• Payment processing.
• Escrow administration.
• Collateral administration.
• Loan payoffs.
• Collections and foreclosure, including:
• Claims processing (e.g., seeking recovery on a defaulted loan covered by a government guaranty or insurance program).
• Servicing and participation agreements.
Institutions should establish their own internal loan-to-value limits for real estate loans. These internal limits should not exceed the following supervisory limits:
| Loan category | Loan-to-value limit (percent) |
|---|---|
| Raw land | 65 |
| Land development | 75 |
| Construction: | |
| Commercial, multifamily, 1 and other nonresidential | 80 |
| 1- to 4-family residential | 85 |
| Improved property | 85 |
| Owner-occupied 1- to 4-family and home equity | ( 2) |
1 Multifamily construction includes condominiums and cooperatives.
2 A loan-to-value limit has not been established for permanent mortgage or home equity loans on owner-occupied, 1- to 4-family residential property. However, for any such loan with a loan-to-value ratio that equals or exceeds 90 percent at origination, an institution should require appropriate credit enhancement in the form of either mortgage insurance or readily marketable collateral.
The supervisory loan-to-value limits should be applied to the underlying property that collateralizes the loan. For loans that fund multiple phases of the same real estate project (e.g., a loan for both land development and construction of an office building), the appropriate loan-to-value limit is the limit applicable to the final phase of the project funded by the loan; however, loan disbursements should not exceed actual development or construction outlays. In situations where a loan is fully cross-collateralized by two or more properties or is secured by a collateral pool of two or more properties, the appropriate maximum loan amount under supervisory loan-to-value limits is the sum of the value of each property, less senior liens, multiplied by the appropriate loan-to-value limit for each property. To ensure that collateral margins remain within the supervisory limits, lenders should redetermine conformity whenever collateral substitutions are made to the collateral pool.
In establishing internal loan-to-value limits, each lender is expected to carefully consider the institution-specific and market factors listed under “Loan Portfolio Management Considerations,” as well as any other relevant factors, such as the particular subcategory or type of loan. For any subcategory of loans that exhibits greater credit risk than the overall category, a lender should consider the establishment of an internal loan-to-value limit for that subcategory that is lower than the limit for the overall category.
The loan-to-value ratio is only one of several pertinent credit factors to be considered when underwriting a real estate loan. Other credit factors to be taken into account are highlighted in the “Underwriting Standards” section above. Because of these other factors, the establishment of these supervisory limits should not be interpreted to mean that loans at these levels will automatically be considered sound.
The agencies recognize that appropriate loan-to-value limits vary not only among categories of real estate loans but also among individual loans. Therefore, it may be appropriate in individual cases to originate or purchase loans with loan-to-value ratios in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits, based on the support provided by other credit factors. Such loans should be identified in the institutions’s records, and their aggregate amount reported at least quarterly to the institution’s board of directors. (See additional reporting requirements described under “Exceptions to the General Policy.”)
The aggregate amount of all loans in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits should not exceed 100 percent of total capital.
In determining the aggregate amount of such loans, institutions should: (a) Include all loans secured by the same property if any one of those loans exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limits; and (b) include the recourse obligation of any such loan sold with recourse. Conversely, a loan should no longer be reported to the directors as part of aggregate totals when reduction in principal or senior liens, or additional contribution of collateral or equity (e.g., improvements to the real property securing the loan), bring the loan-to-value ratio into compliance with supervisory limits.
The agencies also recognize that there are a number of lending situations in which other factors significantly outweigh the need to apply the supervisory loan-to-value limits. These include:
• Loans guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government or its agencies, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
• Loans backed by the full faith and credit of a state government, provided that the amount of the assurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
• Loans guaranteed or insured by a state, municipal or local government, or an agency thereof, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit, and provided that the lender has determined that the guarantor or insurer has the financial capacity and willingness to perform under the terms of the guaranty or insurance agreement.
• Loans that are to be sold promptly after origination, without recourse, to a financially responsible third party.
• Loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured without the advancement of new funds or an increase in the line of credit (except for reasonable closing costs), or loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured in connection with a workout situation, either with or without the advancement of new funds, where consistent with safe and sound banking practices and part of a clearly defined and well-documented program to achieve orderly liquidation of the debt, reduce risk of loss, or maximize recovery on the loan.
• Loans that facilitate the sale of real estate acquired by the lender in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith.
• Loans for which a lien on or interest in real property is taken as additional collateral through an abundance of caution by the lender (e.g., the institution takes a blanket lien on all or substantially all of the assets of the borrower, and the value of the real property is low relative to the aggregate value of all other collateral).
• Loans, such as working capital loans, where the lender does not rely principally on real estate as security and the extension of credit is not used to acquire, develop, or construct permanent improvements on real property.
• Loans for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real property, but not secured by the property, if such security interest is not required by prudent underwriting practice.
Some provision should be made for the consideration of loan requests from creditworthy borrowers whose credit needs do not fit within the institution’s general lending policy. An institution may provide for prudently underwritten exceptions to its lending policies, including loan-to-value limits, on a loan-by-loan basis. However, any exceptions from the supervisory loan-to-value limits should conform to the aggregate limits on such loans discussed above.
