Last updated on February 8th, 2025 at 08:09 am
Title 40—Protection of Environment–Volume 28
CHAPTER I—ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY (CONTINUED)
SUBCHAPTER I—SOLID WASTES (CONTINUED)
PART 260—HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM: GENERAL
Subpart A—General
§ 260.1 Purpose, scope, and applicability.
(a) This part provides definitions of terms, general standards, and overview information applicable to parts 260 through 265 and 268 of this chapter.
(b) In this part: (1) Section 260.2 sets forth the rules that EPA will use in making information it receives available to the public and sets forth the requirements that generators, transporters, or owners or operators of treatment, storage, or disposal facilities must follow to assert claims of business confidentiality with respect to information that is submitted to EPA under parts 260 through 265 and 268 of this chapter.
(2) Section 260.3 establishes rules of grammatical construction for parts 260 through 265 and 268 of this chapter.
(3) Section 260.10 defines terms which are used in parts 260 through 265 and 268 of this chapter.
(4) Section 260.20 establishes procedures for petitioning EPA to amend, modify, or revoke any provision of parts 260 through 265 and 268 of this chapter and establishes procedures governing EPA’s action on such petitions.
(5) Section 260.21 establishes procedures for petitioning EPA to approve testing methods as equivalent to those prescribed in parts 261, 264, or 265 of this chapter.
(6) Section 260.22 establishes procedures for petitioning EPA to amend subpart D of part 261 to exclude a waste from a particular facility.
§ 260.2 Availability of information; confidentiality of information.
(a) Any information provided to EPA under parts 260 through 266 and 268 of this chapter will be made available to the public to the extent and in the manner authorized by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. section 552, section 3007(b) of RCRA and EPA regulations implementing the Freedom of Information Act and section 3007(b), and part 2 of this chapter, as applicable.
(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, any person who submits information to EPA in accordance with parts 260 through 266 and 268 of this chapter may assert a claim of business confidentiality covering part or all of that information by following the procedures set forth in § 2.203(b) of this chapter. Information covered by such a claim will be disclosed by EPA only to the extent, and by means of the procedures, set forth in part 2, subpart B, of this chapter.
(c)(1) After August 6, 2014, no claim of business confidentiality may be asserted by any person with respect to information entered on a Hazardous Waste Manifest (EPA Form 8700-22), a Hazardous Waste Manifest Continuation Sheet (EPA Form 8700-22A), or an electronic manifest format that may be prepared and used in accordance with § 262.20(a)(3) of this chapter.
(2) EPA will make any electronic manifest that is prepared and used in accordance with § 262.20(a)(3), or any paper manifest that is submitted to the system under §§ 264.71(a)(6) or 265.71(a)(6) of this chapter available to the public under this section when the electronic or paper manifest is a complete and final document. Electronic manifests and paper manifests submitted to the system are considered by EPA to be complete and final documents and publicly available information after 90 days have passed since the delivery to the designated facility of the hazardous waste shipment identified in the manifest.
(d)(1) After June 26, 2018, no claim of business confidentiality may be asserted by any person with respect to information contained in cathode ray tube export documents prepared, used and submitted under §§ 261.39(a)(5) and 261.41(a) of this chapter, and with respect to information contained in hazardous waste export, import, and transit documents prepared, used and submitted under §§ 262.82, 262.83, 262.84, 263.20, 264.12, 264.71, 265.12, 265.71, and 267.71 of this chapter, whether submitted electronically into EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System or in paper format. After January 22, 2025, no claim of business confidentiality may be asserted by any person with respect to information contained in hazardous secondary material export documents prepared, used and submitted under § 261.4(a)(25) of this chapter, whether submitted electronically into the EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System or in paper format.
(2) EPA will make any cathode ray tube export documents prepared, used and submitted under §§ 261.39(a)(5) and 261.41(a) of this chapter, and any hazardous waste export, import, and transit documents prepared, used and submitted under §§ 262.82, 262.83, 262.84, 263.20, 264.12, 264.71, 265.12, 265.71, and 267.71 of this chapter available to the public under this section when these electronic or paper documents are considered by EPA to be final documents. These submitted electronic and paper documents related to hazardous waste exports, imports and transits and cathode ray tube exports are considered by EPA to be final documents on March 1 of the calendar year after the related cathode ray tube exports or hazardous waste exports, imports, or transits occur. After January 22, 2025, the EPA will make available to the public under this section any hazardous secondary material export documents prepared, used and submitted under § 261.4(a)(25) of this chapter on March 1 of the calendar year after the related hazardous secondary material exports occur, when these documents are considered by the EPA to be final documents.
§ 260.3 Use of number and gender.
As used in parts 260 through 273 of this chapter:
(a) Words in the masculine gender also include the feminine and neuter genders; and
(b) Words in the singular include the plural; and
(c) Words in the plural include the singular.
§ 260.4 Manifest copy submission requirements for certain interstate waste shipments.
(a) In any case in which the state in which waste is generated, or the state in which waste will be transported to a designated facility, requires that the waste be regulated as a hazardous waste or otherwise be tracked through a hazardous waste manifest, the designated facility that receives the waste shall, regardless of the state in which the facility is located:
(1) Complete the facility portion of the applicable manifest;
(2) Sign and date the facility certification;
(3) Submit to the e-Manifest system a final copy of the manifest for data processing purposes; and
(4) Pay the appropriate per manifest fee to EPA for each manifest submitted to the e-Manifest system, subject to the fee determination methodology, payment methods, dispute procedures, sanctions, and other fee requirements specified in subpart FF of part 264 of this chapter.
§ 260.5 Applicability of electronic manifest system and user fee requirements to facilities receiving state-only regulated waste shipments.
(a) For purposes of this section, “state-only regulated waste” means:
(1) A non-RCRA waste that a state regulates more broadly under its state regulatory program, or
(2) A RCRA hazardous waste that is federally exempt from manifest requirements, but not exempt from manifest requirements under state law.
(b) In any case in which a state requires a RCRA manifest to be used under state law to track the shipment and transportation of a state-only regulated waste to a receiving facility, the facility receiving such a waste shipment for management shall:
(1) Comply with the provisions of §§ 264.71 (use of the manifest) and 264.72 (manifest discrepancies) of this chapter; and
(2) Pay the appropriate per manifest fee to EPA for each manifest submitted to the e-Manifest system, subject to the fee determination methodology, payment methods, dispute procedures, sanctions, and other fee requirements specified in subpart FF of part 264 of this chapter.
Subpart B—Definitions
§ 260.10 Definitions.
When used in parts 260 through 273 of this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given below:
Above ground tank means a device meeting the definition of “tank” in § 260.10 and that is situated in such a way that the entire surface area of the tank is completely above the plane of the adjacent surrounding surface and the entire surface area of the tank (including the tank bottom) is able to be visually inspected.
Act or RCRA means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended, 42 U.S.C. section 6901 et seq.
Active life of a facility means the period from the initial receipt of hazardous waste at the facility until the Regional Administrator receives certification of final closure.
Active portion means that portion of a facility where treatment, storage, or disposal operations are being or have been conducted after the effective date of part 261 of this chapter and which is not a closed portion. (See also “closed portion” and “inactive portion”.)
Acute hazardous waste means hazardous wastes that meet the listing criteria in § 261.11(a)(2) and therefore are either listed in § 261.31 of this chapter with the assigned hazard code of (H) or are listed in § 261.33(e) of this chapter.
Administrator means the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, or his designee.
Aerosol can means a non-refillable receptacle containing a gas compressed, liquefied, or dissolved under pressure, the sole purpose of which is to expel a liquid, paste, or powder and fitted with a self-closing release device allowing the contents to be ejected by the gas.
AES filing compliance date means the date that EPA announces in the
Airbag waste means any hazardous waste airbag modules or hazardous waste airbag inflators.
Airbag waste collection facility means any facility that receives airbag waste from airbag handlers subject to regulation under § 261.4(j) of this chapter, and accumulates the waste for more than ten days.
Airbag waste handler means any person, by site, who generates airbag waste that is subject to regulation under this chapter.
Ancillary equipment means any device including, but not limited to, such devices as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and pumps, that is used to distribute, meter, or control the flow of hazardous waste from its point of generation to a storage or treatment tank(s), between hazardous waste storage and treatment tanks to a point of disposal onsite, or to a point of shipment for disposal off-site.
Aquifer means a geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation capable of yielding a significant amount of ground water to wells or springs.
Authorized representative means the person responsible for the overall operation of a facility or an operational unit (i.e., part of a facility), e.g., the plant manager, superintendent or person of equivalent responsibility.
Battery means a device consisting of one or more electrically connected electrochemical cells which is designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy. An electrochemical cell is a system consisting of an anode, cathode, and an electrolyte, plus such connections (electrical and mechanical) as may be needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive electrical energy. The term battery also includes an intact, unbroken battery from which the electrolyte has been removed.
Boiler means an enclosed device using controlled flame combustion and having the following characteristics:
(1)(i) The unit must have physical provisions for recovering and exporting thermal energy in the form of steam, heated fluids, or heated gases; and
(ii) The unit’s combustion chamber and primary energy recovery sections(s) must be of integral design. To be of integral design, the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section(s) (such as waterwalls and superheaters) must be physically formed into one manufactured or assembled unit. A unit in which the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section(s) are joined only by ducts or connections carrying flue gas is not integrally designed; however, secondary energy recovery equipment (such as economizers or air preheaters) need not be physically formed into the same unit as the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section. The following units are not precluded from being boilers solely because they are not of integral design: process heaters (units that transfer energy directly to a process stream), and fluidized bed combustion units; and
(iii) While in operation, the unit must maintain a thermal energy recovery efficiency of at least 60 percent, calculated in terms of the recovered energy compared with the thermal value of the fuel; and
(iv) The unit must export and utilize at least 75 percent of the recovered energy, calculated on an annual basis. In this calculation, no credit shall be given for recovered heat used internally in the same unit. (Examples of internal use are the preheating of fuel or combustion air, and the driving of induced or forced draft fans or feedwater pumps); or
(2) The unit is one which the Regional Administrator has determined, on a case-by-case basis, to be a boiler, after considering the standards in § 260.32.
Carbon dioxide stream means carbon dioxide that has been captured from an emission source (e.g., power plant), plus incidental associated substances derived from the source materials and the capture process, and any substances added to the stream to enable or improve the injection process.
Carbon regeneration unit means any enclosed thermal treatment device used to regenerate spent activated carbon.
Cathode ray tube or CRT means a vacuum tube, composed primarily of glass, which is the visual or video display component of an electronic device. A used, intact CRT means a CRT whose vacuum has not been released. A used, broken CRT means glass removed from its housing or casing whose vacuum has been released.
Central accumulation area means any on-site hazardous waste accumulation area with hazardous waste accumulating in units subject to either § 262.16 (for small quantity generators) or § 262.17 of this chapter (for large quantity generators). A central accumulation area at an eligible academic entity that chooses to operate under 40 CFR part 262 subpart K is also subject to § 262.211 when accumulating unwanted material and/or hazardous waste.
Certification means a statement of professional opinion based upon knowledge and belief.
Closed portion means that portion of a facility which an owner or operator has closed in accordance with the approved facility closure plan and all applicable closure requirements. (See also “active portion” and “inactive portion”.)
Component means either the tank or ancillary equipment of a tank system.
Confined aquifer means an aquifer bounded above and below by impermeable beds or by beds of distinctly lower permeability than that of the aquifer itself; an aquifer containing confined ground water.
Contained means held in a unit (including a land-based unit as defined in this subpart) that meets the following criteria:
(1) The unit is in good condition, with no leaks or other continuing or intermittent unpermitted releases of the hazardous secondary materials to the environment, and is designed, as appropriate for the hazardous secondary materials, to prevent releases of hazardous secondary materials to the environment. Unpermitted releases are releases that are not covered by a permit (such as a permit to discharge to water or air) and may include, but are not limited to, releases through surface transport by precipitation runoff, releases to soil and groundwater, wind-blown dust, fugitive air emissions, and catastrophic unit failures;
(2) The unit is properly labeled or otherwise has a system (such as a log) to immediately identify the hazardous secondary materials in the unit; and
(3) The unit holds hazardous secondary materials that are compatible with other hazardous secondary materials placed in the unit and is compatible with the materials used to construct the unit and addresses any potential risks of fires or explosions.
(4) Hazardous secondary materials in units that meet the applicable requirements of 40 CFR parts 264 or 265 are presumptively contained.
Container means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported, treated, disposed of, or otherwise handled.
Containment building means a hazardous waste management unit that is used to store or treat hazardous waste under the provisions of subpart DD of parts 264 or 265 of this chapter.
Contingency plan means a document setting out an organized, planned, and coordinated course of action to be followed in case of a fire, explosion, or release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which could threaten human health or the environment.
Corrosion expert means a person who, by reason of his knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering and mathematics, acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to engage in the practice of corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks. Such a person must be certified as being qualified by the National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) or be a registered professional engineer who has certification or licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks.
CRT collector means a person who receives used, intact CRTs for recycling, repair, resale, or donation.
CRT exporter means any person in the United States who initiates a transaction to send used CRTs outside the United States or its territories for recycling or reuse, or any intermediary in the United States arranging for such export.
CRT glass manufacturer means an operation or part of an operation that uses a furnace to manufacture CRT glass.
CRT processing means conducting all of the following activities:
(1) Receiving broken or intact CRTs; and
(2) Intentionally breaking intact CRTs or further breaking or separating broken CRTs; and
(3) Sorting or otherwise managing glass removed from CRT monitors.
Designated facility means:
(1) A hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility which:
(i) Has received a permit (or interim status) in accordance with the requirements of parts 270 and 124 of this chapter;
(ii) Has received a permit (or interim status) from a State authorized in accordance with part 271 of this chapter; or
(iii) Is regulated under § 261.6(c)(2) or subpart F of part 266 of this chapter; and
(iv) That has been designated on the manifest by the generator pursuant to § 262.20.
(2) Designated facility also means a generator site designated on the manifest to receive its waste as a return shipment from a facility that has rejected the waste in accordance with § 264.72(f) or § 265.72(f) of this chapter.
(3) If a waste is destined to a facility in an authorized State which has not yet obtained authorization to regulate that particular waste as hazardous, then the designated facility must be a facility allowed by the receiving State to accept such waste.
Destination facility means a facility that treats, disposes of, or recycles a particular category of universal waste, except those management activities described in paragraphs (a) and (c) of §§ 273.13 and 273.33 of this chapter. A facility at which a particular category of universal waste is only accumulated, is not a destination facility for purposes of managing that category of universal waste.
Dike means an embankment or ridge of either natural or man-made materials used to prevent the movement of liquids, sludges, solids, or other materials.
Dioxins and furans (D/F) means tetra, penta, hexa, hepta, and octa-chlorinated dibenzo dioxins and furans.
Discharge or hazardous waste discharge means the accidental or intentional spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of hazardous waste into or on any land or water.
Disposal means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing of any solid waste or hazardous waste into or on any land or water so that such solid waste or hazardous waste or any constituent thereof may enter the environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters, including ground waters.
Disposal facility means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste is intentionally placed into or on any land or water, and at which waste will remain after closure. The term disposal facility does not include a corrective action management unit into which remediation wastes are placed.
Drip pad is an engineered structure consisting of a curbed, free-draining base, constructed of non-earthen materials and designed to convey preservative kick-back or drippage from treated wood, precipitation, and surface water run-on to an associated collection system at wood preserving plants.
Electronic import-export reporting compliance date means the date that EPA announces in the
Electronic manifest (or e-Manifest) means the electronic format of the hazardous waste manifest that is obtained from EPA’s national e-Manifest system and transmitted electronically to the system, and that is the legal equivalent of EPA Forms 8700-22 (Manifest) and 8700-22A (Continuation Sheet).
Electronic Manifest System (or e-Manifest System) means EPA’s national information technology system through which the electronic manifest may be obtained, completed, transmitted, and distributed to users of the electronic manifest and to regulatory agencies.
Elementary neutralization unit means a device which:
(1) Is used for neutralizing wastes that are hazardous only because they exhibit the corrosivity characteristic defined in § 261.22 of this chapter, or they are listed in subpart D of part 261 of the chapter only for this reason; and
(2) Meets the definition of tank, tank system, container, transport vehicle, or vessel in § 260.10 of this chapter.
EPA hazardous waste number means the number assigned by EPA to each hazardous waste listed in part 261, subpart D, of this chapter and to each characteristic identified in part 261, subpart C, of this chapter.
EPA identification number means the number assigned by EPA to each generator, transporter, and treatment, storage, or disposal facility.
EPA region means the states and territories found in any one of the following ten regions:
Equivalent method means any testing or analytical method approved by the Administrator under §§ 260.20 and 260.21.
Existing hazardous waste management (HWM) facility or existing facility means a facility which was in operation or for which construction commenced on or before November 19, 1980. A facility has commenced construction if:
(1) The owner or operator has obtained the Federal, State and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction; and either
(2)(i) A continuous on-site, physical construction program has begun; or
(ii) The owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations—which cannot be cancelled or modified without substantial loss—for physical construction of the facility to be completed within a reasonable time.
Existing portion means that land surface area of an existing waste management unit, included in the original Part A permit application, on which wastes have been placed prior to the issuance of a permit.
Existing tank system or existing component means a tank system or component that is used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and that is in operation, or for which installation has commenced on or prior to July 14, 1986. Installation will be considered to have commenced if the owner or operator has obtained all Federal, State, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the site or installation of the tank system and if either (1) a continuous on-site physical construction or installation program has begun, or (2) the owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations—which cannot be canceled or modified without substantial loss—for physical construction of the site or installation of the tank system to be completed within a reasonable time.
Explosives or munitions emergency means a situation involving the suspected or detected presence of unexploded ordnance (UXO), damaged or deteriorated explosives or munitions, an improvised explosive device (IED), other potentially explosive material or device, or other potentially harmful military chemical munitions or device, that creates an actual or potential imminent threat to human health, including safety, or the environment, including property, as determined by an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist. Such situations may require immediate and expeditious action by an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist to control, mitigate, or eliminate the threat.
Explosives or munitions emergency response means all immediate response activities by an explosives and munitions emergency response specialist to control, mitigate, or eliminate the actual or potential threat encountered during an explosives or munitions emergency. An explosives or munitions emergency response may include in-place render-safe procedures, treatment or destruction of the explosives or munitions and/or transporting those items to another location to be rendered safe, treated, or destroyed. Any reasonable delay in the completion of an explosives or munitions emergency response caused by a necessary, unforeseen, or uncontrollable circumstance will not terminate the explosives or munitions emergency. Explosives and munitions emergency responses can occur on either public or private lands and are not limited to responses at RCRA facilities.
Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist means an individual trained in chemical or conventional munitions or explosives handling, transportation, render-safe procedures, or destruction techniques. Explosives or munitions emergency response specialists include Department of Defense (DOD) emergency explosive ordnance disposal (EOD), technical escort unit (TEU), and DOD-certified civilian or contractor personnel; and other Federal, State, or local government, or civilian personnel similarly trained in explosives or munitions emergency responses.
Facility means:
(1) All contiguous land, and structures, other appurtenances, and improvements on the land, used for treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste, or for managing hazardous secondary materials prior to reclamation. A facility may consist of several treatment, storage, or disposal operational units (e.g., one or more landfills, surface impoundments, or combinations of them).
(2) For the purpose of implementing corrective action under 40 CFR 264.101 or 267.101, all contiguous property under the control of the owner or operator seeking a permit under Subtitle C of RCRA. This definition also applies to facilities implementing corrective action under RCRA Section 3008(h).
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2) of this definition, a remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to 40 CFR 264.101, but is subject to corrective action requirements if the site is located within such a facility.
Federal agency means any department, agency, or other instrumentality of the Federal Government, any independent agency or establishment of the Federal Government including any Government corporation, and the Government Printing Office.
Federal, State and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction means permits and approvals required under Federal, State or local hazardous waste control statutes, regulations or ordinances.
Final closure means the closure of all hazardous waste management units at the facility in accordance with all applicable closure requirements so that hazardous waste management activities under parts 264 and 265 of this chapter are no longer conducted at the facility unless subject to the provisions in §§ 262.16 and 262.17.
Food-chain crops means tobacco, crops grown for human consumption, and crops grown for feed for animals whose products are consumed by humans.
Free liquids means liquids which readily separate from the solid portion of a waste under ambient temperature and pressure.
Freeboard means the vertical distance between the top of a tank or surface impoundment dike, and the surface of the waste contained therein.
Generator means any person, by site, whose act or process produces hazardous waste identified or listed in part 261 of this chapter or whose act first causes a hazardous waste to become subject to regulation.
Ground water means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.
Hazardous secondary material means a secondary material (e.g., spent material, by-product, or sludge) that, when discarded, would be identified as hazardous waste under part 261 of this chapter.
Hazardous secondary material generator means any person whose act or process produces hazardous secondary materials at the generating facility. For purposes of this paragraph, “generating facility” means all contiguous property owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the hazardous secondary material generator. For the purposes of § 261.2(a)(2)(ii) and § 261.4(a)(23), a facility that collects hazardous secondary materials from other persons is not the hazardous secondary material generator.
Hazardous waste means a hazardous waste as defined in § 261.3 of this chapter.
Hazardous waste constituent means a constituent that caused the Administrator to list the hazardous waste in part 261, subpart D, of this chapter, or a constituent listed in table 1 of § 261.24 of this chapter.
Hazardous waste management unit is a contiguous area of land on or in which hazardous waste is placed, or the largest area in which there is significant likelihood of mixing hazardous waste constituents in the same area. Examples of hazardous waste management units include a surface impoundment, a waste pile, a land treatment area, a landfill cell, an incinerator, a tank and its associated piping and underlying containment system and a container storage area. A container alone does not constitute a unit; the unit includes containers and the land or pad upon which they are placed.
In operation refers to a facility which is treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste.
Inactive portion means that portion of a facility which is not operated after the effective date of part 261 of this chapter. (See also “active portion” and “closed portion”.)
Incinerator means any enclosed device that:
(1) Uses controlled flame combustion and neither meets the criteria for classification as a boiler, sludge dryer, or carbon regeneration unit, nor is listed as an industrial furnace; or
(2) Meets the definition of infrared incinerator or plasma arc incinerator.
Incompatible waste means a hazardous waste which is unsuitable for:
(1) Placement in a particular device or facility because it may cause corrosion or decay of containment materials (e.g., container inner liners or tank walls); or
(2) Commingling with another waste or material under uncontrolled conditions because the commingling might produce heat or pressure, fire or explosion, violent reaction, toxic dusts, mists, fumes, or gases, or flammable fumes or gases.
Individual generation site means the contiguous site at or on which one or more hazardous wastes are generated. An individual generation site, such as a large manufacturing plant, may have one or more sources of hazardous waste but is considered a single or individual generation site if the site or property is contiguous.
Industrial furnace means any of the following enclosed devices that are integral components of manufacturing processes and that use thermal treatment to accomplish recovery of materials or energy:
(1) Cement kilns
(2) Lime kilns
(3) Aggregate kilns
(4) Phosphate kilns
(5) Coke ovens
(6) Blast furnaces
(7) Smelting, melting and refining furnaces (including pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, reverberator furnaces, sintering machine, roasters, and foundry furnaces)
(8) Titanium dioxide chloride process oxidation reactors
(9) Methane reforming furnaces
(10) Pulping liquor recovery furnaces
(11) Combustion devices used in the recovery of sulfur values from spent sulfuric acid
(12) Halogen acid furnaces (HAFs) for the production of acid from halogenated hazardous waste generated by chemical production facilities where the furnace is located on the site of a chemical production facility, the acid product has a halogen acid content of at least 3%, the acid product is used in a manufacturing process, and, except for hazardous waste burned as fuel, hazardous waste fed to the furnace has a minimum halogen content of 20% as-generated.
(13) Such other devices as the Administrator may, after notice and comment, add to this list on the basis of one or more of the following factors:
(i) The design and use of the device primarily to accomplish recovery of material products;
(ii) The use of the device to burn or reduce raw materials to make a material product;
(iii) The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as effective substitutes for raw materials, in processes using raw materials as principal feedstocks;
(iv) The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as ingredients in an industrial process to make a material product;
(v) The use of the device in common industrial practice to produce a material product; and
(vi) Other factors, as appropriate.
Infrared incinerator means any enclosed device that uses electric powered resistance heaters as a source of radiant heat followed by an afterburner using controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.
Inground tank means a device meeting the definition of “tank” in § 260.10 whereby a portion of the tank wall is situated to any degree within the ground, thereby preventing visual inspection of that external surface area of the tank that is in the ground.
Injection well means a well into which fluids are injected. (See also “underground injection”.)
Inner liner means a continuous layer of material placed inside a tank or container which protects the construction materials of the tank or container from the contained waste or reagents used to treat the waste.
Installation inspector means a person who, by reason of his knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering, acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to supervise the installation of tank systems.
Intermediate facility means any facility that stores hazardous secondary materials for more than 10 days, other than a hazardous secondary material generator or reclaimer of such material.
International shipment means the transportation of hazardous waste into or out of the jurisdiction of the United States.
Lamp, also referred to as “universal waste lamp”, is defined as the bulb or tube portion of an electric lighting device. A lamp is specifically designed to produce radiant energy, most often in the ultraviolet, visible, and infra-red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Examples of common universal waste electric lamps include, but are not limited to, fluorescent, high intensity discharge, neon, mercury vapor, high pressure sodium, and metal halide lamps.
Land-based unit means an area where hazardous secondary materials are placed in or on the land before recycling. This definition does not include land-based production units.
Landfill means a disposal facility or part of a facility where hazardous waste is placed in or on land and which is not a pile, a land treatment facility, a surface impoundment, an underground injection well, a salt dome formation, a salt bed formation, an underground mine, a cave, or a corrective action management unit.
Landfill cell means a discrete volume of a hazardous waste landfill which uses a liner to provide isolation of wastes from adjacent cells or wastes. Examples of landfill cells are trenches and pits.
Land treatment facility means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste is applied onto or incorporated into the soil surface; such facilities are disposal facilities if the waste will remain after closure.
Large quantity generator is a generator who generates any of the following amounts in a calendar month:
(1) Greater than or equal to 1,000 kilograms (2200 lbs) of non-acute hazardous waste; or
(2) Greater than 1 kilogram (2.2 lbs) of acute hazardous waste listed in § 261.31 or § 261.33(e) of this chapter; or
(3) Greater than 100 kilograms (220 lbs) of any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill, into or on any land or water, of any acute hazardous waste listed in § 261.31 or § 261.33(e) of this chapter.
Leachate means any liquid, including any suspended components in the liquid, that has percolated through or drained from hazardous waste.
Leak-detection system means a system capable of detecting the failure of either the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous waste or accumulated liquid in the secondary containment structure. Such a system must employ operational controls (e.g., daily visual inspections for releases into the secondary containment system of aboveground tanks) or consist of an interstitial monitoring device designed to detect continuously and automatically the failure of the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous waste into the secondary containment structure.
Liner means a continuous layer of natural or man-made materials, beneath or on the sides of a surface impoundment, landfill, or landfill cell, which restricts the downward or lateral escape of hazardous waste, hazardous waste constituents, or leachate.
Management or hazardous waste management means the systematic control of the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment, recovery, and disposal of hazardous waste.
Manifest means the shipping document EPA Form 8700-22 (including, if necessary, EPA Form 8700-22A), or the electronic manifest, originated and signed in accordance with the applicable requirements of parts 262 through 265 of this chapter.
Manifest tracking number means: The alphanumeric identification number (i.e., a unique three letter suffix preceded by nine numerical digits), which is pre-printed in Item 4 of the Manifest by a registered source.
Mercury-containing equipment means a device or part of a device (including thermostats, but excluding batteries and lamps) that contains elemental mercury integral to its function.
Military munitions means all ammunition products and components produced or used by or for the U.S. Department of Defense or the U.S. Armed Services for national defense and security, including military munitions under the control of the Department of Defense, the U.S. Coast Guard, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE), and National Guard personnel. The term military munitions includes: confined gaseous, liquid, and solid propellants, explosives, pyrotechnics, chemical and riot control agents, smokes, and incendiaries used by DOD components, including bulk explosives and chemical warfare agents, chemical munitions, rockets, guided and ballistic missiles, bombs, warheads, mortar rounds, artillery ammunition, small arms ammunition, grenades, mines, torpedoes, depth charges, cluster munitions and dispensers, demolition charges, and devices and components thereof. Military munitions do not include wholly inert items, improvised explosive devices, and nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear components thereof. However, the term does include non-nuclear components of nuclear devices, managed under DOE’s nuclear weapons program after all required sanitization operations under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, have been completed.
Mining overburden returned to the mine site means any material overlying an economic mineral deposit which is removed to gain access to that deposit and is then used for reclamation of a surface mine.
Miscellaneous unit means a hazardous waste management unit where hazardous waste is treated, stored, or disposed of and that is not a container, tank, surface impoundment, pile, land treatment unit, landfill, incinerator, boiler, industrial furnace, underground injection well with appropriate technical standards under part 146 of this chapter, containment building, corrective action management unit, unit eligible for a research, development, and demonstration permit under 40 CFR 270.65, or staging pile.
Movement means that hazardous waste transported to a facility in an individual vehicle.
New hazardous waste management facility or new facility means a facility which began operation, or for which construction commenced after November 19, 1980. (See also “Existing hazardous waste management facility”.)
New tank system or new tank component means a tank system or component that will be used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and for which installation has commenced after July 14, 1986; except, however, for purposes of § 264.193(g)(2) and § 265.193(g)(2), a new tank system is one for which construction commences after July 14, 1986. (See also “existing tank system.”)
No free liquids, as used in 40 CFR 261.4(a)(26) and 40 CFR 261.4(b)(18), means that solvent-contaminated wipes may not contain free liquids as determined by Method 9095B (Paint Filter Liquids Test), included in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods” (EPA Publication SW-846), which is incorporated by reference, and that there is no free liquid in the container holding the wipes. No free liquids may also be determined using another standard or test method as defined by an authorized state.
Non-acute hazardous waste means all hazardous wastes that are not acute hazardous waste, as defined in this section.
On ground tank means a device meeting the definition of “tank” in § 260.10 and that is situated in such a way that the bottom of the tank is on the same level as the adjacent surrounding surface so that the external tank bottom cannot be visually inspected.
On-site means the same or geographically contiguous property which may be divided by public or private right-of-way, provided the entrance and exit between the properties is at a cross-roads intersection, and access is by crossing as opposed to going along, the right-of-way. Non-contiguous properties owned by the same person but connected by a right-of-way which he controls and to which the public does not have access, is also considered on-site property.
Open burning means the combustion of any material without the following characteristics:
(1) Control of combustion air to maintain adequate temperature for efficient combustion,
(2) Containment of the combustion-reaction in an enclosed device to provide sufficient residence time and mixing for complete combustion, and
(3) Control of emission of the gaseous combustion products.
(See also “incineration” and “thermal treatment”.)
Operator means the person responsible for the overall operation of a facility.
Owner means the person who owns a facility or part of a facility.
Partial closure means the closure of a hazardous waste management unit in accordance with the applicable closure requirements of parts 264 and 265 of this chapter at a facility that contains other active hazardous waste management units. For example, partial closure may include the closure of a tank (including its associated piping and underlying containment systems), landfill cell, surface impoundment, waste pile, or other hazardous waste management unit, while other units of the same facility continue to operate.
Person means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, Federal Agency, corporation (including a government corporation), partnership, association, State, municipality, commission, political subdivision of a State, or any interstate body.
Personnel or facility personnel means all persons who work at, or oversee the operations of, a hazardous waste facility, and whose actions or failure to act may result in noncompliance with the requirements of part 264 or 265 of this chapter.
Pesticide means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest, or intended for use as a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant, other than any article that:
(1) Is a new animal drug under FFDCA section 201(w), or
(2) Is an animal drug that has been determined by regulation of the Secretary of Health and Human Services not to be a new animal drug, or
(3) Is an animal feed under FFDCA section 201(x) that bears or contains any substances described by paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition.
Pile means any non-containerized accumulation of solid, nonflowing hazardous waste that is used for treatment or storage and that is not a containment building.
Plasma arc incinerator means any enclosed device using a high intensity electrical discharge or arc as a source of heat followed by an afterburner using controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.
Point source means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including, but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, concentrated animal feeding operation, or vessel or other floating craft, from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This term does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
Publicly owned treatment works or POTW means any device or system used in the treatment (including recycling and reclamation) of municipal sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature which is owned by a “State” or “municipality” (as defined by section 502(4) of the CWA). This definition includes sewers, pipes, or other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW providing treatment.
Qualified Ground-Water Scientist means a scientist or engineer who has received a baccalaureate or post-graduate degree in the natural sciences or engineering, and has sufficient training and experience in ground-water hydrology and related fields as may be demonstrated by state registration, professional certifications, or completion of accredited university courses that enable that individual to make sound professional judgements regarding ground-water monitoring and contaminant fate and transport.
Recognized trader means a person domiciled in the United States, by site of business, who acts to arrange and facilitate transboundary movements of wastes destined for recovery or disposal operations, either by purchasing from and subsequently selling to United States and foreign facilities, or by acting under arrangements with a United States waste facility to arrange for the export or import of the wastes.
Regional Administrator means the Regional Administrator for the EPA Region in which the facility is located, or his designee.
Remanufacturing means processing a higher-value hazardous secondary material in order to manufacture a product that serves a similar functional purpose as the original commercial-grade material. For the purpose of this definition, a hazardous secondary material is considered higher-value if it was generated from the use of a commercial-grade material in a manufacturing process and can be remanufactured into a similar commercial-grade material.
Remediation waste means all solid and hazardous wastes, and all media (including ground water, surface water, soils, and sediments) and debris, that are managed for implementing cleanup.
Remediation waste management site means a facility where an owner or operator is or will be treating, storing or disposing of hazardous remediation wastes. A remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to corrective action under 40 CFR 264.101, but is subject to corrective action requirements if the site is located in such a facility.
Replacement unit means a landfill, surface impoundment, or waste pile unit (1) from which all or substantially all of the waste is removed, and (2) that is subsequently reused to treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste. “Replacement unit” does not apply to a unit from which waste is removed during closure, if the subsequent reuse solely involves the disposal of waste from that unit and other closing units or corrective action areas at the facility, in accordance with an approved closure plan or EPA or State approved corrective action.
Representative sample means a sample of a universe or whole (e.g., waste pile, lagoon, ground water) which can be expected to exhibit the average properties of the universe or whole.
Run-off means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land from any part of a facility.
Run-on means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land onto any part of a facility.
Saturated zone or zone of saturation means that part of the earth’s crust in which all voids are filled with water.
Sludge means any solid, semi-solid, or liquid waste generated from a municipal, commercial, or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility exclusive of the treated effluent from a wastewater treatment plant.
Sludge dryer means any enclosed thermal treatment device that is used to dehydrate sludge and that has a maximum total thermal input, excluding the heating value of the sludge itself, of 2,500 Btu/lb of sludge treated on a wet-weight basis.
Small quantity generator is a generator who generates the following amounts in a calendar month:
(1) Greater than 100 kilograms (220 lbs) but less than 1,000 kilograms (2200 lbs) of non-acute hazardous waste; and
(2) Less than or equal to 1 kilogram (2.2 lbs) of acute hazardous waste listed in § 261.31 or § 261.33(e) of this chapter; and
(3) Less than or equal to 100 kilograms (220 lbs) of any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill, into or on any land or water, of any acute hazardous waste listed in § 261.31 or § 261.33(e) of this chapter.
Solid waste means a solid waste as defined in § 261.2 of this chapter.
Solvent-contaminated wipe means—
(1) A wipe that, after use or after cleaning up a spill, either:
(i) Contains one or more of the F001 through F005 solvents listed in 40 CFR 261.31 or the corresponding P- or U- listed solvents found in 40 CFR 261.33;
(ii) Exhibits a hazardous characteristic found in 40 CFR part 261 subpart C when that characteristic results from a solvent listed in 40 CFR part 261; and/or
(iii) Exhibits only the hazardous waste characteristic of ignitability found in 40 CFR 261.21 due to the presence of one or more solvents that are not listed in 40 CFR part 261.
(2) Solvent-contaminated wipes that contain listed hazardous waste other than solvents, or exhibit the characteristic of toxicity, corrosivity, or reactivity due to contaminants other than solvents, are not eligible for the exclusions at 40 CFR 261.4(a)(26) and 40 CFR 261.4(b)(18).
Sorbent means a material that is used to soak up free liquids by either adsorption or absorption, or both. Sorb means to either adsorb or absorb, or both.
Staging pile means an accumulation of solid, non-flowing remediation waste (as defined in this section) that is not a containment building and that is used only during remedial operations for temporary storage at a facility. Staging piles must be designated by the Director according to the requirements of 40 CFR 264.554.
State means any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
Storage means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period, at the end of which the hazardous waste is treated, disposed of, or stored elsewhere.
Sump means any pit or reservoir that meets the definition of tank and those troughs/trenches connected to it that serve to collect hazardous waste for transport to hazardous waste storage, treatment, or disposal facilities; except that as used in the landfill, surface impoundment, and waste pile rules, “sump” means any lined pit or reservoir that serves to collect liquids drained from a leachate collection and removal system or leak detection system for subsequent removal from the system.
Surface impoundment or impoundment means a facility or part of a facility which is a natural topographic depression, man-made excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen materials (although it may be lined with man-made materials), which is designed to hold an accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free liquids, and which is not an injection well. Examples of surface impoundments are holding, storage, settling, and aeration pits, ponds, and lagoons.
Tank means a stationary device, designed to contain an accumulation of hazardous waste which is constructed primarily of non-earthen materials (e.g., wood, concrete, steel, plastic) which provide structural support.
Tank system means a hazardous waste storage or treatment tank and its associated ancillary equipment and containment system.
TEQ means toxicity equivalence, the international method of relating the toxicity of various dioxin/furan congeners to the toxicity of 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin.
Thermal treatment means the treatment of hazardous waste in a device which uses elevated temperatures as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or biological character or composition of the hazardous waste. Examples of thermal treatment processes are incineration, molten salt, pyrolysis, calcination, wet air oxidation, and microwave discharge. (See also “incinerator” and “open burning”.)
Thermostat means a temperature control device that contains metallic mercury in an ampule attached to a bimetal sensing element, and mercury-containing ampules that have been removed from these temperature control devices in compliance with the requirements of 40 CFR 273.13(c)(2) or 273.33(c)(2).
Totally enclosed treatment facility means a facility for the treatment of hazardous waste which is directly connected to an industrial production process and which is constructed and operated in a manner which prevents the release of any hazardous waste or any constituent thereof into the environment during treatment. An example is a pipe in which waste acid is neutralized.
Transfer facility means any transportation-related facility, including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas and other similar areas where shipments of hazardous waste or hazardous secondary materials are held during the normal course of transportation.
Transport vehicle means a motor vehicle or rail car used for the transportation of cargo by any mode. Each cargo-carrying body (trailer, railroad freight car, etc.) is a separate transport vehicle.