The board of directors is responsible for establishing standards for the review and approval of exception loans. Each institution should establish an appropriate internal process for the review and approval of loans that do not conform to its own internal policy standards. The approval of any such loan should be supported by a written justification that clearly sets forth all of the relevant credit factors that support the underwriting decision. The justification and approval documents for such loans should be maintained as a part of the permanent loan file. Each institution should monitor compliance with its real estate lending policy and individually report exception loans of a significant size to its board of directors.
The real estate lending policies of institutions will be evaluated by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine if the policies are consistent with safe and sound lending practices, these guidelines, and the requirements of the regulation. In evaluating the adequacy of the institution’s real estate lending policies and practices, examiners will take into consideration the following factors:
• The nature and scope of the institution’s real estate lending activities.
• The size and financial condition of the institution.
• The quality of the institution’s management and internal controls.
• The expertise and size of the lending and loan administration staff.
• Market conditions.
Lending policy exception reports will also be reviewed by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine whether the institutions’ exceptions are adequately documented and appropriate in light of all of the relevant credit considerations. An excessive volume of exceptions to an institution’s real estate lending policy may signal a weakening of its underwriting practices, or may suggest a need to revise the loan policy.
For the purposes of these Guidelines:
Construction loan means an extension of credit for the purpose of erecting or rehabilitating buildings or other structures, including any infrastructure necessary for development.
Extension of credit or loan means:
(1) The total amount of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment with respect to real property; and
(2) The total amount, based on the amount of consideration paid, of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment acquired by a lender by purchase, assignment, or otherwise.
Improved property loan means an extension of credit secured by one of the following types of real property:
(1) Farmland, ranchland or timberland committed to ongoing management and agricultural production;
(2) 1- to 4-family residential property that is not owner-occupied;
(3) Residential property containing five or more individual dwelling units;
(4) Completed commercial property; or
(5) Other income-producing property that has been completed and is available for occupancy and use, except income-producing owner-occupied 1- to 4-family residential property.
Land development loan means an extension of credit for the purpose of improving unimproved real property prior to the erection of structures. The improvement of unimproved real property may include the laying or placement of sewers, water pipes, utility cables, streets, and other infrastructure necessary for future development.
Loan origination means the time of inception of the obligation to extend credit (i.e., when the last event or prerequisite, controllable by the lender, occurs causing the lender to become legally bound to fund an extension of credit).
Loan-to-value or loan-to-value ratio means the percentage or ratio that is derived at the time of loan origination by dividing an extension of credit by the total value of the property(ies) securing or being improved by the extension of credit plus the amount of any readily marketable collateral and other acceptable collateral that secures the extension of credit. The total amount of all senior liens on or interests in such property(ies) should be included in determining the loan-to-value ratio. When mortgage insurance or collateral is used in the calculation of the loan-to-value ratio, and such credit enhancement is later released or replaced, the loan-to-value ratio should be recalculated.
Other acceptable collateral means any collateral in which the lender has a perfected security interest, that has a quantifiable value, and is accepted by the lender in accordance with safe and sound lending practices. Other acceptable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender’s usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral. Other acceptable collateral includes, among other items, unconditional irrevocable standby letters of credit for the benefit of the lender.
Owner-occupied, when used in conjunction with the term 1- to 4-family residential property means that the owner of the underlying real property occupies at least one unit of the real property as a principal residence of the owner.
Readily marketable collateral means insured deposits, financial instruments, and bullion in which the lender has a perfected interest. Financial instruments and bullion must be salable under ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions, on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market. Readily marketable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender’s usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral.
Value means an opinion or estimate, set forth in an appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate, of the market value of real property, prepared in accordance with the agency’s appraisal regulations and guidance. For loans to purchase an existing property, the term “value” means the lesser of the actual acquisition cost or the estimate of value.
1- to 4-family residential property means property containing fewer than five individual dwelling units, including manufactured homes permanently affixed to the underlying property (when deemed to be real property under state law).
Appendix D-1 to Part 208 – Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness
A. Preservation of existing authority.
B. Definitions.
A. Internal controls and information systems.
B. Internal audit system.
C. Loan documentation.
D. Credit underwriting.
E. Interest rate exposure.
F. Asset growth.
G. Asset quality.
H. Earnings.
I. Compensation, fees and benefits.
A. Excessive compensation.
B. Compensation leading to material financial loss.
i. Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act
ii. Section 39(a) requires the agencies to establish operational and managerial standards relating to: (1) Internal controls, information systems and internal audit systems, in accordance with section 36 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831m); (2) loan documentation; (3) credit underwriting; (4) interest rate exposure; (5) asset growth; and (6) compensation, fees, and benefits, in accordance with subsection (c) of section 39. Section 39(b) requires the agencies to establish standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation that the agencies determine to be appropriate.
iii. Section 39(c) requires the agencies to establish standards prohibiting as an unsafe and unsound practice any compensatory arrangement that would provide any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder of the institution with excessive compensation, fees or benefits and any compensatory arrangement that could lead to material financial loss to an institution. Section 39(c) also requires that the agencies establish standards that specify when compensation is excessive.
iv. If an agency determines that an institution fails to meet any standard established by guideline under subsection (a) or (b) of section 39, the agency may require the institution to submit to the agency an acceptable plan to achieve compliance with the standard. In the event that an institution fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time allowed by the agency or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan, the agency must, by order, require the institution to correct the deficiency. The agency may, and in some cases must, take other supervisory actions until the deficiency has been corrected.
v. The agencies have adopted amendments to their rules and regulations to establish deadlines for submission and review of compliance plans.
vi. The following Guidelines set out the safety and soundness standards that the agencies use to identify and address problems at insured depository institutions before capital becomes impaired. The agencies believe that the standards adopted in these Guidelines serve this end without dictating how institutions must be managed and operated. These standards are designed to identify potential safety and soundness concerns and ensure that action is taken to address those concerns before they pose a risk to the deposit insurance funds.
Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limits the authority of the agencies to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 39 and these Guidelines may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the agencies. Nothing in these Guidelines limits the authority of the FDIC pursuant to section 38(i)(2)(F) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831(o)) and Part 325 of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
1. In general. For purposes of these Guidelines, except as modified in the Guidelines or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1).
2. Board of directors, in the case of a state-licensed insured branch of a foreign bank and in the case of a federal branch of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the insured foreign branch.
3. Compensation means all direct and indirect payments or benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, including but not limited to payments or benefits derived from an employment contract, compensation or benefit agreement, fee arrangement, perquisite, stock option plan, postemployment benefit, or other compensatory arrangement.
4. Director shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(c).
5. Executive officer shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(d).
6. Principal shareholder shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(l).
A. Internal controls and information systems. An institution should have internal controls and information systems that are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature, scope and risk of its activities and that provide for:
1. An organizational structure that establishes clear lines of authority and responsibility for monitoring adherence to established policies;
2. Effective risk assessment;
3. Timely and accurate financial, operational and regulatory reports;
4. Adequate procedures to safeguard and manage assets; and
5. Compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
B. Internal audit system. An institution should have an internal audit system that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities and that provides for:
1. Adequate monitoring of the system of internal controls through an internal audit function. For an institution whose size, complexity or scope of operations does not warrant a full scale internal audit function, a system of independent reviews of key internal controls may be used;
2. Independence and objectivity;
3. Qualified persons;
4. Adequate testing and review of information systems;
5. Adequate documentation of tests and findings and any corrective actions;
6. Verification and review of management actions to address material weaknesses; and
7. Review by the institution’s audit committee or board of directors of the effectiveness of the internal audit systems.
C. Loan documentation. An institution should establish and maintain loan documentation practices that:
1. Enable the institution to make an informed lending decision and to assess risk, as necessary, on an ongoing basis;
2. Identify the purpose of a loan and the source of repayment, and assess the ability of the borrower to repay the indebtedness in a timely manner;
3. Ensure that any claim against a borrower is legally enforceable;
4. Demonstrate appropriate administration and monitoring of a loan; and
5. Take account of the size and complexity of a loan.
D. Credit underwriting. An institution should establish and maintain prudent credit underwriting practices that:
1. Are commensurate with the types of loans the institution will make and consider the terms and conditions under which they will be made;
2. Consider the nature of the markets in which loans will be made;
3. Provide for consideration, prior to credit commitment, of the borrower’s overall financial condition and resources, the financial responsibility of any guarantor, the nature and value of any underlying collateral, and the borrower’s character and willingness to repay as agreed;
4. Establish a system of independent, ongoing credit review and appropriate communication to management and to the board of directors;
5. Take adequate account of concentration of credit risk; and
6. Are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities.
E. Interest rate exposure. An institution should:
1. Manage interest rate risk in a manner that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the complexity of its assets and liabilities; and
2. Provide for periodic reporting to management and the board of directors regarding interest rate risk with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of risk.
F. Asset growth. An institution’s asset growth should be prudent and consider:
1. The source, volatility and use of the funds that support asset growth;
2. Any increase in credit risk or interest rate risk as a result of growth; and
3. The effect of growth on the institution’s capital.
G. Asset quality. An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution’s size and the nature and scope of its operations to identify problem assets and prevent deterioration in those assets. The institution should:
1. Conduct periodic asset quality reviews to identify problem assets;
2. Estimate the inherent losses in those assets and establish reserves that are sufficient to absorb estimated losses;
3. Compare problem asset totals to capital;
4. Take appropriate corrective action to resolve problem assets;
5. Consider the size and potential risks of material asset concentrations; and
6. Provide periodic asset reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of asset risk.
H. Earnings. An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution’s size and the nature and scope of its operations to evaluate and monitor earnings and ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves. The institution should:
1. Compare recent earnings trends relative to equity, assets, or other commonly used benchmarks to the institution’s historical results and those of its peers;
2. Evaluate the adequacy of earnings given the size, complexity, and risk profile of the institution’s assets and operations;
3. Assess the source, volatility, and sustainability of earnings, including the effect of nonrecurring or extraordinary income or expense;
4. Take steps to ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves after considering the institution’s asset quality and growth rate; and
5. Provide periodic earnings reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess earnings performance.
I. Compensation, fees and benefits. An institution should maintain safeguards to prevent the payment of compensation, fees, and benefits that are excessive or that could lead to material financial loss to the institution.
Excessive compensation is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice. Compensation shall be considered excessive when amounts paid are unreasonable or disproportionate to the services performed by an executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, considering the following:
1. The combined value of all cash and non-cash benefits provided to the individual;
2. The compensation history of the individual and other individuals with comparable expertise at the institution;
3. The financial condition of the institution;
4. Comparable compensation practices at comparable institutions, based upon such factors as asset size, geographic location, and the complexity of the loan portfolio or other assets;
5. For postemployment benefits, the projected total cost and benefit to the institution;
6. Any connection between the individual and any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the institution; and
7. Any other factors the agencies determines to be relevant.
Compensation that could lead to material financial loss to an institution is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice.
Appendix D-2 to Part 208 – Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards
These Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805), in the same manner, to the extent practicable, as standards prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1). These Guidelines address standards for developing and implementing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information. These Guidelines also address standards with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information, pursuant to sections 621 and 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s and 1681w).
A. Scope. The Guidelines apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of state member banks (banks) and their nonbank subsidiaries, except for brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisors. Pursuant to §§ 211.9 and 211.24 of this chapter, these guidelines also apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of Edge corporations, agreement corporations, and uninsured state-licensed branches or agencies of a foreign bank. These Guidelines also apply to the proper disposal of consumer information by or on behalf of such entities.
B. Preservation of Existing Authority. Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limit the authority of the Board to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. The Board may take action under section 39 and these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement action available to the Board.
C. Definitions.
1. Except as modified in the Guidelines, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1).
2. For purposes of the Guidelines, the following definitions apply:
a. Board of directors, in the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the branch or agency.
b. Consumer information means any record about an individual, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is a consumer report or is derived from a consumer report and that is maintained or otherwise possessed by or on behalf of the bank for a business purpose. Consumer information also means a compilation of such records. The term does not include any record that does not identify an individual.
i. Examples. (1) Consumer information includes:
(A) A consumer report that a bank obtains;
(B) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains from its affiliate after the consumer has been given a notice and has elected not to opt out of that sharing;
(C) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains about an individual who applies for but does not receive a loan, including any loan sought by an individual for a business purpose;
(D) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains about an individual who guarantees a loan (including a loan to a business entity); or
(E) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains about an employee or prospective employee.
(2) Consumer information does not include:
(A) Aggregate information, such as the mean credit score, derived from a group of consumer reports; or
(B) Blind data, such as payment history on accounts that are not personally identifiable, that may be used for developing credit scoring models or for other purposes.
c. Consumer report has the same meaning as set forth in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
d. Customer means any customer of the bank as defined in § 1016.3(i) of this chapter.
e. Customer information means any record containing nonpublic personal information, as defined in § 1016.3(p) of this chapter, about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is maintained by or on behalf of the bank.
f. Customer information systems means any methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information.
g. Service provider means any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information or consumer information through its provision of services directly to the bank.
h. Subsidiary means any company controlled by a bank, except a broker, dealer, person providing insurance, investment company, investment advisor, insured depository institution, or subsidiary of an insured depository institution.
A. Information Security Program. Each bank shall implement a comprehensive written information security program that includes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards appropriate to the size and complexity of the bank and the nature and scope of its activities. While all parts of the bank are not required to implement a uniform set of policies, all elements of the information security program must be coordinated. A bank also shall ensure that each of its subsidiaries is subject to a comprehensive information security program. The bank may fulfill this requirement either by including a subsidiary within the scope of the bank’s comprehensive information security program or by causing the subsidiary to implement a separate comprehensive information security program in accordance with the standards and procedures in sections II and III of this appendix that apply to banks.
B. Objectives. A bank’s information security program shall be designed to:
1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information;
3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer; and
4. Ensure the proper disposal of customer information and consumer information.
A. Involve the Board of Directors. The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of each bank shall:
1. Approve the bank’s written information security program; and
2. Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the bank’s information security program, including assigning specific responsibility for its implementation and reviewing reports from management.
B. Assess Risk. Each bank shall:
1. Identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems.
2. Assess the likelihood and potential damage of these threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information.
3. Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks.
C. Manage and Control Risk. Each bank shall:
1. Design its information security program to control the identified risks, commensurate with the sensitivity of the information as well as the complexity and scope of the bank’s activities. Each bank must consider whether the following security measures are appropriate for the bank and, if so, adopt those measures the bank concludes are appropriate:
a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means.
b. Access restrictions at physical locations containing customer information, such as buildings, computer facilities, and records storage facilities to permit access only to authorized individuals;
c. Encryption of electronic customer information, including while in transit or in storage on networks or systems to which unauthorized individuals may have access;
d. Procedures designed to ensure that customer information system modifications are consistent with the bank’s information security program;
e. Dual control procedures, segregation of duties, and employee background checks for employees with responsibilities for or access to customer information;
f. Monitoring systems and procedures to detect actual and attempted attacks on or intrusions into customer information systems;
g. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the bank suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies; and
h. Measures to protect against destruction, loss, or damage of customer information due to potential environmental hazards, such as fire and water damage or technological failures.
2. Train staff to implement the bank’s information security program.
3. Regularly test the key controls, systems and procedures of the information security program. The frequency and nature of such tests should be determined by the bank’s risk assessment. Tests should be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those that develop or maintain the security programs.
4. Develop, implement, and maintain, as part of its information security program, appropriate measures to properly dispose of customer information and consumer information in accordance with each of the requirements in this paragraph III.
D. Oversee Service Provider Arrangements. Each bank shall:
1. Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting its service providers;
2. Require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to meet the objectives of these Guidelines; and
3. Where indicated by the bank’s risk assessment, monitor its service providers to confirm that they have satisfied their obligations as required by paragraph D.2. As part of this monitoring, a bank should review audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its service providers.