Transportation means the movement of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
Transporter means a person engaged in the offsite transportation of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
Treatability study means a study in which a hazardous waste is subjected to a treatment process to determine: (1) Whether the waste is amenable to the treatment process, (2) what pretreatment (if any) is required, (3) the optimal process conditions needed to achieve the desired treatment, (4) the efficiency of a treatment process for a specific waste or wastes, or (5) the characteristics and volumes of residuals from a particular treatment process. Also included in this definition for the purpose of the § 261.4 (e) and (f) exemptions are liner compatibility, corrosion, and other material compatibility studies and toxicological and health effects studies. A “treatability study” is not a means to commercially treat or dispose of hazardous waste.
Treatment means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize such waste, or so as to recover energy or material resources from the waste, or so as to render such waste non-hazardous, or less hazardous; safer to transport, store, or dispose of; or amenable for recovery, amenable for storage, or reduced in volume.
Treatment zone means a soil area of the unsaturated zone of a land treatment unit within which hazardous constituents are degraded, transformed, or immobilized.
Underground injection means the subsurface emplacement of fluids through a bored, drilled or driven well; or through a dug well, where the depth of the dug well is greater than the largest surface dimension. (See also “injection well”.)
Underground tank means a device meeting the definition of “tank” in § 260.10 whose entire surface area is totally below the surface of and covered by the ground.
Unfit-for use tank system means a tank system that has been determined through an integrity assessment or other inspection to be no longer capable of storing or treating hazardous waste without posing a threat of release of hazardous waste to the environment.
United States means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
Universal waste means any of the following hazardous wastes that are managed under the universal waste requirements of part 273 of this chapter:
(1) Batteries as described in § 273.2 of this chapter;
(2) Pesticides as described in § 273.3 of this chapter;
(3) Mercury-containing equipment as described in § 273.4 of this chapter;
(4) Lamps as described in § 273.5 of this chapter; and
(5) Aerosol cans as described in § 273.6 of this chapter.
Universal waste handler:
(1) Means:
(i) A generator (as defined in this section) of universal waste; or
(ii) The owner or operator of a facility, including all contiguous property, that receives universal waste from other universal waste handlers, accumulates universal waste, and sends universal waste to another universal waste handler, to a destination facility, or to a foreign destination.
(2) Does not mean:
(i) A person who treats (except under the provisions of 40 CFR 273.13(a) or (c), or 40 CFR 273.33(a) or (c)), disposes of, or recycles (except under the provisions of 40 CFR 273.13(e) or 40 CFR 273.33(e)) universal waste; or
(ii) A person engaged in the off-site transportation of universal waste by air, rail, highway, or water, including a universal waste transfer facility.
Universal waste transporter means a person engaged in the off-site transportation of universal waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
Unsaturated zone or zone of aeration means the zone between the land surface and the water table.
Uppermost aquifer means the geologic formation nearest the natural ground surface that is an aquifer, as well as lower aquifers that are hydraulically interconnected with this aquifer within the facility’s property boundary.
Used oil means any oil that has been refined from crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and as a result of such use is contaminated by physical or chemical impurities.
User of the electronic manifest system means a hazardous waste generator, a hazardous waste transporter, an owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, recycling, or disposal facility, or any other person that:
(1) Is required to use a manifest to comply with:
(i) Any federal or state requirement to track the shipment, transportation, and receipt of hazardous waste or other waste material that is shipped from the site of generation to an off-site designated facility for treatment, storage, recycling, or disposal; or
(ii) Any federal or state requirement to track the shipment, transportation, and receipt of rejected wastes or regulated container residues that are shipped from a designated facility to an alternative facility, or returned to the generator; and
(2) Elects to use the system to obtain, complete and transmit an electronic manifest format supplied by the EPA electronic manifest system, or
(3) Elects to use the paper manifest form and submits to the system for data processing purposes a paper copy of the manifest (or data from such a paper copy), in accordance with § 264.71(a)(2)(v) or § 265.71(a)(2)(v) of this chapter. These paper copies are submitted for data exchange purposes only and are not the official copies of record for legal purposes.
Very small quantity generator is a generator who generates less than or equal to the following amounts in a calendar month:
(1) 100 kilograms (220 lbs) of non-acute hazardous waste; and
(2) 1 kilogram (2.2 lbs) of acute hazardous waste listed in § 261.31 or § 261.33(e) of this chapter; and
(3) 100 kilograms (220 lbs) of any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill, into or on any land or water, of any acute hazardous waste listed in § 261.31 or § 261.33(e) of this chapter.
Vessel includes every description of watercraft, used or capable of being used as a means of transportation on the water.
Wastewater treatment unit means a device which:
(1) Is part of a wastewater treatment facility that is subject to regulation under either section 402 or 307(b) of the Clean Water Act; and
(2) Receives and treats or stores an influent wastewater that is a hazardous waste as defined in § 261.3 of this chapter, or that generates and accumulates a wastewater treatment sludge that is a hazardous waste as defined in § 261.3 of this chapter, or treats or stores a wastewater treatment sludge which is a hazardous waste as defined in § 261.3 of this Chapter; and
(3) Meets the definition of tank or tank system in § 260.10 of this chapter.
Water (bulk shipment) means the bulk transportation of hazardous waste which is loaded or carried on board a vessel without containers or labels.
Well means any shaft or pit dug or bored into the earth, generally of a cylindrical form, and often walled with bricks or tubing to prevent the earth from caving in.
Well injection: (See “underground injection”.)
Zone of engineering control means an area under the control of the owner/operator that, upon detection of a hazardous waste release, can be readily cleaned up prior to the release of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents to ground water or surface water.
Wipe means a woven or non-woven shop towel, rag, pad, or swab made of wood pulp, fabric, cotton, polyester blends, or other material.
§ 260.11 Incorporation by reference.
When used in parts 260 through 268 of this chapter, the following materials are incorporated by reference with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved materials are available for inspection at the OLEM Docket in the Environmental Protection Agency Docket Center (EPA/DC), West William Jefferson Clinton Bldg., Rm. 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC. The EPA/DC Public Reading Room hours of operation are 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number of the EPA/DC Public Reading room is (202) 566-1744, and the telephone number for the OLEM Docket is (202) 566-0270. These approved materials are also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email [email protected] or go to www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html. In addition, these materials are available from the following sources:
(a) American Petroleum Institute (API). 1220 L Street Northwest, Washington, DC 20005, (855) 999-9870, www.api.org.
(1) API Publication 2517, Third Edition, February 1989, “Evaporative Loss from External Floating-Roof Tanks,” IBR approved for § 265.1084.
(2) [Reserved]
(b) ASTM International (ASTM). 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959, (877) 909-ASTM, www.astm.org.
(1) ASTM D93-79, “Standard Test Methods for Flash Point by Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester,” IBR approved for § 261.21(a).
(2) ASTM D93-80, “Standard Test Methods for Flash Point by Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester,” IBR approved for § 261.21(a).
(3) ASTM D1946-82, “Standard Method for Analysis of Reformed Gas by Gas Chromatography,” IBR approved for §§ 264.1033 and 265.1033.
(4) ASTM D2267-88, “Standard Test Method for Aromatics in Light Naphthas and Aviation Gasolines by Gas Chromatography,” IBR approved for § 264.1063.
(5) ASTM D2382-83, “Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion of Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter (High-Precision Method),” IBR approved for §§ 264.1033 and 265.1033.
(6) ASTM D2879-92, “Standard Test Method for Vapor Pressure—Temperature Relationship and Initial Decomposition Temperature of Liquids by Isoteniscope,” IBR approved for § 265.1084.
(7) ASTM D3278-78, “Standard Test Methods for Flash Point for Liquids by Setaflash Closed Tester,” IBR approved for § 261.21(a).
(8) ASTM D8174-18 “Standard Test Method for Finite Flash Point Determination of Liquid Wastes by Small Scale Closed Cup Tester.” Approved March 15, 2018, IBR approved for § 261.21(a).
(9) ASTM D8175-18 “Standard Test Method for Finite Flash Point Determination of Liquid Wastes by Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester.” Approved March 15, 2018, IBR approved for § 261.21(a).
(10) ASTM E168-88, “Standard Practices for General Techniques of Infrared Quantitative Analysis,” IBR approved for § 264.1063.
(11) ASTM E169-87, “Standard Practices for General Techniques of Ultraviolet-Visible Quantitative Analysis,” IBR approved for § 264.1063.
(12) ASTM E260-85, “Standard Practice for Packed Column Gas Chromatography,” IBR approved for § 264.1063.
(13) ASTM E681-85 “Standard Test Method for Concentration Limits of Flammability of Chemicals (Vapors and gases),” Approved November 14, 1985, IBR approved for § 261.21(a).
(c) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). Material cited in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) is available from: National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161; the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, (202) 512-1800; EPA’s National Service Center for Environmental Publications at https://www.epa.gov/nscep. Material cited in paragraph (d)(4) of this section is available at https://www.epa.gov/hw-sw846.
(1) “APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions,” EPA Publication EPA-450/2-81-005, December 1981, IBR approved for §§ 264.1035 and 265.1035.
(2) Method 1664, n-Hexane Extractable Material (HEM; Oil and Grease) and Silica Gel Treated n-Hexane Extractable Material SGT-HEM; Non-polar Material) by Extraction and Gravimetry:
(i) Revision A, EPA-821-R-98-002, February 1999, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(ii) Revision B, EPA-821-R-10-001, February 2010, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(3) “Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air Quality Impact of Stationary Sources, Revised”, October 1992, EPA Publication No. EPA-450/R-92-019, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 266.
(4) The following methods as published in the test methods compendium known as “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, Third Edition.
(i) Method 0010, Modified Method 5 Sampling Train, Revision 1, dated August 2018, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(ii) Method 0011, Sampling for Selected Aldehyde and Ketone Emissions from Stationary Sources, Revision 1, dated August 2018, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261 and appendix IX to part 266
(iii) Method 0020, Source Assessment Sampling System (SASS), Revision 1, dated August 2018, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(iv) Method 0023A, Sampling Method for Polychlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxins and Polychlorinated Dibenzofuran Emissions from Stationary Sources, Revision 2, dated August 2018, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261, § 266.104(e), and appendix IX to part 266.
(v) Method 0030, Volatile Organic Sampling Train, dated September 1986 and in the Basic Manual, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(vi) Method 0031, Sampling Method for Volatile Organic Compounds (SMVOC), dated December 1996 and in Update III, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(vii) Method 0040, Sampling of Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents from Combustion Sources Using Tedlar® Bags, dated December 1996 and in Update III, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(viii) Method 0050, Isokinetic HCl/Cl
(ix) Method 0051, Midget Impinger HCl/Cl2 Emission Sampling Train, Revision 1, dated August 2018, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261, § 266.107, and appendix IX to part 266.
(x) Method 0060, Determination of Metals in Stack Emissions, dated December 1996 and in Update III, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261, § 266.106, and appendix IX to part 266.
(xi) Method 0061, Determination of Hexavalent Chromium Emissions from Stationary Sources, dated December 1996 and in Update III, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261 § 266.106, and appendix IX to part 266.
(xii) Method 1010B, Test Methods for Flash Point by Pensky-Martens Closed-Cup Tester, dated December 2018, IBR approved for § 261.21 and appendix IX to part 261.
(xiii) Method 1020C, Standard Test Methods for Flash Point by Setaflash (Small Scale) Closed-Cup Apparatus, dated December 2018, IBR approved for § 261.21 and appendix IX to part 261.
(xiv) Method 1110A, Corrosivity Toward Steel, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for § 261.22 and appendix IX to part 261.
(xv) Method 1310B, Extraction Procedure (EP) Toxicity Test Method and Structural Integrity Test, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xvi) Method 1311, Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure, dated July 1992 and in Update I, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261, and §§ 261.24, 268.7, 268.40.
(xvii) Method 1312, Synthetic Precipitation Leaching Procedure, dated September 1994 and in Update III, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xviii) Method 1320, Multiple Extraction Procedure, dated September 1986 and in the Basic Manual, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xix) Method 1330A, Extraction Procedure for Oily Wastes, dated July 1992 and in Update I, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xx) Method 9010C, Total and Amenable Cyanide: Distillation, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261 and §§ 268.40, 268.44, 268.48.
(xxi) Method 9012B, Total and Amenable Cyanide (Automated Colorimetric, with Off-Line Distillation), dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261 and §§ 268.40, 268.44, 268.48.
(xxii) Method 9040C, pH Electrometric Measurement, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261 and § 261.22.
(xxiii) Method 9045D, Soil and Waste pH, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xxiv) Method 9060A, Total Organic Carbon, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261, and §§ 264.1034, 264.1063, 265.1034, 265.1063.
(xxv) Method 9070A, n-Hexane Extractable material (HEM) for Aqueous Samples, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xxvi) Method 9071B, n-Hexane Extractable Material (HEM) for Sludge, Sediment, and Solid Samples, dated April 1998 and in Update IIIA, IBR approved for appendix IX to part 261.
(xxvii) Method 9095B, Paint Filter Liquids Test, dated November 2004 and in Update IIIB, IBR approved, appendix IX to part 261, and §§ 264.190, 264.314, 265.190, 265.314, 265.1081, 267.190(a), 268.32.
(d) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). 1 Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101, (800) 344-3555, www.nfpa.org/.
(1) NFPA 30, “Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,” 1977 Edition, IBR approved for §§ 262.16(b), 264.198(b), 265.198(b), and 267.202(b).
(2) NFPA 30, “Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,” 1981 Edition, IBR approved for §§ 262.16(b), 264.198(b), 265.198(b), and 267.202(b).
(e) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). Economic Cooperation and Development, Environment Directorate, 2 rue André Pascal, F-75775 Paris Cedex 16, France, owww.oecd-ilibrary.org/.
(1) Guidance Manual for the Control of Transboundary Movements of Recoverable Wastes, copyright 2009, Annex B: OECD Consolidated List of Wastes Subject to the Green Control Procedure and Annex C: OECD Consolidated List of Wastes Subject to the Amber Control Procedure, IBR approved for §§ 262.82(a), 262.83(b), (d), and (g), and 262.84(b) and (d).
(2) [Reserved]
Subpart C—Rulemaking Petitions
§ 260.20 General.
(a) Any person may petition the Administrator to modify or revoke any provision in parts 260 through 266, 268 and 273 of this chapter. This section sets forth general requirements which apply to all such petitions. Section 260.21 sets forth additional requirements for petitions to add a testing or analytical method to part 261, 264 or 265 of this chapter. Section 260.22 sets forth additional requirements for petitions to exclude a waste or waste-derived material at a particular facility from § 261.3 of this chapter or the lists of hazardous wastes in subpart D of part 261 of this chapter. Section 260.23 sets forth additional requirements for petitions to amend part 273 of this chapter to include additional hazardous wastes or categories of hazardous waste as universal waste.
(b) Each petition must be submitted to the Administrator by certified mail and must include:
(1) The petitioner’s name and address;
(2) A statement of the petitioner’s interest in the proposed action;
(3) A description of the proposed action, including (where appropriate) suggested regulatory language; and
(4) A statement of the need and justification for the proposed action, including any supporting tests, studies, or other information.
(c) The Administrator will make a tentative decision to grant or deny a petition and will publish notice of such tentative decision, either in the form of an advanced notice of proposed rulemaking, a proposed rule, or a tentative determination to deny the petition, in the
(d) Upon the written request of any interested person, the Administrator may, at his discretion, hold an informal public hearing to consider oral comments on the tentative decision. A person requesting a hearing must state the issues to be raised and explain why written comments would not suffice to communicate the person’s views. The Administrator may in any case decide on his own motion to hold an informal public hearing.
(e) After evaluating all public comments the Administrator will make a final decision by publishing in the
§ 260.21 Petitions for equivalent testing or analytical methods.
(a) Any person seeking to add a testing or analytical method to part 261, 264, or 265 of this chapter may petition for a regulatory amendment under this section and § 260.20. To be successful, the person must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the proposed method is equal to or superior to the corresponding method prescribed in part 261, 264, or 265 of this chapter, in terms of its sensitivity, accuracy, and precision (i.e., reproducibility).
(b) Each petition must include, in addition to the information required by § 260.20(b):
(1) A full description of the proposed method, including all procedural steps and equipment used in the method;
(2) A description of the types of wastes or waste matrices for which the proposed method may be used;
(3) Comparative results obtained from using the proposed method with those obtained from using the relevant or corresponding methods prescribed in part 261, 264, or 265 of this chapter;
(4) An assessment of any factors which may interfere with, or limit the use of, the proposed method; and
(5) A description of the quality control procedures necessary to ensure the sensitivity, accuracy and precision of the proposed method.
(c) After receiving a petition for an equivalent method, the Administrator may request any additional information on the proposed method which he may reasonably require to evaluate the method.
(d) If the Administrator amends the regulations to permit use of a new testing method, the method will be incorporated by reference in § 260.11 and added to “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, Washington, DC 20460.
§ 260.22 Petitions to amend part 261 to exclude a waste produced at a particular facility.
(a) Any person seeking to exclude a waste at a particular generating facility from the lists in subpart D of part 261 may petition for a regulatory amendment under this section and § 260.20. To be successful:
(1) The petitioner must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the waste produced by a particular generating facility does not meet any of the criteria under which the waste was listed as a hazardous or an acutely hazardous waste; and
(2) Based on a complete application, the Administrator must determine, where he has a reasonable basis to believe that factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be a hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a hazardous waste. A waste which is so excluded, however, still may be a hazardous waste by operation of subpart C of part 261.
(b) The procedures in this Section and § 260.20 may also be used to petition the Administrator for a regulatory amendment to exclude from § 261.3(a)(2)(ii) or (c), a waste which is described in these Sections and is either a waste listed in subpart D, or is derived from a waste listed in subpart D. This exclusion may only be issued for a particular generating, storage, treatment, or disposal facility. The petitioner must make the same demonstration as required by paragraph (a) of this section. Where the waste is a mixture of solid waste and one or more listed hazardous wastes or is derived from one or more hazardous wastes, his demonstration must be made with respect to the waste mixture as a whole; analyses must be conducted for not only those constituents for which the listed waste contained in the mixture was listed as hazardous, but also for factors (including additional constituents) that could cause the waste mixture to be a hazardous waste. A waste which is so excluded may still be a hazardous waste by operation of subpart C of part 261.
(c) If the waste is listed with codes “I”, “C”, “R”, or “E”, in subpart D,
(1) The petitioner must show that the waste does not exhibit the relevant characteristic for which the waste was listed as defined in § 261.21, § 261.22, § 261.23, or § 261.24 using any applicable methods prescribed therein. The petitioner also must show that the waste does not exhibit any of the other characteristics defined in § 261.21, § 261.22, § 261.23, or § 261.24 using any applicable methods prescribed therein;
(2) Based on a complete application, the Administrator must determine, where he has a reasonable basis to believe that factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a hazardous waste. A waste which is so excluded, however, still may be a hazardous waste by operation of subpart C of part 261.
(d) If the waste is listed with code “T” in subpart D,
(1) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste:
(i) Does not contain the constituent or constituents (as defined in appendix VII of part 261 of this chapter) that caused the Administrator to list the waste; or
(ii) Although containing one or more of the hazardous constituents (as defined in appendix VII of part 261) that caused the Administrator to list the waste, does not meet the criterion of § 261.11(a)(3) when considering the factors used by the Administrator in § 261.11(a)(3) (i) through (xi) under which the waste was listed as hazardous; and
(2) Based on a complete application, the Administrator must determine, where he has a reasonable basis to believe that factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be a hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a hazardous waste; and
(3) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not exhibit any of the characteristics defined in § 261.21, § 261.22, § 261.23, and § 261.24 using any applicable methods prescribed therein;
(4) A waste which is so excluded, however, still may be a hazardous waste by operation of subpart C of part 261.