E. Adjust the Program. Each bank shall monitor, evaluate, and adjust, as appropriate, the information security program in light of any relevant changes in technology, the sensitivity of its customer information, internal or external threats to information, and the bank’s own changing business arrangements, such as mergers and acquisitions, alliances and joint ventures, outsourcing arrangements, and changes to customer information systems.
F. Report to the Board. Each bank shall report to its board or an appropriate committee of the board at least annually. This report should describe the overall status of the information security program and the bank’s compliance with these Guidelines. The reports should discuss material matters related to its program, addressing issues such as: risk assessment; risk management and control decisions; service provider arrangements; results of testing; security breaches or violations and management’s responses; and recommendations for changes in the information security program.
G. Implement the Standards.
1. Effective date. Each bank must implement an information security program pursuant to these Guidelines by July 1, 2001.
2. Two-year grandfathering of agreements with service providers. Until July 1, 2003, a contract that a bank has entered into with a service provider to perform services for it or functions on its behalf satisfies the provisions of section III.D., even if the contract does not include a requirement that the servicer maintain the security and confidentiality of customer information, as long as the bank entered into the contract on or before March 5, 2001.
3. Effective date for measures relating to the disposal of consumer information. Each bank must satisfy these Guidelines with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2005.
4. Exception for existing agreements with service providers relating to the disposal of consumer information. Notwithstanding the requirement in paragraph III.G.3., a bank’s contracts with its service providers that have access to consumer information and that may dispose of consumer information, entered into before July 1, 2005, must comply with the provisions of the Guidelines relating to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2006.
This Guidance
Section 501(b) of the GLBA required the Agencies to establish appropriate standards for financial institutions subject to their jurisdiction that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards, to protect the security and confidentiality of customer information. Accordingly, the Agencies issued Security Guidelines requiring every financial institution to have an information security program designed to:
1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and
3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
1. The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to assess the following risks, among others, when developing its information security program:
a. Reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems;
b. The likelihood and potential damage of threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information; and
c. The sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks.
2. Following the assessment of these risks, the Security Guidelines require a financial institution to design a program to address the identified risks. The particular security measures an institution should adopt will depend upon the risks presented by the complexity and scope of its business. At a minimum, the financial institution is required to consider the specific security measures enumerated in the Security Guidelines,
a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means;
b. Background checks for employees with responsibilities for access to customer information; and
c. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the financial institution suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies.
The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
Millions of Americans, throughout the country, have been victims of identity theft.
In addition, each institution should be able to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems maintained by its domestic and foreign service providers. Therefore, consistent with the obligations in the Guidelines that relate to these arrangements, and with existing guidance on this topic issued by the Agencies,
1. At a minimum, an institution’s response program should contain procedures for the following:
a. Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what customer information systems and types of customer information have been accessed or misused;
b. Notifying its primary Federal regulator as soon as possible when the institution becomes aware of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of sensitive customer information, as defined below;
c. Consistent with the Agencies’ Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) regulations,
d. Taking appropriate steps to contain and control the incident to prevent further unauthorized access to or use of customer information, for example, by monitoring, freezing, or closing affected accounts, while preserving records and other evidence;
e. Notifying customers when warranted.
2. Where an incident of unauthorized access to customer information involves customer information systems maintained by an institution’s service providers, it is the responsibility of the financial institution to notify the institution’s customers and regulator. However, an institution may authorize or contract with its service provider to notify the institution’s customers or regulator on its behalf.
Financial institutions have an affirmative duty to protect their customers’ information against unauthorized access or use. Notifying customers of a security incident involving the unauthorized access or use of the customer’s information in accordance with the standard set forth below is a key part of that duty. Timely notification of customers is important to manage an institution’s reputation risk. Effective notice also may reduce an institution’s legal risk, assist in maintaining good customer relations, and enable the institution’s customers to take steps to protect themselves against the consequences of identity theft. When customer notification is warranted, an institution may not forgo notifying its customers of an incident because the institution believes that it may be potentially embarrassed or inconvenienced by doing so.
When a financial institution becomes aware of an incident of unauthorized access to sensitive customer information, the institution should conduct a reasonable investigation to promptly determine the likelihood that the information has been or will be misused. If the institution determines that misuse of its information about a customer has occurred or is reasonably possible, it should notify the affected customer as soon as possible. Customer notice may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the institution with a written request for the delay. However, the institution should notify its customers as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.
Under the Guidelines, an institution must protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. Substantial harm or inconvenience is most likely to result from improper access to sensitive customer information because this type of information is most likely to be misused, as in the commission of identity theft. For purposes of this Guidance, sensitive customer information means a customer’s name, address, or telephone number, in conjunction with the customer’s social security number, driver’s license number, account number, credit or debit card number, or a personal identification number or password that would permit access to the customer’s account. Sensitive customer information also includes any combination of components of customer information that would allow someone to log onto or access the customer’s account, such as user name and password or password and account number.
If a financial institution, based upon its investigation, can determine from its logs or other data precisely which customers’ information has been improperly accessed, it may limit notification to those customers with regard to whom the institution determines that misuse of their information has occurred or is reasonably possible. However, there may be situations where the institution determines that a group of files has been accessed improperly, but is unable to identify which specific customers’ information has been accessed. If the circumstances of the unauthorized access lead the institution to determine that misuse of the information is reasonably possible, it should notify all customers in the group.
1. Customer notice should be given in a clear and conspicuous manner. The notice should describe the incident in general terms and the type of customer information that was the subject of unauthorized access or use. It also should generally describe what the institution has done to protect the customers’ information from further unauthorized access. In addition, it should include a telephone number that customers can call for further information and assistance.
a. A recommendation that the customer review account statements and immediately report any suspicious activity to the institution;
b. A description of fraud alerts and an explanation of how the customer may place a fraud alert in the customer’s consumer reports to put the customer’s creditors on notice that the customer may be a victim of fraud;
c. A recommendation that the customer periodically obtain credit reports from each nationwide credit reporting agency and have information relating to fraudulent transactions deleted;
d. An explanation of how the customer may obtain a credit report free of charge; and
e. Information about the availability of the FTC’s online guidance regarding steps a consumer can take to protect against identity theft. The notice should encourage the customer to report any incidents of identity theft to the FTC, and should provide the FTC’s Web site address and toll-free telephone number that customers may use to obtain the identity theft guidance and report suspected incidents of identity theft.
2. The Agencies encourage financial institutions to notify the nationwide consumer reporting agencies prior to sending notices to a large number of customers that include contact information for the reporting agencies.
Customer notice should be delivered in any manner designed to ensure that a customer can reasonably be expected to receive it. For example, the institution may choose to contact all customers affected by telephone or by mail, or by electronic mail for those customers for whom it has a valid e-mail address and who have agreed to receive communications electronically.
Appendixes E-F to Part 208 [Reserved]
PART 209 – FEDERAL RESERVE BANK CAPITAL STOCK (REGULATION I)
§ 209.1 Authority, purpose, scope, and definitions.
(a) Authority. This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 222, 248, 282, 286-288, 289, 321, 323, 327-328, and 466.
(b) Purpose. The purpose of this part is to implement the provisions of the Federal Reserve Act relating to the issuance and cancellation of Federal Reserve Bank stock upon becoming or ceasing to be a member bank, or upon changes in the capital and surplus of a member bank, of the Federal Reserve System. This part also implements the provisions of the Federal Reserve Act relating to the payment of dividends to member banks.
(c) Scope. This part applies to member banks of the Federal Reserve System, to national banks in process of organization, and to state banks applying for membership. National banks and locally-incorporated banks located in United States dependencies and possessions are eligible (with the consent of the Board) but not required to apply for membership under section 19(h) of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 466.
(d) Definitions. For purposes of this part –
(1) Capital Stock and Surplus. Capital stock and surplus of a member bank means the paid-in capital stock
(2) Dividend proration basis means the use of a 360-day year of 12 30-day months for purposes of computing dividend payments.
(3) Total consolidated assets means the total assets on the stockholder’s balance sheet as reported by the stockholder on its Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) as of the most recent December 31, except in the case of:
(i) A new member “total consolidated assets” means (until the next December 31 Call Report becomes available) the total consolidated assets of the new member at the time of its application for capital stock; and
(ii) A surviving stockholder after a merger “total consolidated assets” means (until the next December 31 Call Report becomes available) the total consolidated assets reported by that stockholder pursuant to § 209.3(d)(5).
§ 209.2 Banks desiring to become member banks.
(a) Application for stock or deposit. Each national bank in process of organization,
(b) Issuance of stock; acceptance of deposit. Upon authorization to commence business by the Comptroller of the Currency in the case of a national bank in organization or upon approval of conversion by the Comptroller of the Currency in the case of a state nonmember bank converting to a national bank, or when all applicable requirements have been complied with in the case of a state bank approved for membership, the Reserve Bank shall issue the appropriate number of shares by crediting the bank with the appropriate number of shares on its books. In the case of a national or state member bank in organization, such issuance shall be as of the date the bank opens for business. In the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank shares, the Reserve Bank shall accept the deposit in place of issuing shares. The bank’s membership shall become effective on the date of such issuance or acceptance.
(c) Location of bank – (1) General rule. For purposes of this part, a national bank or a State bank is located in the Federal Reserve District that contains the location specified in the bank’s charter or organizing certificate, or as specified by the institution’s primary regulator, or if no such location is specified, the location of its head office, unless otherwise determined by the Board under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(2) Board determination. If the location of a bank as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, in the judgment of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), is ambiguous, would impede the ability of the Board or the Reserve Banks to perform their functions under the Federal Reserve Act, or would impede the ability of the bank to operate efficiently, the Board will determine the Federal Reserve District in which the bank is located, after consultation with the bank and the relevant Reserve Banks. The relevant Reserve Banks are the Reserve Bank whose District contains the location specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and the Reserve Bank in whose District the bank is proposed to be located. In making this determination, the Board will consider any applicable laws, the business needs of the bank, the location of the bank’s head office, the locations where the bank performs its business, and the locations that would allow the bank, the Board, and the Reserve Banks to perform their functions efficiently and effectively.
§ 209.3 Cancellation of Reserve Bank stock; mergers involving member banks.