(e) If the waste is listed with the code “H” in subpart D,
(1) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not meet the criterion of § 261.11(a)(2); and
(2) Based on a complete application, the Administrator must determine, where he has a reasonable basis to believe that additional factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be a hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a hazardous waste; and
(3) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not exhibit any of the characteristics defined in § 261.21, § 261.22, § 261.23, and § 261.24 using any applicable methods prescribed therein;
(4) A waste which is so excluded, however, still may be a hazardous waste by operation of subpart C of part 261.
(f) [Reserved for listing radioactive wastes.]
(g) [Reserved for listing infectious wastes.]
(h) Demonstration samples must consist of enough representative samples, but in no case less than four samples, taken over a period of time sufficient to represent the variability or the uniformity of the waste.
(i) Each petition must include, in addition to the information required by § 260.20(b):
(1) The name and address of the laboratory facility performing the sampling or tests of the waste;
(2) The names and qualifications of the persons sampling and testing the waste;
(3) The dates of sampling and testing;
(4) The location of the generating facility;
(5) A description of the manufacturing processes or other operations and feed materials producing the waste and an assessment of whether such processes, operations, or feed materials can or might produce a waste that is not covered by the demonstration;
(6) A description of the waste and an estimate of the average and maximum monthly and annual quantities of waste covered by the demonstration;
(7) Pertinent data on and discussion of the factors delineated in the respective criterion for listing a hazardous waste, where the demonstration is based on the factors in § 261.11(a)(3);
(8) A description of the methodologies and equipment used to obtain the representative samples;
(9) A description of the sample handling and preparation techniques, including techniques used for extraction, containerization and preservation of the samples;
(10) A description of the tests performed (including results);
(11) The names and model numbers of the instruments used in performing the tests; and
(12) The following statement signed by the generator of the waste or his authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this demonstration and all attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
(j) After receiving a petition for an exclusion, the Administrator may request any additional information which he may reasonably require to evaluate the petition.
(k) An exclusion will only apply to the waste generated at the individual facility covered by the demonstration and will not apply to waste from any other facility.
(l) The Administrator may exclude only part of the waste for which the demonstration is submitted where he has reason to believe that variability of the waste justifies a partial exclusion.
§ 260.23 Petitions to amend 40 CFR part 273 to include additional hazardous wastes.
(a) Any person seeking to add a hazardous waste or a category of hazardous waste to the universal waste regulations of part 273 of this chapter may petition for a regulatory amendment under this section, 40 CFR 260.20, and subpart G of 40 CFR part 273.
(b) To be successful, the petitioner must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Administrator that regulation under the universal waste regulations of 40 CFR part 273: Is appropriate for the waste or category of waste; will improve management practices for the waste or category of waste; and will improve implementation of the hazardous waste program. The petition must include the information required by 40 CFR 260.20(b). The petition should also address as many of the factors listed in 40 CFR 273.81 as are appropriate for the waste or category of waste addressed in the petition.
(c) The Administrator will grant or deny a petition using the factors listed in 40 CFR 273.81. The decision will be based on the weight of evidence showing that regulation under 40 CFR part 273 is appropriate for the waste or category of waste, will improve management practices for the waste or category of waste, and will improve implementation of the hazardous waste program.
(d) The Administrator may request additional information needed to evaluate the merits of the petition.
§ 260.30 Non-waste determinations and variances from classification as a solid waste.
In accordance with the standards and criteria in § 260.31 and § 260.34 and the procedures in § 260.33, the Administrator may determine on a case-by-case basis that the following recycled materials are not solid wastes:
(a) Materials that are accumulated speculatively without sufficient amounts being recycled (as defined in § 261.1(c)(8) of this chapter);
(b) Materials that are reclaimed and then reused within the original production process in which they were generated;
(c) Materials that have been reclaimed but must be reclaimed further before the materials are completely recovered.
(d) Hazardous secondary materials that are reclaimed in a continuous industrial process; and
(e) Hazardous secondary materials that are indistinguishable in all relevant aspects from a product or intermediate.
§ 260.31 Standards and criteria for variances from classification as a solid waste.
(a) The Administrator may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those materials that are accumulated speculatively without sufficient amounts being recycled if the applicant demonstrates that sufficient amounts of the material will be recycled or transferred for recycling in the following year. If a variance is granted, it is valid only for the following year, but can be renewed, on an annual basis, by filing a new application. The Administrator’s decision will be based on the following criteria:
(1) The manner in which the material is expected to be recycled, when the material is expected to be recycled, and whether this expected disposition is likely to occur (for example, because of past practice, market factors, the nature of the material, or contractual arrangements for recycling);
(2) The reason that the applicant has accumulated the material for one or more years without recycling 75 percent of the volume accumulated at the beginning of the year;
(3) The quantity of material already accumulated and the quantity expected to be generated and accumulated before the material is recycled;
(4) The extent to which the material is handled to minimize loss;
(5) Other relevant factors.
(b) The Administrator may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those materials that are reclaimed and then reused as feedstock within the original production process in which the materials were generated if the reclamation operation is an essential part of the production process. This determination will be based on the following criteria:
(1) How economically viable the production process would be if it were to use virgin materials, rather than reclaimed materials;
(2) The extent to which the material is handled before reclamation to minimize loss;
(3) The time periods between generating the material and its reclamation, and between reclamation and return to the original primary production process;
(4) The location of the reclamation operation in relation to the production process;
(5) Whether the reclaimed material is used for the purpose for which it was originally produced when it is returned to the original process, and whether it is returned to the process in substantially its original form;
(6) Whether the person who generates the material also reclaims it;
(7) Other relevant factors.
(c) The Administrator may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those hazardous secondary materials that have been partially reclaimed, but must be reclaimed further before recovery is completed, if the partial reclamation has produced a commodity-like material. A determination that a partially-reclaimed material for which the variance is sought is commodity-like will be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled as specified in § 260.43 of this part and on whether all of the following decision criteria are satisfied:
(1) Whether the degree of partial reclamation the material has undergone is substantial as demonstrated by using a partial reclamation process other than the process that generated the hazardous waste;
(2) Whether the partially-reclaimed material has sufficient economic value that it will be purchased for further reclamation;
(3) Whether the partially-reclaimed material is a viable substitute for a product or intermediate produced from virgin or raw materials which is used in subsequent production steps;
(4) Whether there is a market for the partially-reclaimed material as demonstrated by known customer(s) who are further reclaiming the material (e.g., records of sales and/or contracts and evidence of subsequent use, such as bills of lading);
(5) Whether the partially-reclaimed material is handled to minimize loss.
§ 260.32 Variances to be classified as a boiler.
In accordance with the standards and criteria in § 260.10 (definition of “boiler”), and the procedures in § 260.33, the Administrator may determine on a case-by-case basis that certain enclosed devices using controlled flame combustion are boilers, even though they do not otherwise meet the definition of boiler contained in § 260.10, after considering the following criteria:
(a) The extent to which the unit has provisions for recovering and exporting thermal energy in the form of steam, heated fluids, or heated gases; and
(b) The extent to which the combustion chamber and energy recovery equipment are of integral design; and
(c) The efficiency of energy recovery, calculated in terms of the recovered energy compared with the thermal value of the fuel; and
(d) The extent to which exported energy is utilized; and
(e) The extent to which the device is in common and customary use as a “boiler” functioning primarily to produce steam, heated fluids, or heated gases; and
(f) Other factors, as appropriate.
§ 260.33 Procedures for variances from classification as a solid waste, for variances to be classified as a boiler, or for non-waste determinations.
The Administrator will use the following procedures in evaluating applications for variances from classification as a solid waste, applications to classify particular enclosed controlled flame combustion devices as boilers, or applications for non-waste determinations.
(a) The applicant must apply to the Administrator for the variance or non-waste determination. The application must address the relevant criteria contained in § 260.31, § 260.32, or § 260.34, as applicable.
(b) The Administrator will evaluate the application and issue a draft notice tentatively granting or denying the application. Notification of this tentative decision will be provided by newspaper advertisement or radio broadcast in the locality where the recycler is located. The Administrator will accept comment on the tentative decision for 30 days, and may also hold a public hearing upon request or at his discretion. The Administrator will issue a final decision after receipt of comments and after the hearing (if any).
(c) In the event of a change in circumstances that affect how a hazardous secondary material meets the relevant criteria contained in § 260.31, § 260.32, or § 260.34 upon which a variance or non-waste determination has been based, the applicant must send a description of the change in circumstances to the Administrator. The Administrator may issue a determination that the hazardous secondary material continues to meet the relevant criteria of the variance or non-waste determination or may require the facility to re-apply for the variance or non-waste determination.
(d) Variances and non-waste determinations shall be effective for a fixed term not to exceed ten years. No later than six months prior to the end of this term, facilities must re-apply for a variance or non-waste determination. If a facility re-applies for a variance or non-waste determination within six months, the facility may continue to operate under an expired variance or non-waste determination until receiving a decision on their re-application from the Administrator.
(e) Facilities receiving a variance or non-waste determination must provide notification as required by § 260.42 of this chapter.
§ 260.34 Standards and criteria for non-waste determinations.
(a) An applicant may apply to the Administrator for a formal determination that a hazardous secondary material is not discarded and therefore not a solid waste. The determinations will be based on the criteria contained in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, as applicable. If an application is denied, the hazardous secondary material might still be eligible for a solid waste variance or exclusion (for example, one of the solid waste variances under § 260.31). Determinations may also be granted by the State if the State is either authorized for this provision or if the following conditions are met:
(1) The State determines the hazardous secondary material meets the criteria in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, as applicable;
(2) The State requests that EPA review its determination; and
(3) EPA approves the State determination.
(b) The Administrator may grant a non-waste determination for hazardous secondary material which is reclaimed in a continuous industrial process if the applicant demonstrates that the hazardous secondary material is a part of the production process and is not discarded. The determination will be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled as specified in § 260.43 and on the following criteria:
(1) The extent that the management of the hazardous secondary material is part of the continuous primary production process and is not waste treatment;
(2) Whether the capacity of the production process would use the hazardous secondary material in a reasonable time frame and ensure that the hazardous secondary material will not be abandoned (for example, based on past practices, market factors, the nature of the hazardous secondary material, or any contractual arrangements);
(3) Whether the hazardous constituents in the hazardous secondary material are reclaimed rather than released to the air, water or land at significantly higher levels from either a statistical or from a health and environmental risk perspective than would otherwise be released by the production process; and
(4) Other relevant factors that demonstrate the hazardous secondary material is not discarded, including why the hazardous secondary material cannot meet, or should not have to meet, the conditions of an exclusion under § 261.2 or § 261.4 of this chapter.
(c) The Administrator may grant a non-waste determination for hazardous secondary material which is indistinguishable in all relevant aspects from a product or intermediate if the applicant demonstrates that the hazardous secondary material is comparable to a product or intermediate and is not discarded. The determination will be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled as specified in § 260.43 and on the following criteria:
(1) Whether market participants treat the hazardous secondary material as a product or intermediate rather than a waste (for example, based on the current positive value of the hazardous secondary material, stability of demand, or any contractual arrangements);
(2) Whether the chemical and physical identity of the hazardous secondary material is comparable to commercial products or intermediates;
(3) Whether the capacity of the market would use the hazardous secondary material in a reasonable time frame and ensure that the hazardous secondary material will not be abandoned (for example, based on past practices, market factors, the nature of the hazardous secondary material, or any contractual arrangements);
(4) Whether the hazardous constituents in the hazardous secondary material are reclaimed rather than released to the air, water or land at significantly higher levels from either a statistical or from a health and environmental risk perspective than would otherwise be released by the production process; and
(5) Other relevant factors that demonstrate the hazardous secondary material is not discarded, including why the hazardous secondary material cannot meet, or should not have to meet, the conditions of an exclusion under § 261.2 or § 261.4 of this chapter.
§ 260.40 Additional regulation of certain hazardous waste recycling activities on a case-by-case basis.
(a) The Regional Administrator may decide on a case-by-case basis that persons accumulating or storing the recyclable materials described in § 261.6(a)(2)(iii) of this chapter should be regulated under § 261.6 (b) and (c) of this chapter. The basis for this decision is that the materials are being accumulated or stored in a manner that does not protect human health and the environment because the materials or their toxic constituents have not been adequately contained, or because the materials being accumulated or stored together are incompatible. In making this decision, the Regional Administrator will consider the following factors:
(1) The types of materials accumulated or stored and the amounts accumulated or stored;
(2) The method of accumulation or storage;
(3) The length of time the materials have been accumulated or stored before being reclaimed;
(4) Whether any contaminants are being released into the environment, or are likely to be so released; and
(5) Other relevant factors.
(b) [Reserved]
§ 260.41 Procedures for case-by-case regulation of hazardous waste recycling activities.
The Regional Administrator will use the following procedures when determining whether to regulate hazardous waste recycling activities described in § 261.6(a)(2)(iii) under the provisions of § 261.6 (b) and (c), rather than under the provisions of subpart F of part 266 of this chapter.
(a) If a generator is accumulating the waste, the Regional Administrator will issue a notice setting forth the factual basis for the decision and stating that the person must comply with the applicable requirements of subparts A, C, D, and E of part 262 of this chapter. The notice will become final within 30 days, unless the person served requests a public hearing to challenge the decision. Upon receiving such a request, the Regional Administrator will hold a public hearing. The Regional Administrator will provide notice of the hearing to the public and allow public participation at the hearing. The Regional Administrator will issue a final order after the hearing stating whether or not compliance with part 262 is required. The order becomes effective 30 days after service of the decision unless the Regional Administrator specifies a later date or unless review by the Administrator is requested. The order may be appealed to the Administrator by any person who participated in the public hearing. The Administrator may choose to grant or to deny the appeal. Final Agency action occurs when a final order is issued and Agency review procedures are exhausted.
(b) If the person is accumulating the recyclable material as a storage facility, the notice will state that the person must obtain a permit in accordance with all applicable provisions of parts 270 and 124 of this chapter. The owner or operator of the facility must apply for a permit within no less than 60 days and no more than six months of notice, as specified in the notice. If the owner or operator of the facility wishes to challenge the Regional Administrator’s decision, he may do so in his permit application, in a public hearing held on the draft permit, or in comments filed on the draft permit or on the notice of intent to deny the permit. The fact sheet accompanying the permit will specify the reasons for the Agency’s determination. The question of whether the Regional Administrator’s decision was proper will remain open for consideration during the public comment period discussed under § 124.11 of this chapter and in any subsequent hearing.
§ 260.42 Notification requirement for hazardous secondary materials.
(a) Facilities managing hazardous secondary materials under §§ 260.30, 261.4(a)(23), 261.4(a)(24), 261.4(a)(25), or 261.4(a)(27) must send a notification prior to operating under the regulatory provision and by March 1 of each even-numbered year thereafter to the Regional Administrator using EPA Form 8700-12 that includes the following information:
(1) The name, address, and EPA ID number (if applicable) of the facility;
(2) The name and telephone number of a contact person;
(3) The NAICS code of the facility;
(4) The regulation under which the hazardous secondary materials will be managed;
(5) For reclaimers and intermediate facilities managing hazardous secondary materials in accordance with § 261.4(a)(24) or (25), whether the reclaimer or intermediate facility has financial assurance (not applicable for persons managing hazardous secondary materials generated and reclaimed under the control of the generator);
(6) When the facility began or expects to begin managing the hazardous secondary materials in accordance with the regulation;
(7) A list of hazardous secondary materials that will be managed according to the regulation (reported as the EPA hazardous waste numbers that would apply if the hazardous secondary materials were managed as hazardous wastes);
(8) For each hazardous secondary material, whether the hazardous secondary material, or any portion thereof, will be managed in a land-based unit;
(9) The quantity of each hazardous secondary material to be managed annually; and
(10) The certification (included in EPA Form 8700-12) signed and dated by an authorized representative of the facility.
(b) If a facility managing hazardous secondary materials has submitted a notification, but then subsequently stops managing hazardous secondary materials in accordance with the regulation(s) listed above, the facility must notify the Regional Administrator within thirty (30) days using EPA Form 8700-12. For purposes of this section, a facility has stopped managing hazardous secondary materials if the facility no longer generates, manages and/or reclaims hazardous secondary materials under the regulation(s) above and does not expect to manage any amount of hazardous secondary materials for at least 1 year.
§ 260.43 Legitimate recycling of hazardous secondary materials.
(a) Recycling of hazardous secondary materials for the purpose of the exclusions or exemptions from the hazardous waste regulations must be legitimate. Hazardous secondary material that is not legitimately recycled is discarded material and is a solid waste. In determining if their recycling is legitimate, persons must address all the requirements of this paragraph and must consider the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
(1) Legitimate recycling must involve a hazardous secondary material that provides a useful contribution to the recycling process or to a product or intermediate of the recycling process. The hazardous secondary material provides a useful contribution if it:
(i) Contributes valuable ingredients to a product or intermediate; or
(ii) Replaces a catalyst or carrier in the recycling process; or
(iii) Is the source of a valuable constituent recovered in the recycling process; or
(iv) Is recovered or regenerated by the recycling process; or
(v) Is used as an effective substitute for a commercial product.
(2) The recycling process must produce a valuable product or intermediate. The product or intermediate is valuable if it is:
(i) Sold to a third party; or
(ii) Used by the recycler or the generator as an effective substitute for a commercial product or as an ingredient or intermediate in an industrial process.
(3) The generator and the recycler must manage the hazardous secondary material as a valuable commodity when it is under their control. Where there is an analogous raw material, the hazardous secondary material must be managed, at a minimum, in a manner consistent with the management of the raw material or in an equally protective manner. Where there is no analogous raw material, the hazardous secondary material must be contained. Hazardous secondary materials that are released to the environment and are not recovered immediately are discarded.
(b) The following factor must be considered in making a determination as to the overall legitimacy of a specific recycling activity.
(1) The product of the recycling process does not:
(i) Contain significant concentrations of any hazardous constituents found in appendix VIII of part 261 that are not found in analogous products; or
(ii) Contain concentrations of hazardous constituents found in appendix VIII of part 261 at levels that are significantly elevated from those found in analogous products, or
(iii) Exhibit a hazardous characteristic (as defined in part 261 subpart C) that analogous products do not exhibit.
(2) In making a determination that a hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled, persons must evaluate all factors and consider legitimacy as a whole. If, after careful evaluation of these considerations, the factor in this paragraph is not met, then this fact may be an indication that the material is not legitimately recycled. However, the factor in this paragraph does not have to be met for the recycling to be considered legitimate. In evaluating the extent to which this factor is met and in determining whether a process that does not meet this factor is still legitimate, persons can consider exposure from toxics in the product, the bioavailability of the toxics in the product and other relevant considerations.
(c) [Reserved]
PART 261—IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Subpart A—General
§ 261.1 Purpose and scope.
(a) This part identifies those solid wastes which are subject to regulation as hazardous wastes under parts 262 through 265, 268, and parts 270, 271, and 124 of this chapter and which are subject to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA. In this part:
(1) Subpart A defines the terms “solid waste” and “hazardous waste”, identifies those wastes which are excluded from regulation under parts 262 through 266, 268, and 270 of this subchapter and establishes special management requirements for hazardous waste which is recycled.
(2) Subpart B sets forth the criteria used by EPA to identify characteristics of hazardous waste and to list particular hazardous wastes.
(3) Subpart C identifies characteristics of hazardous waste.
(4) Subpart D lists particular hazardous wastes.
(b)(1) The definition of solid waste contained in this part applies only to wastes that also are hazardous for purposes of the regulations implementing subtitle C of RCRA. For example, it does not apply to materials (such as non-hazardous scrap, paper, textiles, or rubber) that are not otherwise hazardous wastes and that are recycled.
(2) This part identifies only some of the materials which are solid wastes and hazardous wastes under sections 3007, 3013, and 7003 of RCRA. A material which is not defined as a solid waste in this part, or is not a hazardous waste identified or listed in this part, is still a solid waste and a hazardous waste for purposes of these sections if:
(i) In the case of sections 3007 and 3013, EPA has reason to believe that the material may be a solid waste within the meaning of section 1004(27) of RCRA and a hazardous waste within the meaning of section 1004(5) of RCRA; or
(ii) In the case of section 7003, the statutory elements are established.