(a) Application for cancellation. Any bank that desires to withdraw from membership in the Federal Reserve System (including a national bank that wants to convert into a nonmember bank), voluntarily liquidates or ceases business, is merged or consolidated into a nonmember bank, or is involuntarily liquidated by a receiver or conservator or otherwise, shall promptly file with its Reserve Bank an application for cancellation of all its Reserve Bank stock (or withdrawal of its deposit, as the case may be) and payment therefor in accordance with § 209.4.
(b) Involuntary termination of membership. If an application is not filed promptly after a cessation of business by a state member bank, a vote to place a member bank in voluntary liquidation, or the appointment of a receiver for (or a determination to liquidate the bank by a conservator of) a member bank, the Board may, after notice and an opportunity for hearing where required under Section 9(9) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 327), order the membership of the bank terminated and all of its Reserve Bank stock canceled.
(c) Effective date of cancellation. Cancellation in whole of a bank’s Reserve Bank capital stock shall be effective, in the case of:
(1) Voluntary withdrawal from membership by a state bank, as of the date of such withdrawal;
(2) Merger into, consolidation with, or (for a national bank) conversion into, a nonmember bank, as of the effective date of the merger, consolidation, or conversion; and
(3) Involuntary termination of membership, as of the date the Board issues the order of termination.
(d) Exchange of stock on merger or change in location; stock adjustment upon merger with a nonmember bank; reporting of total consolidated assets following merger – (1) Applications. (i) Before a merger or consolidation of member banks, the nonsurviving member bank shall file an application with the appropriate Reserve Bank to cancel its shares of Reserve Bank stock (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall file an application to transfer its deposit to the account of the surviving bank) and the surviving member bank shall file an application with the appropriate Reserve Bank for issue of a corresponding number of shares of Reserve Bank stock (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall file an application to increase its deposit obligation).
(ii) Before a merger or consolidation of a member bank and a nonmember bank, a surviving member bank shall file an application with the appropriate Reserve Bank to adjust its Reserve Bank capital stock subscription to equal six percent of the member bank’s anticipated post-merger capital and surplus, or, in the case of member bank that is a mutual savings bank, six-tenths of 1 percent of the member bank’s anticipated post-merger total deposit liabilities. A mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock shall file an application to adjust its deposit obligation in a like manner.
(2) Merger of member banks in the same Federal Reserve District. Upon a merger or consolidation of member banks located in the same Federal Reserve District, the Reserve Bank shall cancel the shares of the nonsurviving bank (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall credit the deposit to the account of the surviving bank) and shall credit the appropriate number of shares on its books to (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall accept an appropriate increase in the deposit of) the surviving bank, subject to paragraph (d)(3) of § 209.4.
(3) Change of location or merger of member banks in different Federal Reserve Districts. Upon a determination under paragraph (c)(2) of § 209.2 that a member bank is located in a Federal Reserve District other than the District of the Reserve Bank of which it is a member, or upon a merger or consolidation of member banks located in different Federal Reserve Districts, –
(i) The Reserve Bank of the member bank’s former District, or of the nonsurviving member bank, shall cancel the bank’s shares and transfer the amount paid in for those shares, plus accrued dividends (as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of § 209.4) and subject to paragraph (d)(3) of § 209.4 (or, in the case of a mutual savings bank member not authorized to purchase Federal Reserve Bank stock, the amount of its deposit, adjusted in a like manner), to the Reserve Bank of the bank’s new District or of the surviving bank; and
(ii) The Reserve Bank of the member bank’s new District or of the surviving bank shall issue the appropriate number of shares by crediting the bank with the appropriate number of shares on its books (or, in the case of a mutual savings bank, by accepting the deposit or an appropriate increase in the deposit).
(4) Merger with a nonmember bank. Upon a merger or consolidation of a member bank and a nonmember bank, the Reserve Bank will adjust the surviving member bank’s stock subscription to equal six percent of the member bank’s capital and surplus, or, in the case of a member bank that is a mutual savings bank, six-tenths of 1 percent of the member bank’s total deposit liabilities. If a mutual savings bank has a deposit with the appropriate Reserve Bank in lieu of Reserve Bank capital stock, its deposit obligation shall be adjusted in a like manner.
(5) Statement of total consolidated assets. When a member bank merges or consolidates with another bank and the surviving bank remains a Reserve Bank stockholder, the surviving stockholder must report whether its total consolidated assets exceed $12,124,000,000 in the application described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(e) Voluntary withdrawal. Any bank withdrawing voluntarily from membership shall give 6 months written notice, and shall not cause the withdrawal of more than 25 percent of any Reserve Bank’s capital stock in any calendar year, unless the Board waives these requirements.
§ 209.4 Amounts and payments for subscriptions and cancellations; timing and rate of dividends.
(a) Amount of subscription. The total subscription of a member bank (other than a mutual savings bank) shall equal six percent of its capital and surplus as shown on its most recent Call Report. After a member bank files a Call Report, the appropriate Reserve Bank will adjust the member bank’s Reserve Bank capital stock subscription to equal six percent of the member bank’s capital and surplus.
(b) Mutual savings banks. The total subscription of a member bank that is a mutual savings bank shall equal six-tenths of 1 percent of its total deposit liabilities as shown on its most recent Call Report. After a member bank that is a mutual savings bank files a Call Report, the appropriate Reserve Bank will adjust the member bank’s Reserve Bank capital stock subscription to equal six-tenths of 1 percent of the member bank’s total deposit liabilities. If a mutual savings bank has a deposit with the appropriate Reserve Bank in lieu of Reserve Bank capital stock, its deposit obligation shall be adjusted in a like manner.
(c) Payment for subscriptions. (1) When a Reserve Bank issues capital stock to a member bank (or accepts a deposit in lieu thereof), the member bank shall pay the Reserve Bank –
(i) One-half of the subscription amount; and
(ii) Accrued dividends equal to the paid-in subscription amount in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section multiplied by –
(A) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of more than $12,124,000,000, an annual rate equal to the lesser of the high yield of the 10-year Treasury note auctioned at the last auction held prior to the date of the last dividend payment and 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the subscription date according to the dividend proration basis.
(B) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of $12,124,000,000 or less, 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the subscription date according to the dividend proration basis.
(2) A Reserve Bank shall obtain settlement for the payment described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section by debit to an account on the Reserve Bank’s books or other form of settlement to which the Reserve Bank agrees.
(3) Upon payment (and in the case of a national banks in organization or state nonmember bank converting into a national bank, upon authorization or approval by the Comptroller of the Currency), the Reserve Bank shall issue the appropriate number of shares by crediting the bank with the appropriate number of shares on its books. In the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, the Reserve Bank will accept the deposit or addition to the deposit in place of issuing shares. The remaining half of the subscription or additional subscription (including subscriptions for deposits or additions to deposits) shall be subject to call by the Board.
(4) If the dividend rate applied at the next scheduled dividend payment date is based on a different annual rate than the rate used to compute the amount of the accrued dividend payment pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the amount of the dividends paid at the next scheduled dividend payment date should be adjusted accordingly. The amount of the adjustment should equal the difference between –
(i) The accrued dividend payment pursuant paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, and
(ii) The result of multiplying the subscription amount paid pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section by the dividend rate applied at the next scheduled dividend payment, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the subscription date according to the dividend proration basis.
(d) Payment for cancellations. (1) When a Reserve Bank cancels Reserve Bank capital stock of a member bank, or (in the case of involuntary termination of membership) upon the effective date of cancellation specified in § 209.3(c)(3), the Reserve Bank shall –
(i) Reduce the bank’s shareholding on the Reserve Bank’s books by the number of shares required to be canceled and shall pay the paid-in subscription of the canceled stock; and
(ii) Pay accrued dividends equal to the paid-in subscription of the canceled stock in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section multiplied by –
(A) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of more than $12,124,000,000, an annual rate equal to the lesser of the high yield of the 10-year Treasury note auctioned at the last auction held prior to the date of cancellation and 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the cancellation date according to the dividend proration basis; or
(B) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of $12,124,000,000 or less, 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the cancellation date according to the dividend proration basis.
(2) The sum of the payments under paragraph (d)(1) of this section cannot exceed the book value of the stock.
(3) In the case of any cancellation of Reserve Bank stock under this Part, the Reserve Bank may first apply such sum to any liability of the bank to the Reserve Bank and pay over the remainder to the bank (or receiver or conservator, as appropriate).
(e) Dividend. (1) After all necessary expenses of a Reserve Bank have been paid or provided for, the stockholders of a Reserve Bank shall be entitled to receive a dividend on paid-in capital stock of –
(i) in the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of more than $12,124,000,000, the lesser of the annual rate equal to the high yield of the 10-year Treasury note auctioned at the last auction held prior to the payment of such dividend and an annual rate of 6 percent, or
(ii) in the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of $12,124,000,000 or less, an annual rate of 6 percent.
(2) The dividend pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section will be adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the current dividend payment date according to the dividend proration basis.
(3) The entitlement to dividends under paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be cumulative.
(f) Annual adjustment to total consolidated assets. The dollar amounts for total consolidated assets specified in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and §§ 209.2 and 209.3 shall be adjusted annually to reflect the change in the Gross Domestic Product Price Index, published by the Bureau of Economic Analysis.
(a) Electronic or written record. A member bank’s holding of Reserve Bank capital stock shall be represented by one (or at the option of the Reserve Bank, more than one) notation on the Reserve Bank’s books. Such books may be electronic or in writing. Upon any issue or cancellation of Reserve Bank capital stock, the Reserve Bank shall record the member bank’s new share position in its books (or eliminate the bank’s share position from its books, as the case may be).
(b) Certification. A Reserve Bank may certify on request as to the number of shares held by a member bank and purchased before March 28, 1942, or as to the purchase and cancellation dates and prices of shares cancelled, as the case may be.
PART 210 – COLLECTION OF CHECKS AND OTHER ITEMS BY FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS AND FUNDS TRANSFERS THROUGH THE FEDWIRE FUNDS SERVICE AND THE FEDNOW SERVICE (REGULATION J)
Subpart A – Collection of Checks and Other Items By Federal Reserve Banks
§ 210.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.
The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) has issued this subpart pursuant to the Federal Reserve Act, sections 11 (i) and (j) (12 U.S.C. 248 (i) and (j)), section 13 (12 U.S.C. 342), section 16 (12 U.S.C. 248(o) and 360), and section 19(f) (12 U.S.C. 464); the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4001 et seq.); the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (12 U.S.C. 5001-5018) and other laws. This subpart governs the collection of checks and other cash and noncash items and the handling of returned checks by Federal Reserve Banks. Its purpose is to provide rules for collecting and returning items and settling balances.