(c) For the purposes of §§ 261.2 and 261.6:
(1) A “spent material” is any material that has been used and as a result of contamination can no longer serve the purpose for which it was produced without processing;
(2) “Sludge” has the same meaning used in § 260.10 of this chapter;
(3) A “by-product” is a material that is not one of the primary products of a production process and is not solely or separately produced by the production process. Examples are process residues such as slags or distillation column bottoms. The term does not include a co-product that is produced for the general public’s use and is ordinarily used in the form it is produced by the process.
(4) A material is “reclaimed” if it is processed to recover a usable product, or if it is regenerated. Examples are recovery of lead values from spent batteries and regeneration of spent solvents. In addition, for purposes of § 261.4(a)(23) and (24), smelting, melting, and refining furnaces are considered to be solely engaged in metals reclamation if the metal recovery from the hazardous secondary materials meets the same requirements as those specified for metals recovery from hazardous waste found in § 266.100(d)(1) through (3) of this chapter, and if the residuals meet the requirements specified in § 266.112 of this chapter.
(5) A material is “used or reused” if it is either:
(i) Employed as an ingredient (including use as an intermediate) in an industrial process to make a product (for example, distillation bottoms from one process used as feedstock in another process). However, a material will not satisfy this condition if distinct components of the material are recovered as separate end products (as when metals are recovered from metal-containing secondary materials); or
(ii) Employed in a particular function or application as an effective substitute for a commercial product (for example, spent pickle liquor used as phosphorous precipitant and sludge conditioner in wastewater treatment).
(6) “Scrap metal” is bits and pieces of metal parts (e.g., bars, turnings, rods, sheets, wire) or metal pieces that may be combined together with bolts or soldering (e.g., radiators, scrap automobiles, railroad box cars), which when worn or superfluous can be recycled.
(7) A material is “recycled” if it is used, reused, or reclaimed.
(8) A material is “accumulated speculatively” if it is accumulated before being recycled. A material is not accumulated speculatively, however, if the person accumulating it can show that the material is potentially recyclable and has a feasible means of being recycled; and that—during the calendar year (commencing on January 1)—the amount of material that is recycled, or transferred to a different site for recycling, equals at least 75 percent by weight or volume of the amount of that material accumulated at the beginning of the period. Materials must be placed in a storage unit with a label indicating the first date that the material began to be accumulated. If placing a label on the storage unit is not practicable, the accumulation period must be documented through an inventory log or other appropriate method. In calculating the percentage of turnover, the 75 percent requirement is to be applied to each material of the same type (e.g., slags from a single smelting process) that is recycled in the same way (i.e., from which the same material is recovered or that is used in the same way). Materials accumulating in units that would be exempt from regulation under § 261.4(c) are not to be included in making the calculation. Materials that are already defined as solid wastes also are not to be included in making the calculation. Materials are no longer in this category once they are removed from accumulation for recycling, however.
(9) “Excluded scrap metal” is processed scrap metal, unprocessed home scrap metal, and unprocessed prompt scrap metal.
(10) “Processed scrap metal” is scrap metal which has been manually or physically altered to either separate it into distinct materials to enhance economic value or to improve the handling of materials. Processed scrap metal includes, but is not limited to scrap metal which has been baled, shredded, sheared, chopped, crushed, flattened, cut, melted, or separated by metal type (i.e., sorted), and, fines, drosses and related materials which have been agglomerated. (Note: shredded circuit boards being sent for recycling are not considered processed scrap metal. They are covered under the exclusion from the definition of solid waste for shredded circuit boards being recycled (§ 261.4(a)(14)).
(11) “Home scrap metal” is scrap metal as generated by steel mills, foundries, and refineries such as turnings, cuttings, punchings, and borings.
(12) “Prompt scrap metal” is scrap metal as generated by the metal working/fabrication industries and includes such scrap metal as turnings, cuttings, punchings, and borings. Prompt scrap is also known as industrial or new scrap metal.
§ 261.2 Definition of solid waste.
(a)(1) A solid waste is any discarded material that is not excluded under § 261.4(a) or that is not excluded by a variance granted under §§ 260.30 and 260.31 or that is not excluded by a non-waste determination under §§ 260.30 and 260.34.
(2)(i) A discarded material is any material which is:
(A) Abandoned, as explained in paragraph (b) of this section; or
(B) Recycled, as explained in paragraph (c) of this section; or
(C) Considered inherently waste-like, as explained in paragraph (d) of this section; or
(D) A military munition identified as a solid waste in § 266.202.
(ii) [Reserved]
(b) Materials are solid waste if they are abandoned by being:
(1) Disposed of; or
(2) Burned or incinerated; or
(3) Accumulated, stored, or treated (but not recycled) before or in lieu of being abandoned by being disposed of, burned or incinerated; or
(4) Sham recycled, as explained in paragraph (g) of this section.
(c) Materials are solid wastes if they are recycled—or accumulated, stored, or treated before recycling—as specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) Used in a manner constituting disposal. (i) Materials noted with a “*” in Column 1 of Table 1 are solid wastes when they are:
(A) Applied to or placed on the land in a manner that constitutes disposal; or
(B) Used to produce products that are applied to or placed on the land or are otherwise contained in products that are applied to or placed on the land (in which cases the product itself remains a solid waste).
(ii) However, commercial chemical products listed in § 261.33 are not solid wastes if they are applied to the land and that is their ordinary manner of use.
(2) Burning for energy recovery. (i) Materials noted with a “*” in column 2 of Table 1 are solid wastes when they are:
(A) Burned to recover energy;
(B) Used to produce a fuel or are otherwise contained in fuels (in which cases the fuel itself remains a solid waste).
(ii) However, commercial chemical products listed in § 261.33 are not solid wastes if they are themselves fuels.
(3) Reclaimed. Materials noted with a “-” in column 3 of Table 1 are not solid wastes when reclaimed. Materials noted with an “*” in column 3 of Table 1 are solid wastes when reclaimed unless they meet the requirements of §§ 261.4(a)(17), or 261.4(a)(23), 261.4(a)(24), or 261.4(a)(27).
(4) Accumulated speculatively. Materials noted with a “*” in column 4 of Table 1 are solid wastes when accumulated speculatively.
Table 1
Use constituting disposal (§ 261.2(c)(1)) | Energy recovery/fuel (§ 261.2(c)(2)) | Reclamation (§ 261.2(c)(3)), except as provided in §§ 261.4(a)(17), 261.4(a)(23), 261.4(a)(24) or 261.4(a)(27) | Speculative accumulation (§ 261.2(c)(4)) | |
---|---|---|---|---|
1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | |
Spent Materials | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
Sludges (listed in 40 CFR Part 261.31 or 261.32) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
Sludges exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste | (*) | (*) | – | (*) |
By-products (listed in 40 CFR 261.31 or 261.32) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
By-products exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste | (*) | (*) | – | (*) |
Commercial chemical products listed in 40 CFR 261.33 | (*) | (*) | – | – |
Scrap metal that is not excluded under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(13) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
(d) Inherently waste-like materials. The following materials are solid wastes when they are recycled in any manner:
(1) Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021 (unless used as an ingredient to make a product at the site of generation), F022, F023, F026, and F028.
(2) Secondary materials fed to a halogen acid furnace that exhibit a characteristic of a hazardous waste or are listed as a hazardous waste as defined in subparts C or D of this part, except for brominated material that meets the following criteria:
(i) The material must contain a bromine concentration of at least 45%; and
(ii) The material must contain less than a total of 1% of toxic organic compounds listed in appendix VIII; and
(iii) The material is processed continually on-site in the halogen acid furnace via direct conveyance (hard piping).
(3) The Administrator will use the following criteria to add wastes to that list:
(i)(A) The materials are ordinarily disposed of, burned, or incinerated; or
(B) The materials contain toxic constituents listed in appendix VIII of part 261 and these constituents are not ordinarily found in raw materials or products for which the materials substitute (or are found in raw materials or products in smaller concentrations) and are not used or reused during the recycling process; and
(ii) The material may pose a substantial hazard to human health and the environment when recycled.
(e) Materials that are not solid waste when recycled. (1) Materials are not solid wastes when they can be shown to be recycled by being:
(i) Used or reused as ingredients in an industrial process to make a product, provided the materials are not being reclaimed; or
(ii) Used or reused as effective substitutes for commercial products; or
(iii) Returned to the original process from which they are generated, without first being reclaimed or land disposed. The material must be returned as a substitute for feedstock materials. In cases where the original process to which the material is returned is a secondary process, the materials must be managed such that there is no placement on the land. In cases where the materials are generated and reclaimed within the primary mineral processing industry, the conditions of the exclusion found at § 261.4(a)(17) apply rather than this paragraph.
(2) The following materials are solid wastes, even if the recycling involves use, reuse, or return to the original process (described in paragraphs (e)(1) (i) through (iii) of this section):
(i) Materials used in a manner constituting disposal, or used to produce products that are applied to the land; or
(ii) Materials burned for energy recovery, used to produce a fuel, or contained in fuels; or
(iii) Materials accumulated speculatively; or
(iv) Materials listed in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section.
(f) Documentation of claims that materials are not solid wastes or are conditionally exempt from regulation. Respondents in actions to enforce regulations implementing subtitle C of RCRA who raise a claim that a certain material is not a solid waste, or is conditionally exempt from regulation, must demonstrate that there is a known market or disposition for the material, and that they meet the terms of the exclusion or exemption. In doing so, they must provide appropriate documentation (such as contracts showing that a second person uses the material as an ingredient in a production process) to demonstrate that the material is not a waste, or is exempt from regulation. In addition, owners or operators of facilities claiming that they actually are recycling materials must show that they have the necessary equipment to do so.
(g) Sham recycling. A hazardous secondary material found to be sham recycled is considered discarded and a solid waste. Sham recycling is recycling that is not legitimate recycling as defined in § 260.43.
§ 261.3 Definition of hazardous waste.
(a) A solid waste, as defined in § 261.2, is a hazardous waste if:
(1) It is not excluded from regulation as a hazardous waste under § 261.4(b); and
(2) It meets any of the following criteria:
(i) It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in subpart C of this part. However, any mixture of a waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals excluded under § 261.4(b)(7) and any other solid waste exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste under subpart C is a hazardous waste only if it exhibits a characteristic that would not have been exhibited by the excluded waste alone if such mixture had not occurred, or if it continues to exhibit any of the characteristics exhibited by the non-excluded wastes prior to mixture. Further, for the purposes of applying the Toxicity Characteristic to such mixtures, the mixture is also a hazardous waste if it exceeds the maximum concentration for any contaminant listed in table 1 to § 261.24 that would not have been exceeded by the excluded waste alone if the mixture had not occurred or if it continues to exceed the maximum concentration for any contaminant exceeded by the nonexempt waste prior to mixture.
(ii) It is listed in subpart D of this part and has not been excluded from the lists in subpart D of this part under §§ 260.20 and 260.22 of this chapter.
(iii) [Reserved]
(iv) It is a mixture of solid waste and one or more hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part and has not been excluded from paragraph (a)(2) of this section under §§ 260.20 and 260.22, paragraph (g) of this section, or paragraph (h) of this section; however, the following mixtures of solid wastes and hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part are not hazardous wastes (except by application of paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section) if the generator can demonstrate that the mixture consists of wastewater the discharge of which is subject to regulation under either section 402 or section 307(b) of the Clean Water Act (including wastewater at facilities which have eliminated the discharge of wastewater) and;
(A) One or more of the following spent solvents listed in § 261.31—benzene, carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene or the scrubber waters derived-from the combustion of these spent solvents—Provided, That the maximum total weekly usage of these solvents (other than the amounts that can be demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater) divided by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment or pretreatment system does not exceed 1 part per million, OR the total measured concentration of these solvents entering the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system (at facilities subject to regulation under the Clean Air Act, as amended, at 40 CFR parts 60, 61, or 63, or at facilities subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minimizes fugitive emissions), does not exceed 1 part per million on an average weekly basis. Any facility that uses benzene as a solvent and claims this exemption must use an aerated biological wastewater treatment system and must use only lined surface impoundments or tanks prior to secondary clarification in the wastewater treatment system. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels must file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the Regional Administrator, or State Director, as the context requires, or an authorized representative (“Director” as defined in 40 CFR 270.2). A facility must file a copy of a revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility’s operations. The sampling and analysis plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the Director. The Director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if he/she finds that, the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the above information; or the plan parameters would not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the Director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or if the Director finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the Director shall notify the facility to cease the use of the direct monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected; or
(B) One or more of the following spent solvents listed in § 261.31-methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, o-dichlorobenzene, cresols, cresylic acid, nitrobenzene, toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, spent chlorofluorocarbon solvents, 2-ethoxyethanol, or the scrubber waters derived-from the combustion of these spent solvents—Provided That the maximum total weekly usage of these solvents (other than the amounts that can be demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater) divided by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment or pretreatment system does not exceed 25 parts per million, OR the total measured concentration of these solvents entering the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system (at facilities subject to regulation under the Clean Air Act as amended, at 40 CFR parts 60, 61, or 63, or at facilities subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minimizes fugitive emissions), does not exceed 25 parts per million on an average weekly basis. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels must file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the Regional Administrator, or State Director, as the context requires, or an authorized representative (“Director” as defined in 40 CFR 270.2). A facility must file a copy of a revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility’s operations. The sampling and analysis plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the Director. The Director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if he/she finds that, the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the above information; or the plan parameters would not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the Director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or if the Director finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the Director shall notify the facility to cease the use of the direct monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected; or
(C) One of the following wastes listed in § 261.32, provided that the wastes are discharged to the refinery oil recovery sewer before primary oil/water/solids separation—heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K050), crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K169), clarified slurry oil tank sediment and/or in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining operations (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K170), spent hydrotreating catalyst (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K171), and spent hydrorefining catalyst (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K172); or
(D) A discarded hazardous waste, commercial chemical product, or chemical intermediate listed in §§ 261.31 through 261.33, arising from de minimis losses of these materials. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(D), de minimis losses are inadvertent releases to a wastewater treatment system, including those from normal material handling operations (e.g., spills from the unloading or transfer of materials from bins or other containers, leaks from pipes, valves or other devices used to transfer materials); minor leaks of process equipment, storage tanks or containers; leaks from well maintained pump packings and seals; sample purgings; relief device discharges; discharges from safety showers and rinsing and cleaning of personal safety equipment; and rinsate from empty containers or from containers that are rendered empty by that rinsing. Any manufacturing facility that claims an exemption for de minimis quantities of wastes listed in §§ 261.31 through 261.32, or any nonmanufacturing facility that claims an exemption for de minimis quantities of wastes listed in subpart D of this part must either have eliminated the discharge of wastewaters or have included in its Clean Water Act permit application or submission to its pretreatment control authority the constituents for which each waste was listed (in 40 CFR 261 appendix VII) of this part; and the constituents in the table “Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes” in 40 CFR 268.40 for which each waste has a treatment standard (i.e., Land Disposal Restriction constituents). A facility is eligible to claim the exemption once the permit writer or control authority has been notified of possible de minimis releases via the Clean Water Act permit application or the pretreatment control authority submission. A copy of the Clean Water permit application or the submission to the pretreatment control authority must be placed in the facility’s on-site files; or
(E) Wastewater resulting from laboratory operations containing toxic (T) wastes listed in subpart D of this part, Provided, That the annualized average flow of laboratory wastewater does not exceed one percent of total wastewater flow into the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment or pre-treatment system or provided the wastes, combined annualized average concentration does not exceed one part per million in the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment or pre-treatment facility. Toxic (T) wastes used in laboratories that are demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater are not to be included in this calculation; or
(F) One or more of the following wastes listed in § 261.32—wastewaters from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K157)—Provided that the maximum weekly usage of formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine (including all amounts that cannot be demonstrated to be reacted in the process, destroyed through treatment, or is recovered, i.e., what is discharged or volatilized) divided by the average weekly flow of process wastewater prior to any dilution into the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system does not exceed a total of 5 parts per million by weight OR the total measured concentration of these chemicals entering the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system (at facilities subject to regulation under the Clean Air Act as amended, at 40 CFR parts 60, 61, or 63, or at facilities subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minimizes fugitive emissions), does not exceed 5 parts per million on an average weekly basis. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels must file copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the Regional Administrator, or State Director, as the context requires, or an authorized representative (“Director” as defined in 40 CFR 270.2). A facility must file a copy of a revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility’s operations. The sampling and analysis plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the Director. The Director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if he/she finds that, the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the above information; or the plan parameters would not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the Director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or if the Director finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the Director shall notify the facility to cease the use of the direct monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected; or
(G) Wastewaters derived-from the treatment of one or more of the following wastes listed in § 261.32—organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K156).—Provided, that the maximum concentration of formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine prior to any dilutions into the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system does not exceed a total of 5 milligrams per liter OR the total measured concentration of these chemicals entering the headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system (at facilities subject to regulation under the Clean Air Act as amended, at 40 CFR parts 60, 61, or 63, or at facilities subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minimizes fugitive emissions), does not exceed 5 milligrams per liter on an average weekly basis. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels must file copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the Regional Administrator, or State Director, as the context requires, or an authorized representative (“Director” as defined in 40 CFR 270.2). A facility must file a copy of a revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility’s operations. The sampling and analysis plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the Director. The Director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if he/she finds that, the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the above information; or the plan parameters would not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the Director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or if the Director finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the Director shall notify the facility to cease the use of the direct monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected.
(v) Rebuttable presumption for used oil. Used oil containing more than 1000 ppm total halogens is presumed to be a hazardous waste because it has been mixed with halogenated hazardous waste listed in subpart D of part 261 of this chapter. Persons may rebut this presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not contain hazardous waste (for example, to show that the used oil does not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous constituents listed in appendix VIII of part 261 of this chapter).
(A) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to metalworking oils/fluids containing chlorinated paraffins, if they are processed, through a tolling agreement, to reclaim metalworking oils/fluids. The presumption does apply to metalworking oils/fluids if such oils/fluids are recycled in any other manner, or disposed.
(B) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to used oils contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed from refrigeration units where the CFCs are destined for reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply to used oils contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed with used oil from sources other than refrigeration units.
(b) A solid waste which is not excluded from regulation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section becomes a hazardous waste when any of the following events occur:
(1) In the case of a waste listed in subpart D of this part, when the waste first meets the listing description set forth in subpart D of this part.
(2) In the case of a mixture of solid waste and one or more listed hazardous wastes, when a hazardous waste listed in subpart D is first added to the solid waste.
(3) In the case of any other waste (including a waste mixture), when the waste exhibits any of the characteristics identified in subpart C of this part.
(c) Unless and until it meets the criteria of paragraph (d) of this section:
(1) A hazardous waste will remain a hazardous waste.
(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii), (g) or (h) of this section, any solid waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, including any sludge, spill residue, ash emission control dust, or leachate (but not including precipitation run-off) is a hazardous waste. (However, materials that are reclaimed from solid wastes and that are used beneficially are not solid wastes and hence are not hazardous wastes under this provision unless the reclaimed material is burned for energy recovery or used in a manner constituting disposal.)
(ii) The following solid wastes are not hazardous even though they are generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, unless they exhibit one or more of the characteristics of hazardous waste:
(A) Waste pickle liquor sludge generated by lime stabilization of spent pickle liquor from the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332).
(B) Waste from burning any of the materials exempted from regulation by § 261.6(a)(3)(iii) and (iv).
(C)(1) Nonwastewater residues, such as slag, resulting from high temperature metals recovery (HTMR) processing of K061, K062 or F006 waste, in units identified as rotary kilns, flame reactors, electric furnaces, plasma arc furnaces, slag reactors, rotary hearth furnace/electric furnace combinations or industrial furnaces (as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), and (13) of the definition for “Industrial furnace” in 40 CFR 260.10), that are disposed in subtitle D units, provided that these residues meet the generic exclusion levels identified in the tables in this paragraph for all constituents, and exhibit no characteristics of hazardous waste. Testing requirements must be incorporated in a facility’s waste analysis plan or a generator’s self-implementing waste analysis plan; at a minimum, composite samples of residues must be collected and analyzed quarterly and/or when the process or operation generating the waste changes. Persons claiming this exclusion in an enforcement action will have the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements.
Constituent | Maximum for any single composite sample—TCLP (mg/l) |
---|---|
Generic exclusion levels for K061 and K062 nonwastewater HTMR residues | |
Antimony | 0.10 |
Arsenic | 0.50 |
Barium | 7.6 |
Beryllium | 0.010 |
Cadmium | 0.050 |
Chromium (total) | 0.33 |
Lead | 0.15 |
Mercury | 0.009 |
Nickel | 1.0 |
Selenium | 0.16 |
Silver | 0.30 |
Thallium | 0.020 |
Zinc | 70 |
Generic exclusion levels for F006 nonwastewater HTMR residues | |
Antimony | 0.10 |
Arsenic | 0.50 |
Barium | 7.6 |
Beryllium | 0.010 |
Cadmium | 0.050 |
Chromium (total) | 0.33 |
Cyanide (total) (mg/kg) | 1.8 |
Lead | 0.15 |
Mercury | 0.009 |
Nickel | 1.0 |
Selenium | 0.16 |
Silver | 0.30 |
Thallium | 0.020 |
Zinc | 70 |
(2) A one-time notification and certification must be placed in the facility’s files and sent to the EPA region or authorized state for K061, K062 or F006 HTMR residues that meet the generic exclusion levels for all constituents and do not exhibit any characteristics that are sent to subtitle D units. The notification and certification that is placed in the generators or treaters files must be updated if the process or operation generating the waste changes and/or if the subtitle D unit receiving the waste changes. However, the generator or treater need only notify the EPA region or an authorized state on an annual basis if such changes occur. Such notification and certification should be sent to the EPA region or authorized state by the end of the calendar year, but no later than December 31. The notification must include the following information: The name and address of the subtitle D unit receiving the waste shipments; the EPA Hazardous Waste Number(s) and treatability group(s) at the initial point of generation; and, the treatment standards applicable to the waste at the initial point of generation. The certification must be signed by an authorized representative and must state as follows: “I certify under penalty of law that the generic exclusion levels for all constituents have been met without impermissible dilution and that no characteristic of hazardous waste is exhibited. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(D) Biological treatment sludge from the treatment of one of the following wastes listed in § 261.32—organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K156), and wastewaters from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K157).
(E) Catalyst inert support media separated from one of the following wastes listed in § 261.32—Spent hydrotreating catalyst (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K171), and Spent hydrorefining catalyst (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K172).
(d) Any solid waste described in paragraph (c) of this section is not a hazardous waste if it meets the following criteria:
(1) In the case of any solid waste, it does not exhibit any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in subpart C of this part. (However, wastes that exhibit a characteristic at the point of generation may still be subject to the requirements of part 268, even if they no longer exhibit a characteristic at the point of land disposal.)
(2) In the case of a waste which is a listed waste under subpart D of this part, contains a waste listed under subpart D of this part or is derived from a waste listed in subpart D of this part, it also has been excluded from paragraph (c) of this section under §§ 260.20 and 260.22 of this chapter.
(e) [Reserved]
(f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section and provided the debris as defined in part 268 of this chapter does not exhibit a characteristic identified at subpart C of this part, the following materials are not subject to regulation under 40 CFR parts 260, 261 to 266, 268, or 270:
(1) Hazardous debris as defined in part 268 of this chapter that has been treated using one of the required extraction or destruction technologies specified in Table 1 of § 268.45 of this chapter; persons claiming this exclusion in an enforcement action will have the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements; or
(2) Debris as defined in part 268 of this chapter that the Regional Administrator, considering the extent of contamination, has determined is no longer contaminated with hazardous waste.
(g)(1) A hazardous waste that is listed in subpart D of this part solely because it exhibits one or more characteristics of ignitability as defined under § 261.21, corrosivity as defined under § 261.22, or reactivity as defined under § 261.23 is not a hazardous waste, if the waste no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified in subpart C of this part.
(2) The exclusion described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section also pertains to:
(i) Any mixture of a solid waste and a hazardous waste listed in subpart D of this part solely because it exhibits the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity as regulated under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section; and
(ii) Any solid waste generated from treating, storing, or disposing of a hazardous waste listed in subpart D of this part solely because it exhibits the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity as regulated under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) Wastes excluded under this section are subject to part 268 of this chapter (as applicable), even if they no longer exhibit a characteristic at the point of land disposal.
(4) Any mixture of a solid waste excluded from regulation under § 261.4(b)(7) and a hazardous waste listed in subpart D of this part solely because it exhibits one or more of the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity as regulated under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section is not a hazardous waste, if the mixture no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified in subpart C of this part for which the hazardous waste listed in subpart D of this part was listed.
(h)(1) Hazardous waste containing radioactive waste is no longer a hazardous waste when it meets the eligibility criteria and conditions of 40 CFR part 266, Subpart N (“eligible radioactive mixed waste”).
(2) The exemption described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section also pertains to:
(i) Any mixture of a solid waste and an eligible radioactive mixed waste; and
(ii) Any solid waste generated from treating, storing, or disposing of an eligible radioactive mixed waste.
(3) Waste exempted under this section must meet the eligibility criteria and specified conditions in 40 CFR 266.225 and 40 CFR 266.230 (for storage and treatment) and in 40 CFR 266.310 and 40 CFR 266.315 (for transportation and disposal). Waste that fails to satisfy these eligibility criteria and conditions is regulated as hazardous waste.
§ 261.4 Exclusions.
(a) Materials which are not solid wastes. The following materials are not solid wastes for the purpose of this part:
(1)(i) Domestic sewage; and
(ii) Any mixture of domestic sewage and other wastes that passes through a sewer system to a publicly-owned treatment works for treatment, except as prohibited by § 266.505 and Clean Water Act requirements at 40 CFR 403.5(b). “Domestic sewage” means untreated sanitary wastes that pass through a sewer system.
(2) Industrial wastewater discharges that are point source discharges subject to regulation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended.
(3) Irrigation return flows.
(4) Source, special nuclear or by-product material as defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.
(5) Materials subjected to in-situ mining techniques which are not removed from the ground as part of the extraction process.
(6) Pulping liquors (i.e., black liquor) that are reclaimed in a pulping liquor recovery furnace and then reused in the pulping process, unless it is accumulated speculatively as defined in § 261.1(c) of this chapter.
(7) Spent sulfuric acid used to produce virgin sulfuric acid provided it is not accumulated speculatively as defined in § 261.1(c) of this chapter.
(8) Secondary materials that are reclaimed and returned to the original process or processes in which they were generated where they are reused in the production process provided:
(i) Only tank storage is involved, and the entire process through completion of reclamation is closed by being entirely connected with pipes or other comparable enclosed means of conveyance;
(ii) Reclamation does not involve controlled flame combustion (such as occurs in boilers, industrial furnaces, or incinerators);
(iii) The secondary materials are never accumulated in such tanks for over twelve months without being reclaimed; and
(iv) The reclaimed material is not used to produce a fuel, or used to produce products that are used in a manner constituting disposal.
(9)(i) Spent wood preserving solutions that have been reclaimed and are reused for their original intended purpose; and
(ii) Wastewaters from the wood preserving process that have been reclaimed and are reused to treat wood.
(iii) Prior to reuse, the wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions described in paragraphs (a)(9)(i) and (a)(9)(ii) of this section, so long as they meet all of the following conditions:
(A) The wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions are reused on-site at water borne plants in the production process for their original intended purpose;
(B) Prior to reuse, the wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions are managed to prevent release to either land or groundwater or both;
(C) Any unit used to manage wastewaters and/or spent wood preserving solutions prior to reuse can be visually or otherwise determined to prevent such releases;
(D) Any drip pad used to manage the wastewaters and/or spent wood preserving solutions prior to reuse complies with the standards in part 265, subpart W of this chapter, regardless of whether the plant generates a total of less than 100 kg/month of hazardous waste; and
(E) Prior to operating pursuant to this exclusion, the plant owner or operator prepares a one-time notification stating that the plant intends to claim the exclusion, giving the date on which the plant intends to begin operating under the exclusion, and containing the following language: “I have read the applicable regulation establishing an exclusion for wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions and understand it requires me to comply at all times with the conditions set out in the regulation.” The plant must maintain a copy of that document in its on-site records until closure of the facility. The exclusion applies so long as the plant meets all of the conditions. If the plant goes out of compliance with any condition, it may apply to the appropriate Regional Administrator or state Director for reinstatement. The Regional Administrator or state Director may reinstate the exclusion upon finding that the plant has returned to compliance with all conditions and that the violations are not likely to recur.
(10) EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. K060, K087, K141, K142, K143, K144, K145, K147, and K148, and any wastes from the coke by-products processes that are hazardous only because they exhibit the Toxicity Characteristic (TC) specified in section 261.24 of this part when, subsequent to generation, these materials are recycled to coke ovens, to the tar recovery process as a feedstock to produce coal tar, or mixed with coal tar prior to the tar’s sale or refining. This exclusion is conditioned on there being no land disposal of the wastes from the point they are generated to the point they are recycled to coke ovens or tar recovery or refining processes, or mixed with coal tar.
(11) Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from the treatment of K061 in high temperature metals recovery units, provided it is shipped in drums (if shipped) and not land disposed before recovery.
(12)(i) Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials (i.e., sludges, byproducts, or spent materials) that are generated at a petroleum refinery (SIC code 2911) and are inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911—including, but not limited to, distillation, catalytic cracking, fractionation, or thermal cracking units (i.e., cokers)) unless the material is placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before being so recycled. Materials inserted into thermal cracking units are excluded under this paragraph, provided that the coke product also does not exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste. Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials may be inserted into the same petroleum refinery where they are generated, or sent directly to another petroleum refinery and still be excluded under this provision. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(12)(ii) of this section, oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials generated elsewhere in the petroleum industry (i.e., from sources other than petroleum refineries) are not excluded under this section. Residuals generated from processing or recycling materials excluded under this paragraph (a)(12)(i), where such materials as generated would have otherwise met a listing under subpart D of this part, are designated as F037 listed wastes when disposed of or intended for disposal.
(ii) Recovered oil that is recycled in the same manner and with the same conditions as described in paragraph (a)(12)(i) of this section. Recovered oil is oil that has been reclaimed from secondary materials (including wastewater) generated from normal petroleum industry practices, including refining, exploration and production, bulk storage, and transportation incident thereto (SIC codes 1311, 1321, 1381, 1382, 1389, 2911, 4612, 4613, 4922, 4923, 4789, 5171, and 5172.) Recovered oil does not include oil-bearing hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part; however, oil recovered from such wastes may be considered recovered oil. Recovered oil does not include used oil as defined in 40 CFR 279.1.
(13) Excluded scrap metal (processed scrap metal, unprocessed home scrap metal, and unprocessed prompt scrap metal) being recycled.
(14) Shredded circuit boards being recycled provided that they are:
(i) Stored in containers sufficient to prevent a release to the environment prior to recovery; and
(ii) Free of mercury switches, mercury relays and nickel-cadmium batteries and lithium batteries.
(15) Condensates derived from the overhead gases from kraft mill steam strippers that are used to comply with 40 CFR 63.446(e). The exemption applies only to combustion at the mill generating the condensates.
(16) [Reserved]
(17) Spent materials (as defined in § 261.1) (other than hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part) generated within the primary mineral processing industry from which minerals, acids, cyanide, water, or other values are recovered by mineral processing or by beneficiation, provided that:
(i) The spent material is legitimately recycled to recover minerals, acids, cyanide, water or other values;
(ii) The spent material is not accumulated speculatively;
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(17)(iv) of this section, the spent material is stored in tanks, containers, or buildings meeting the following minimum integrity standards: a building must be an engineered structure with a floor, walls, and a roof all of which are made of non-earthen materials providing structural support (except smelter buildings may have partially earthen floors provided the secondary material is stored on the non-earthen portion), and have a roof suitable for diverting rainwater away from the foundation; a tank must be free standing, not be a surface impoundment (as defined in 40 CFR 260.10), and be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents; a container must be free standing and be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents. If tanks or containers contain any particulate which may be subject to wind dispersal, the owner/operator must operate these units in a manner which controls fugitive dust. Tanks, containers, and buildings must be designed, constructed and operated to prevent significant releases to the environment of these materials.
(iv) The Regional Administrator or State Director may make a site-specific determination, after public review and comment, that only solid mineral processing spent material may be placed on pads rather than tanks containers, or buildings. Solid mineral processing spent materials do not contain any free liquid. The decision-maker must affirm that pads are designed, constructed and operated to prevent significant releases of the secondary material into the environment. Pads must provide the same degree of containment afforded by the non-RCRA tanks, containers and buildings eligible for exclusion.
(A) The decision-maker must also consider if storage on pads poses the potential for significant releases via groundwater, surface water, and air exposure pathways. Factors to be considered for assessing the groundwater, surface water, air exposure pathways are: The volume and physical and chemical properties of the secondary material, including its potential for migration off the pad; the potential for human or environmental exposure to hazardous constituents migrating from the pad via each exposure pathway, and the possibility and extent of harm to human and environmental receptors via each exposure pathway.
(B) Pads must meet the following minimum standards: Be designed of non-earthen material that is compatible with the chemical nature of the mineral processing spent material, capable of withstanding physical stresses associated with placement and removal, have run on/runoff controls, be operated in a manner which controls fugitive dust, and have integrity assurance through inspections and maintenance programs.
(C) Before making a determination under this paragraph, the Regional Administrator or State Director must provide notice and the opportunity for comment to all persons potentially interested in the determination. This can be accomplished by placing notice of this action in major local newspapers, or broadcasting notice over local radio stations.
(v) The owner or operator provides notice to the Regional Administrator or State Director providing the following information: The types of materials to be recycled; the type and location of the storage units and recycling processes; and the annual quantities expected to be placed in land-based units. This notification must be updated when there is a change in the type of materials recycled or the location of the recycling process.
(vi) For purposes of paragraph (b)(7) of this section, mineral processing spent materials must be the result of mineral processing and may not include any listed hazardous wastes. Listed hazardous wastes and characteristic hazardous wastes generated by non-mineral processing industries are not eligible for the conditional exclusion from the definition of solid waste.
(18) Petrochemical recovered oil from an associated organic chemical manufacturing facility, where the oil is to be inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911) along with normal petroleum refinery process streams, provided:
(i) The oil is hazardous only because it exhibits the characteristic of ignitability (as defined in § 261.21) and/or toxicity for benzene (§ 261.24, waste code D018); and
(ii) The oil generated by the organic chemical manufacturing facility is not placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before being recycled into the petroleum refining process. An “associated organic chemical manufacturing facility” is a facility where the primary SIC code is 2869, but where operations may also include SIC codes 2821, 2822, and 2865; and is physically co-located with a petroleum refinery; and where the petroleum refinery to which the oil being recycled is returned also provides hydrocarbon feedstocks to the organic chemical manufacturing facility. “Petrochemical recovered oil” is oil that has been reclaimed from secondary materials (i.e., sludges, byproducts, or spent materials, including wastewater) from normal organic chemical manufacturing operations, as well as oil recovered from organic chemical manufacturing processes.
(19) Spent caustic solutions from petroleum refining liquid treating processes used as a feedstock to produce cresylic or naphthenic acid unless the material is placed on the land, or accumulated speculatively as defined in § 261.1(c).
(20) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc fertilizers, provided that the following conditions specified are satisfied:
(i) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc micronutrient fertilizers must not be accumulated speculatively, as defined in § 261.1 (c)(8).
(ii) Generators and intermediate handlers of zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials that are to be incorporated into zinc fertilizers must:
(A) Submit a one-time notice to the Regional Administrator or State Director in whose jurisdiction the exclusion is being claimed, which contains the name, address and EPA ID number of the generator or intermediate handler facility, provides a brief description of the secondary material that will be subject to the exclusion, and identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded, zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials under the conditions specified in this paragraph (a)(20).
(B) Store the excluded secondary material in tanks, containers, or buildings that are constructed and maintained in a way that prevents releases of the secondary materials into the environment. At a minimum, any building used for this purpose must be an engineered structure made of non-earthen materials that provide structural support, and must have a floor, walls and a roof that prevent wind dispersal and contact with rainwater. Tanks used for this purpose must be structurally sound and, if outdoors, must have roofs or covers that prevent contact with wind and rain. Containers used for this purpose must be kept closed except when it is necessary to add or remove material, and must be in sound condition. Containers that are stored outdoors must be managed within storage areas that:
(1) Have containment structures or systems sufficiently impervious to contain leaks, spills and accumulated precipitation; and
(2) Provide for effective drainage and removal of leaks, spills and accumulated precipitation; and
(3) Prevent run-on into the containment system.
(C) With each off-site shipment of excluded hazardous secondary materials, provide written notice to the receiving facility that the material is subject to the conditions of this paragraph (a)(20).
(D) Maintain at the generator’s or intermediate handlers’s facility for no less than three years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials. For each shipment these records must at a minimum contain the following information:
(1) Name of the transporter and date of the shipment;
(2) Name and address of the facility that received the excluded material, and documentation confirming receipt of the shipment; and
(3) Type and quantity of excluded secondary material in each shipment.
(iii) Manufacturers of zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients made from excluded hazardous secondary materials must:
(A) Store excluded hazardous secondary materials in accordance with the storage requirements for generators and intermediate handlers, as specified in paragraph (a)(20)(ii)(B) of this section.
(B) Submit a one-time notification to the Regional Administrator or State Director that, at a minimum, specifies the name, address and EPA ID number of the manufacturing facility, and identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded, zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials under the conditions specified in this paragraph (a)(20).
(C) Maintain for a minimum of three years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials received by the manufacturer, which must at a minimum identify for each shipment the name and address of the generating facility, name of transporter and date the materials were received, the quantity received, and a brief description of the industrial process that generated the material.
(D) Submit to the Regional Administrator or State Director an annual report that identifies the total quantities of all excluded hazardous secondary materials that were used to manufacture zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients in the previous year, the name and address of each generating facility, and the industrial process(s) from which they were generated.
(iv) Nothing in this section preempts, overrides or otherwise negates the provision in § 262.11 of this chapter, which requires any person who generates a solid waste to determine if that waste is a hazardous waste.
(v) Interim status and permitted storage units that have been used to store only zinc-bearing hazardous wastes prior to the submission of the one-time notice described in paragraph (a)(20)(ii)(A) of this section, and that afterward will be used only to store hazardous secondary materials excluded under this paragraph, are not subject to the closure requirements of 40 CFR Parts 264 and 265.
(21) Zinc fertilizers made from hazardous wastes, or hazardous secondary materials that are excluded under paragraph (a)(20) of this section, provided that:
(i) The fertilizers meet the following contaminant limits:
(A) For metal contaminants:
Constituent | Maximum Allowable Total Concentration in Fertilizer, per Unit (1%) of Zinc (ppm) |
---|---|
Arsenic | 0.3 |
Cadmium | 1.4 |
Chromium | 0.6 |
Lead | 2.8 |
Mercury | 0.3 |
(B) For dioxin contaminants the fertilizer must contain no more than eight (8) parts per trillion of dioxin, measured as toxic equivalent (TEQ).
(ii) The manufacturer performs sampling and analysis of the fertilizer product to determine compliance with the contaminant limits for metals no less than every six months, and for dioxins no less than every twelve months. Testing must also be performed whenever changes occur to manufacturing processes or ingredients that could significantly affect the amounts of contaminants in the fertilizer product. The manufacturer may use any reliable analytical method to demonstrate that no constituent of concern is present in the product at concentrations above the applicable limits. It is the responsibility of the manufacturer to ensure that the sampling and analysis are unbiased, precise, and representative of the product(s) introduced into commerce.
(iii) The manufacturer maintains for no less than three years records of all sampling and analyses performed for purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(21)(ii) of this section. Such records must at a minimum include:
(A) The dates and times product samples were taken, and the dates the samples were analyzed;
(B) The names and qualifications of the person(s) taking the samples;
(C) A description of the methods and equipment used to take the samples;
(D) The name and address of the laboratory facility at which analyses of the samples were performed;
(E) A description of the analytical methods used, including any cleanup and sample preparation methods; and
(F) All laboratory analytical results used to determine compliance with the contaminant limits specified in this paragraph (a)(21).
(22) Used cathode ray tubes (CRTs)
(i) Used, intact CRTs as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes within the United States unless they are disposed, or unless they are speculatively accumulated as defined in § 261.1(c)(8) by CRT collectors or glass processors.
(ii) Used, intact CRTs as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes when exported for recycling provided that they meet the requirements of § 261.40.
(iii) Used, broken CRTs as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes provided that they meet the requirements of § 261.39.
(iv) Glass removed from CRTs is not a solid waste provided that it meets the requirements of § 261.39(c).
(23) Hazardous secondary material generated and legitimately reclaimed within the United States or its territories and under the control of the generator, provided that the material complies with paragraphs (a)(23)(i) and (ii) of this section:
(i)(A) The hazardous secondary material is generated and reclaimed at the generating facility (for purposes of this definition, generating facility means all contiguous property owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the hazardous secondary material generator); or
(B) The hazardous secondary material is generated and reclaimed at different facilities, if the reclaiming facility is controlled by the generator or if both the generating facility and the reclaiming facility are controlled by a person as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter, and if the generator provides one of the following certifications: “on behalf of [insert generator facility name], I certify that this facility will send the indicated hazardous secondary material to [insert reclaimer facility name], which is controlled by [insert generator facility name] and that [insert name of either facility] has acknowledged full responsibility for the safe management of the hazardous secondary material,” or “on behalf of [insert generator facility name], I certify that this facility will send the indicated hazardous secondary material to [insert reclaimer facility name], that both facilities are under common control, and that [insert name of either facility] has acknowledged full responsibility for the safe management of the hazardous secondary material.” For purposes of this paragraph, “control” means the power to direct the policies of the facility, whether by the ownership of stock, voting rights, or otherwise, except that contractors who operate facilities on behalf of a different person as defined in § 260.10 shall not be deemed to “control” such facilities. The generating and receiving facilities must both maintain at their facilities for no less than three years records of hazardous secondary materials sent or received under this exclusion. In both cases, the records must contain the name of the transporter, the date of the shipment, and the type and quantity of the hazardous secondary material shipped or received under the exclusion. These requirements may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of DOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations); or
(C) The hazardous secondary material is generated pursuant to a written contract between a tolling contractor and a toll manufacturer and is reclaimed by the tolling contractor, if the tolling contractor certifies the following: “On behalf of [insert tolling contractor name], I certify that [insert tolling contractor name] has a written contract with [insert toll manufacturer name] to manufacture [insert name of product or intermediate] which is made from specified unused materials, and that [insert tolling contractor name] will reclaim the hazardous secondary materials generated during this manufacture. On behalf of [insert tolling contractor name], I also certify that [insert tolling contractor name] retains ownership of, and responsibility for, the hazardous secondary materials that are generated during the course of the manufacture, including any releases of hazardous secondary materials that occur during the manufacturing process”. The tolling contractor must maintain at its facility for no less than three years records of hazardous secondary materials received pursuant to its written contract with the tolling manufacturer, and the tolling manufacturer must maintain at its facility for no less than three years records of hazardous secondary materials shipped pursuant to its written contract with the tolling contractor. In both cases, the records must contain the name of the transporter, the date of the shipment, and the type and quantity of the hazardous secondary material shipped or received pursuant to the written contract. These requirements may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of DOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations). For purposes of this paragraph, tolling contractor means a person who arranges for the production of a product or intermediate made from specified unused materials through a written contract with a toll manufacturer. Toll manufacturer means a person who produces a product or intermediate made from specified unused materials pursuant to a written contract with a tolling contractor.
(ii)(A) The hazardous secondary material is contained as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter. A hazardous secondary material released to the environment is discarded and a solid waste unless it is immediately recovered for the purpose of reclamation. Hazardous secondary material managed in a unit with leaks or other continuing or intermittent unpermitted releases is discarded and a solid waste.
(B) The hazardous secondary material is not speculatively accumulated, as defined in § 261.1(c)(8).
(C) Notice is provided as required by § 260.42 of this chapter.
(D) The material is not otherwise subject to material-specific management conditions under paragraph (a) of this section when reclaimed, and it is not a spent lead-acid battery (see §§ 266.80 and 273.2 of this chapter).
(E) Persons performing the recycling of hazardous secondary materials under this exclusion must maintain documentation of their legitimacy determination on-site. Documentation must be a written description of how the recycling meets all three factors in § 260.43(a) and how the factor in § 260.43(b) was considered. Documentation must be maintained for three years after the recycling operation has ceased.
(F) The emergency preparedness and response requirements found in subpart M of this part are met.
(24) Hazardous secondary material that is generated and then transferred to another person for the purpose of reclamation is not a solid waste, provided that:
(i) The material is not speculatively accumulated, as defined in § 261.1(c)(8);
(ii) The material is not handled by any person or facility other than the hazardous secondary material generator, the transporter, an intermediate facility or a reclaimer, and, while in transport, is not stored for more than 10 days at a transfer facility, as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter, and is packaged according to applicable Department of Transportation regulations at 49 CFR parts 173, 178, and 179 while in transport;
(iii) The material is not otherwise subject to material-specific management conditions under paragraph (a) of this section when reclaimed, and it is not a spent lead-acid battery (see §§ 266.80 and 273.2 of this chapter);
(iv) The reclamation of the material is legitimate, as specified under § 260.43 of this chapter;
(v) The hazardous secondary material generator satisfies all of the following conditions:
(A) The material must be contained as defined in § 260.10. A hazardous secondary material released to the environment is discarded and a solid waste unless it is immediately recovered for the purpose of recycling. Hazardous secondary material managed in a unit with leaks or other continuing releases is discarded and a solid waste.
(B) Prior to arranging for transport of hazardous secondary materials to a reclamation facility (or facilities) where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA part B permit or interim status standards, the hazardous secondary material generator must make reasonable efforts to ensure that each reclaimer intends to properly and legitimately reclaim the hazardous secondary material and not discard it, and that each reclaimer will manage the hazardous secondary material in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment. If the hazardous secondary material will be passing through an intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA part B permit or interim status standards, the hazardous secondary material generator must make contractual arrangements with the intermediate facility to ensure that the hazardous secondary material is sent to the reclamation facility identified by the hazardous secondary material generator, and the hazardous secondary material generator must perform reasonable efforts to ensure that the intermediate facility will manage the hazardous secondary material in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment. Reasonable efforts must be repeated at a minimum of every three years for the hazardous secondary material generator to claim the exclusion and to send the hazardous secondary materials to each reclaimer and any intermediate facility. In making these reasonable efforts, the generator may use any credible evidence available, including information gathered by the hazardous secondary material generator, provided by the reclaimer or intermediate facility, and/or provided by a third party. The hazardous secondary material generator must affirmatively answer all of the following questions for each reclamation facility and any intermediate facility:
(1) Does the available information indicate that the reclamation process is legitimate pursuant to § 260.43 of this chapter? In answering this question, the hazardous secondary material generator can rely on their existing knowledge of the physical and chemical properties of the hazardous secondary material, as well as information from other sources (e.g., the reclamation facility, audit reports, etc.) about the reclamation process.
(2) Does the publicly available information indicate that the reclamation facility and any intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material generator notified the appropriate authorities of hazardous secondary materials reclamation activities pursuant to § 260.42 of this chapter and have they notified the appropriate authorities that the financial assurance condition is satisfied per paragraph (a)(24)(vi)(F) of this section? In answering these questions, the hazardous secondary material generator can rely on the available information documenting the reclamation facility’s and any intermediate facility’s compliance with the notification requirements per § 260.42 of this chapter, including the requirement in § 260.42(a)(5) to notify EPA whether the reclaimer or intermediate facility has financial assurance.
(3) Does publicly available information indicate that the reclamation facility or any intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material generator has not had any formal enforcement actions taken against the facility in the previous three years for violations of the RCRA hazardous waste regulations and has not been classified as a significant non-complier with RCRA Subtitle C? In answering this question, the hazardous secondary material generator can rely on the publicly available information from EPA or the state. If the reclamation facility or any intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material generator has had a formal enforcement action taken against the facility in the previous three years for violations of the RCRA hazardous waste regulations and has been classified as a significant non-complier with RCRA Subtitle C, does the hazardous secondary material generator have credible evidence that the facilities will manage the hazardous secondary materials properly? In answering this question, the hazardous secondary material generator can obtain additional information from EPA, the state, or the facility itself that the facility has addressed the violations, taken remedial steps to address the violations and prevent future violations, or that the violations are not relevant to the proper management of the hazardous secondary materials.
(4) Does the available information indicate that the reclamation facility and any intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material generator have the equipment and trained personnel to safely recycle the hazardous secondary material? In answering this question, the generator may rely on a description by the reclamation facility or by an independent third party of the equipment and trained personnel to be used to recycle the generator’s hazardous secondary material.
(5) If residuals are generated from the reclamation of the excluded hazardous secondary materials, does the reclamation facility have the permits required (if any) to manage the residuals? If not, does the reclamation facility have a contract with an appropriately permitted facility to dispose of the residuals? If not, does the hazardous secondary material generator have credible evidence that the residuals will be managed in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment? In answering these questions, the hazardous secondary material generator can rely on publicly available information from EPA or the state, or information provided by the facility itself.
(C) The hazardous secondary material generator must maintain for a minimum of three years documentation and certification that reasonable efforts were made for each reclamation facility and, if applicable, intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA part B permit or interim status standards prior to transferring hazardous secondary material. Documentation and certification must be made available upon request by a regulatory authority within 72 hours, or within a longer period of time as specified by the regulatory authority. The certification statement must:
(1) Include the printed name and official title of an authorized representative of the hazardous secondary material generator company, the authorized representative’s signature, and the date signed;
(2) Incorporate the following language: “I hereby certify in good faith and to the best of my knowledge that, prior to arranging for transport of excluded hazardous secondary materials to [insert name(s) of reclamation facility and any intermediate facility], reasonable efforts were made in accordance with § 261.4(a)(24)(v)(B) to ensure that the hazardous secondary materials would be recycled legitimately, and otherwise managed in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment, and that such efforts were based on current and accurate information.”
(D) The hazardous secondary material generator must maintain at the generating facility for no less than three (3) years records of all off-site shipments of hazardous secondary materials. For each shipment, these records must, at a minimum, contain the following information:
(1) Name of the transporter and date of the shipment;
(2) Name and address of each reclaimer and, if applicable, the name and address of each intermediate facility to which the hazardous secondary material was sent;
(3) The type and quantity of hazardous secondary material in the shipment.
(E) The hazardous secondary material generator must maintain at the generating facility for no less than three (3) years confirmations of receipt from each reclaimer and, if applicable, each intermediate facility for all off-site shipments of hazardous secondary materials. Confirmations of receipt must include the name and address of the reclaimer (or intermediate facility), the type and quantity of the hazardous secondary materials received and the date which the hazardous secondary materials were received. This requirement may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of DOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations of receipt);
(F) The hazardous secondary material generator must comply with the emergency preparedness and response conditions in subpart M of this part.
(vi) Reclaimers of hazardous secondary material excluded from regulation under this exclusion and intermediate facilities as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter satisfy all of the following conditions:
(A) The reclaimer and intermediate facility must maintain at its facility for no less than three (3) years records of all shipments of hazardous secondary material that were received at the facility and, if applicable, for all shipments of hazardous secondary materials that were received and subsequently sent off-site from the facility for further reclamation. For each shipment, these records must at a minimum contain the following information:
(1) Name of the transporter and date of the shipment;
(2) Name and address of the hazardous secondary material generator and, if applicable, the name and address of the reclaimer or intermediate facility which the hazardous secondary materials were received from;
(3) The type and quantity of hazardous secondary material in the shipment; and
(4) For hazardous secondary materials that, after being received by the reclaimer or intermediate facility, were subsequently transferred off-site for further reclamation, the name and address of the (subsequent) reclaimer and, if applicable, the name and address of each intermediate facility to which the hazardous secondary material was sent.
(B) The intermediate facility must send the hazardous secondary material to the reclaimer(s) designated by the hazardous secondary materials generator.
(C) The reclaimer and intermediate facility must send to the hazardous secondary material generator confirmations of receipt for all off-site shipments of hazardous secondary materials. Confirmations of receipt must include the name and address of the reclaimer (or intermediate facility), the type and quantity of the hazardous secondary materials received and the date which the hazardous secondary materials were received. This requirement may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of DOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations of receipt).
(D) The reclaimer and intermediate facility must manage the hazardous secondary material in a manner that is at least as protective as that employed for analogous raw material and must be contained. An “analogous raw material” is a raw material for which a hazardous secondary material is a substitute and serves the same function and has similar physical and chemical properties as the hazardous secondary material.
(E) Any residuals that are generated from reclamation processes will be managed in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment. If any residuals exhibit a hazardous characteristic according to subpart C of 40 CFR part 261, or if they themselves are specifically listed in subpart D of 40 CFR part 261, such residuals are hazardous wastes and must be managed in accordance with the applicable requirements of 40 CFR parts 260 through 272.
(F) The reclaimer and intermediate facility have financial assurance as required under subpart H of 40 CFR part 261,
(vii) In addition, all persons claiming the exclusion under this paragraph (a)(24) of this section must provide notification as required under § 260.42 of this chapter.
(25) Hazardous secondary material that is exported from the United States and reclaimed at a reclamation facility located in a foreign country is not a solid waste, provided that the hazardous secondary material generator complies with the applicable requirements of paragraph (a)(24)(i)-(v) of this section (excepting paragraph (a)(24)(v)(B)(2) of this section for foreign reclaimers and foreign intermediate facilities), and that the hazardous secondary material generator also complies with the following requirements:
(i) Notify EPA of an intended export before the hazardous secondary material is scheduled to leave the United States. A complete notification must be submitted at least sixty (60) days before the initial shipment is intended to be shipped off-site. This notification may cover export activities extending over a twelve (12) month or lesser period. The notification must be in writing, signed by the hazardous secondary material generator, and include the following information:
(A) Name, site address, telephone number and EPA ID number (if applicable) of the hazardous secondary material generator;
(B) A description of the hazardous secondary material and the EPA hazardous waste number that would apply if the hazardous secondary material was managed as hazardous waste and the U.S. DOT proper shipping name, hazard class and ID number (UN/NA) for each hazardous secondary material as identified in 49 CFR parts 171 through 177;
(C) The estimated frequency or rate at which the hazardous secondary material is to be exported and the period of time over which the hazardous secondary material is to be exported;
(D) The estimated total quantity of hazardous secondary material;
(E) All points of entry to and departure from each foreign country through which the hazardous secondary material will pass;
(F) A description of the means by which each shipment of the hazardous secondary material will be transported (e.g., mode of transportation vehicle (air, highway, rail, water, etc.), type(s) of container (drums, boxes, tanks, etc.));
(G) A description of the manner in which the hazardous secondary material will be reclaimed in the country of import;
(H) The name and site address of the reclaimer, any intermediate facility and any alternate reclaimer and intermediate facilities; and
(I) The name of any countries of transit through which the hazardous secondary material will be sent and a description of the approximate length of time it will remain in such countries and the nature of its handling while there (for purposes of this section, the terms “EPA Acknowledgment of Consent”, “country of import” and “country of transit” are used as defined in 40 CFR 262.81 with the exception that the terms in this section refer to hazardous secondary materials, rather than hazardous waste):
(ii) Notifications must be submitted electronically using EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system.
(iii) Except for changes to the telephone number in paragraph (a)(25)(i)(A) of this section and decreases in the quantity of hazardous secondary material indicated pursuant to paragraph (a)(25)(i)(D) of this section, when the conditions specified on the original notification change (including any exceedance of the estimate of the quantity of hazardous secondary material specified in the original notification), the hazardous secondary material generator must provide EPA with a written renotification of the change. The shipment cannot take place until consent of the country of import to the changes (except for changes to paragraph (a)(25)(i)(I) of this section and in the ports of entry to and departure from countries of transit pursuant to paragraphs (a)(25)(i)(E) of this section) has been obtained and the hazardous secondary material generator receives from EPA an EPA Acknowledgment of Consent reflecting the country of import’s consent to the changes.
(iv) Upon request by EPA, the hazardous secondary material generator shall furnish to EPA any additional information which a country of import requests in order to respond to a notification.
(v) The EPA will provide a complete notification to the country of import and any countries of transit. A notification is complete when EPA receives a notification which EPA determines satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(25)(i) of this section.
(vi) The export of hazardous secondary material under this paragraph (a)(25) is prohibited unless the hazardous secondary material generator receives from EPA an EPA Acknowledgment of Consent documenting the consent of the country of import to the receipt of the hazardous secondary material. Where the country of import objects to receipt of the hazardous secondary material or withdraws a prior consent, EPA will notify the hazardous secondary material generator in writing. EPA will also notify the hazardous secondary material generator of any responses from countries of transit.
(vii) Prior to each shipment, the hazardous secondary material generator or a U.S. authorized agent must:
(A) Submit Electronic Export Information (EEI) for each shipment to the Automated Export System (AES) or its successor system, under the International Trade Data System (ITDS) platform, in accordance with 15 CFR 30.4(b).
(B) Include the following items in the EEI, along with the other information required under 15 CFR 30.6:
(1) EPA license code;
(2) Commodity classification code per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(12);
(3) EPA consent number;
(4) Country of ultimate destination per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(5);
(5) Date of export per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(2);
(6) Quantity of waste in shipment and units for reported quantity, if required reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification number are in units of weight or volume per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(15); or
(7) EPA net quantity reported in units of kilograms, if required reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification number are not in units of weight or volume.
(viii) A copy of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent must accompany the shipment. The shipment must conform to the terms of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent.
(ix) If a shipment cannot be delivered for any reason to the reclaimer, intermediate facility or the alternate reclaimer or alternate intermediate facility, the hazardous secondary material generator must re-notify EPA of a change in the conditions of the original notification to allow shipment to a new reclaimer in accordance with paragraph (iii) of this section and obtain another EPA Acknowledgment of Consent.
(x) Hazardous secondary material generators must keep a copy of each notification of intent to export and each EPA Acknowledgment of Consent for a period of three years following receipt of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent. They may satisfy this recordkeeping requirement by retaining electronically submitted notifications or electronically generated Acknowledgements in their account on EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system, provided that such copies are readily available for viewing and production if requested by any EPA or authorized state inspector. No hazardous secondary material generator may be held liable for the inability to produce a notification or Acknowledgement for inspection under this section if they can demonstrate that the inability to produce such copies are due exclusively to technical difficulty with EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system for which the hazardous secondary material generator bears no responsibility.
(xi) Hazardous secondary material generators must file with the Administrator no later than March 1 of each year, a report summarizing the types, quantities, frequency and ultimate destination of all hazardous secondary materials exported during the previous calendar year. Annual reports must be submitted electronically using EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system. Such reports must include the following information:
(A) Name, mailing and site address, and EPA ID number (if applicable) of the hazardous secondary material generator;
(B) The calendar year covered by the report;
(C) The name and site address of each reclaimer and intermediate facility;
(D) By reclaimer and intermediate facility, for each hazardous secondary material exported, a description of the hazardous secondary material and the EPA hazardous waste number that would apply if the hazardous secondary material was managed as hazardous waste, the DOT hazard class, the name and U.S. EPA ID number (where applicable) for each transporter used, the consent number(s) under which the hazardous secondary material was shipped and for each consent number, the total amount of hazardous secondary material shipped and the number of shipments exported during the calendar year covered by the report;
(E) A certification signed by the hazardous secondary material generator which states: “I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents, and that based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(xii) All persons claiming an exclusion under this paragraph (a)(25) must provide notification as required by § 260.42 of this chapter.
(26) Solvent-contaminated wipes that are sent for cleaning and reuse are not solid wastes from the point of generation, provided that
(i) The solvent-contaminated wipes, when accumulated, stored, and transported, are contained in non-leaking, closed containers that are labeled “Excluded Solvent-Contaminated Wipes.” The containers must be able to contain free liquids, should free liquids occur. During accumulation, a container is considered closed when there is complete contact between the fitted lid and the rim, except when it is necessary to add or remove solvent-contaminated wipes. When the container is full, or when the solvent-contaminated wipes are no longer being accumulated, or when the container is being transported, the container must be sealed with all lids properly and securely affixed to the container and all openings tightly bound or closed sufficiently to prevent leaks and emissions;
(ii) The solvent-contaminated wipes may be accumulated by the generator for up to 180 days from the start date of accumulation for each container prior to being sent for cleaning;
(iii) At the point of being sent for cleaning on-site or at the point of being transported off-site for cleaning, the solvent-contaminated wipes must contain no free liquids as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter.
(iv) Free liquids removed from the solvent-contaminated wipes or from the container holding the wipes must be managed according to the applicable regulations found in 40 CFR parts 260 through 273;
(v) Generators must maintain at their site the following documentation:
(A) Name and address of the laundry or dry cleaner that is receiving the solvent-contaminated wipes;
(B) Documentation that the 180-day accumulation time limit in 40 CFR 261.4(a)(26)(ii) is being met;
(C) Description of the process the generator is using to ensure the solvent-contaminated wipes contain no free liquids at the point of being laundered or dry cleaned on-site or at the point of being transported off-site for laundering or dry cleaning;
(vi) The solvent-contaminated wipes are sent to a laundry or dry cleaner whose discharge, if any, is regulated under sections 301 and 402 or section 307 of the Clean Water Act.
(27) Hazardous secondary material that is generated and then transferred to another person for the purpose of remanufacturing is not a solid waste, provided that:
(i) The hazardous secondary material consists of one or more of the following spent solvents: Toluene, xylenes, ethylbenzene, 1,2,4-trimethylbenzene, chlorobenzene, n-hexane, cyclohexane, methyl tert-butyl ether, acetonitrile, chloroform, chloromethane, dichloromethane, methyl isobutyl ketone, NN-dimethylformamide, tetrahydrofuran, n-butyl alcohol, ethanol, and/or methanol;
(ii) The hazardous secondary material originated from using one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (a)(27)(i) of this section in a commercial grade for reacting, extracting, purifying, or blending chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines associated with these functions) in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and/or the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510).
(iii) The hazardous secondary material generator sends the hazardous secondary material spent solvents listed in paragraph (a)(27)(i) of this section to a remanufacturer in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and/or the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510).
(iv) After remanufacturing one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (a)(27)(i) of this section, the use of the remanufactured solvent shall be limited to reacting, extracting, purifying, or blending chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines associated with these functions) in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510) or to using them as ingredients in a product. These allowed uses correspond to chemical functional uses enumerated under the Chemical Data Reporting Rule of the Toxic Substances Control Act (40 CFR parts 704, 710-711), including Industrial Function Codes U015 (solvents consumed in a reaction to produce other chemicals) and U030 (solvents become part of the mixture);
(v) After remanufacturing one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (a)(27)(i) of this section, the use of the remanufactured solvent does not involve cleaning or degreasing oil, grease, or similar material from textiles, glassware, metal surfaces, or other articles. (These disallowed continuing uses correspond to chemical functional uses in Industrial Function Code U029 under the Chemical Data Reporting Rule of the Toxics Substances Control Act.); and
(vi) Both the hazardous secondary material generator and the remanufacturer must:
(A) Notify EPA or the State Director, if the state is authorized for the program, and update the notification every two years per 40 CFR 260.42;
(B) Develop and maintain an up-to-date remanufacturing plan which identifies:
(1) The name, address and EPA ID number of the generator(s) and the remanufacturer(s),
(2) The types and estimated annual volumes of spent solvents to be remanufactured,
(3) The processes and industry sectors that generate the spent solvents,
(4) The specific uses and industry sectors for the remanufactured solvents, and
(5) A certification from the remanufacturer stating “on behalf of [insert remanufacturer facility name], I certify that this facility is a remanufacturer under pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and/or the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510), and will accept the spent solvent(s) for the sole purpose of remanufacturing into commercial-grade solvent(s) that will be used for reacting, extracting, purifying, or blending chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines associated with these functions) or for use as product ingredient(s). I also certify that the remanufacturing equipment, vents, and tanks are equipped with and are operating air emission controls in compliance with the appropriate Clean Air Act regulations under 40 CFR part 60, part 61 or part 63, or, absent such Clean Air Act standards for the particular operation or piece of equipment covered by the remanufacturing exclusion, are in compliance with the appropriate standards in 40 CFR part 261, subparts AA (vents), BB (equipment) and CC (tank storage),”;
(C) Maintain records of shipments and confirmations of receipts for a period of three years from the dates of the shipments;
(D) Prior to remanufacturing, store the hazardous spent solvents in tanks or containers that meet technical standards found in subparts I and J of 40 CFR part 261, with the tanks and containers being labeled or otherwise having an immediately available record of the material being stored;
(E) During remanufacturing, and during storage of the hazardous secondary materials prior to remanufacturing, the remanufacturer certifies that the remanufacturing equipment, vents, and tanks are equipped with and are operating air emission controls in compliance with the appropriate Clean Air Act regulations under 40 CFR part 60, part 61 or part 63; or, absent such Clean Air Act standards for the particular operation or piece of equipment covered by the remanufacturing exclusion, are in compliance with the appropriate standards in 40 CFR part 261 subparts AA (vents), BB (equipment) and CC (tank storage); and
(F) Meet the requirements prohibiting speculative accumulation per 40 CFR 261.1(c)(8).
(b) Solid wastes which are not hazardous wastes. The following solid wastes are not hazardous wastes:
(1) Household waste, including household waste that has been collected, transported, stored, treated, disposed, recovered (e.g., refuse-derived fuel) or reused. “Household waste” means any material (including garbage, trash and sanitary wastes in septic tanks) derived from households (including single and multiple residences, hotels and motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds and day-use recreation areas). A resource recovery facility managing municipal solid waste shall not be deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the purposes of regulation under this subtitle, if such facility:
(i) Receives and burns only
(A) Household waste (from single and multiple dwellings, hotels, motels, and other residential sources) and
(B) Solid waste from commercial or industrial sources that does not contain hazardous waste; and
(ii) Such facility does not accept hazardous wastes and the owner or operator of such facility has established contractual requirements or other appropriate notification or inspection procedures to assure that hazardous wastes are not received at or burned in such facility.
(2) Solid wastes generated by any of the following and which are returned to the soils as fertilizers:
(i) The growing and harvesting of agricultural crops.
(ii) The raising of animals, including animal manures.
(3) Mining overburden returned to the mine site.
(4)(i) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels, except as provided by § 266.112 of this chapter for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
(ii) The following wastes generated primarily from processes that support the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels that are co-disposed with the wastes in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, except as provided by § 266.112 of this chapter for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste:
(A) Coal pile run-off. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, coal pile run-off means any precipitation that drains off coal piles.
(B) Boiler cleaning solutions. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, boiler cleaning solutions means water solutions and chemical solutions used to clean the fire-side and water-side of the boiler.
(C) Boiler blowdown. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, boiler blowdown means water purged from boilers used to generate steam.
(D) Process water treatment and demineralizer regeneration wastes. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, process water treatment and demineralizer regeneration wastes means sludges, rinses, and spent resins generated from processes to remove dissolved gases, suspended solids, and dissolved chemical salts from combustion system process water.
(E) Cooling tower blowdown. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, cooling tower blowdown means water purged from a closed cycle cooling system. Closed cycle cooling systems include cooling towers, cooling ponds, or spray canals.
(F) Air heater and precipitator washes. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, air heater and precipitator washes means wastes from cleaning air preheaters and electrostatic precipitators.
(G) Effluents from floor and yard drains and sumps. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, effluents from floor and yard drains and sumps means wastewaters, such as wash water, collected by or from floor drains, equipment drains, and sumps located inside the power plant building; and wastewaters, such as rain runoff, collected by yard drains and sumps located outside the power plant building.
(H) Wastewater treatment sludges. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, wastewater treatment sludges refers to sludges generated from the treatment of wastewaters specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(ii)(A) through (F) of this section.
(5) Drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration, development, or production of crude oil, natural gas or geothermal energy.
(6)(i) Wastes which fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic because chromium is present or are listed in subpart D due to the presence of chromium, which do not fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic for any other constituent or are not listed due to the presence of any other constituent, and which do not fail the test for any other characteristic, if it is shown by a waste generator or by waste generators that:
(A) The chromium in the waste is exclusively (or nearly exclusively) trivalent chromium; and
(B) The waste is generated from an industrial process which uses trivalent chromium exclusively (or nearly exclusively) and the process does not generate hexavalent chromium; and
(C) The waste is typically and frequently managed in non-oxidizing environments.
(ii) Specific wastes which meet the standard in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) (A), (B), and (C) (so long as they do not fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for any other constituent, and do not exhibit any other characteristic) are:
(A) Chrome (blue) trimmings generated by the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry; hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; retan/wet finish; no beamhouse; through-the-blue; and shearling.
(B) Chrome (blue) shavings generated by the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: Hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; retan/wet finish; no beamhouse; through-the-blue; and shearling.
(C) Buffing dust generated by the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry; hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; retan/wet finish; no beamhouse; through-the-blue.
(D) Sewer screenings generated by the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: Hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; retan/wet finish; no beamhouse; through-the-blue; and shearling.
(E) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: Hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; retan/wet finish; no beamhouse; through-the-blue; and shearling.
(F) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: Hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish; and through-the-blue.
(G) Waste scrap leather from the leather tanning industry, the shoe manufacturing industry, and other leather product manufacturing industries.
(H) Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of TiO
(7) Solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals (including coal, phosphate rock, and overburden from the mining of uranium ore), except as provided by § 266.112 of this chapter for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
(i) For purposes of § 261.4(b)(7) beneficiation of ores and minerals is restricted to the following activities; crushing; grinding; washing; dissolution; crystallization; filtration; sorting; sizing; drying; sintering; pelletizing; briquetting; calcining to remove water and/or carbon dioxide; roasting, autoclaving, and/or chlorination in preparation for leaching (except where the roasting (and/or autoclaving and/or chlorination)/leaching sequence produces a final or intermediate product that does not undergo further beneficiation or processing); gravity concentration; magnetic separation; electrostatic separation; flotation; ion exchange; solvent extraction; electrowinning; precipitation; amalgamation; and heap, dump, vat, tank, and in situ leaching.
(ii) For the purposes of § 261.4(b)(7), solid waste from the processing of ores and minerals includes only the following wastes as generated:
(A) Slag from primary copper processing;
(B) Slag from primary lead processing;
(C) Red and brown muds from bauxite refining;
(D) Phosphogypsum from phosphoric acid production;
(E) Slag from elemental phosphorus production;
(F) Gasifier ash from coal gasification;
(G) Process wastewater from coal gasification;
(H) Calcium sulfate wastewater treatment plant sludge from primary copper processing;
(I) Slag tailings from primary copper processing;
(J) Fluorogypsum from hydrofluoric acid production;
(K) Process wastewater from hydrofluoric acid production;
(L) Air pollution control dust/sludge from iron blast furnaces;
(M) Iron blast furnace slag;
(N) Treated residue from roasting/leaching of chrome ore;
(O) Process wastewater from primary magnesium processing by the anhydrous process;
(P) Process wastewater from phosphoric acid production;
(Q) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace air pollution control dust/sludge from carbon steel production;
(R) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace slag from carbon steel production;
(S) Chloride process waste solids from titanium tetrachloride production;
(T) Slag from primary zinc processing.
(iii) A residue derived from co-processing mineral processing secondary materials with normal beneficiation raw materials or with normal mineral processing raw materials remains excluded under paragraph (b) of this section if the owner or operator:
(A) Processes at least 50 percent by weight normal beneficiation raw materials or normal mineral processing raw materials; and,
(B) Legitimately reclaims the secondary mineral processing materials.
(8) Cement kiln dust waste, except as provided by § 266.112 of this chapter for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
(9) Solid waste which consists of discarded arsenical-treated wood or wood products which fails the test for the Toxicity Characteristic for Hazardous Waste Codes D004 through D017 and which is not a hazardous waste for any other reason if the waste is generated by persons who utilize the arsenical-treated wood and wood products for these materials’ intended end use.
(10) Petroleum-contaminated media and debris that fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic of § 261.24 (Hazardous Waste Codes D018 through D043 only) and are subject to the corrective action regulations under part 280 of this chapter.
(11) Injected groundwater that is hazardous only because it exhibits the Toxicity Characteristic (Hazardous Waste Codes D018 through D043 only) in § 261.24 of this part that is reinjected through an underground injection well pursuant to free phase hydrocarbon recovery operations undertaken at petroleum refineries, petroleum marketing terminals, petroleum bulk plants, petroleum pipelines, and petroleum transportation spill sites until January 25, 1993. This extension applies to recovery operations in existence, or for which contracts have been issued, on or before March 25, 1991. For groundwater returned through infiltration galleries from such operations at petroleum refineries, marketing terminals, and bulk plants, until [insert date six months after publication]. New operations involving injection wells (beginning after March 25, 1991) will qualify for this compliance date extension (until January 25, 1993) only if:
(i) Operations are performed pursuant to a written state agreement that includes a provision to assess the groundwater and the need for further remediation once the free phase recovery is completed; and
(ii) A copy of the written agreement has been submitted to: Waste Identification Branch (5304), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460.
(12) Used chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants from totally enclosed heat transfer equipment, including mobile air conditioning systems, mobile refrigeration, and commercial and industrial air conditioning and refrigeration systems that use chlorofluorocarbons as the heat transfer fluid in a refrigeration cycle, provided the refrigerant is reclaimed for further use.
(13) Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not mixed with wastes listed in subpart D of this part if these oil filters have been gravity hot-drained using one of the following methods:
(i) Puncturing the filter anti-drain back valve or the filter dome end and hot-draining;
(ii) Hot-draining and crushing;
(iii) Dismantling and hot-draining; or
(iv) Any other equivalent hot-draining method that will remove used oil.
(14) Used oil re-refining distillation bottoms that are used as feedstock to manufacture asphalt products.
(15) Leachate or gas condensate collected from landfills where certain solid wastes have been disposed, provided that:
(i) The solid wastes disposed would meet one or more of the listing descriptions for Hazardous Waste Codes K169, K170, K171, K172, K174, K175, K176, K177, K178 and K181 if these wastes had been generated after the effective date of the listing;
(ii) The solid wastes described in paragraph (b)(15)(i) of this section were disposed prior to the effective date of the listing;
(iii) The leachate or gas condensate do not exhibit any characteristic of hazardous waste nor are derived from any other listed hazardous waste;
(iv) Discharge of the leachate or gas condensate, including leachate or gas condensate transferred from the landfill to a POTW by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe, is subject to regulation under sections 307(b) or 402 of the Clean Water Act.
(v) As of February 13, 2001, leachate or gas condensate derived from K169-K172 is no longer exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment prior to discharge. As of November 21, 2003, leachate or gas condensate derived from K176, K177, and K178 is no longer exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment prior to discharge. After February 26, 2007, leachate or gas condensate derived from K181 will no longer be exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment prior to discharge. There is one exception: if the surface impoundment is used to temporarily store leachate or gas condensate in response to an emergency situation (e.g., shutdown of wastewater treatment system), provided the impoundment has a double liner, and provided the leachate or gas condensate is removed from the impoundment and continues to be managed in compliance with the conditions of this paragraph (b)(15)(v) after the emergency ends.
(16) [Reserved]
(17) Solid waste that would otherwise meet the definition of low-level mixed wastes (LLMW) pursuant to § 266.210 of this chapter that is generated at the Ortho-McNeil Pharmaceutical, Inc. (OMP Spring House) research and development facility in Spring House, Pennsylvania and treated on-site using a bench-scale high temperature catalytic oxidation unit is not a hazardous waste provided that:
(i) The total volume of LLMW generated and treated is no greater than 50 liters/year, (ii) OMP Spring House submits a written report to the EPA Region III office once every six months beginning six months after June 27, 2005, that must contain the following:
(A) Analysis demonstrating the destruction and removal efficiency of the treatment technology for all organic components of the wastestream,
(B) Analysis demonstrating the capture efficiencies of the treatment technology for all radioactive components of the wastestream and an estimate of the amount of radioactivity released during the reporting period,
(C) Analysis (including concentrations of constituents, including inorganic constituents, present and radioactivity) of the wastestream prior to and after treatment,
(D) Volume of the wastestream being treated per batch, as well as a total for the duration of the reporting period, and
(E) Final disposition of the radioactive residuals from the treatment of the wastestream.
(iii) OMP Spring House makes no significant changes to the design or operation of the high temperature catalytic oxidation unit or the wastestream.
(iv) This exclusion will remain in affect for 5 years from June 27, 2005.
(18) Solvent-contaminated wipes, except for wipes that are hazardous waste due to the presence of trichloroethylene, that are sent for disposal are not hazardous wastes from the point of generation provided that
(i) The solvent-contaminated wipes, when accumulated, stored, and transported, are contained in non-leaking, closed containers that are labeled “Excluded Solvent-Contaminated Wipes.” The containers must be able to contain free liquids, should free liquids occur. During accumulation, a container is considered closed when there is complete contact between the fitted lid and the rim, except when it is necessary to add or remove solvent-contaminated wipes. When the container is full, or when the solvent-contaminated wipes are no longer being accumulated, or when the container is being transported, the container must be sealed with all lids properly and securely affixed to the container and all openings tightly bound or closed sufficiently to prevent leaks and emissions;
(ii) The solvent-contaminated wipes may be accumulated by the generator for up to 180 days from the start date of accumulation for each container prior to being sent for disposal;
(iii) At the point of being transported for disposal, the solvent-contaminated wipes must contain no free liquids as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter.
(iv) Free liquids removed from the solvent-contaminated wipes or from the container holding the wipes must be managed according to the applicable regulations found in 40 CFR parts 260 through 273;
(v) Generators must maintain at their site the following documentation:
(A) Name and address of the landfill or combustor that is receiving the solvent-contaminated wipes;
(B) Documentation that the 180 day accumulation time limit in 40 CFR 261.4(b)(18)(ii) is being met;
(C) Description of the process the generator is using to ensure solvent-contaminated wipes contain no free liquids at the point of being transported for disposal;
(vi) The solvent-contaminated wipes are sent for disposal
(A) To a municipal solid waste landfill regulated under 40 CFR part 258, including 40 CFR 258.40, or to a hazardous waste landfill regulated under 40 CFR parts 264 or 265; or
(B) To a municipal waste combustor or other combustion facility regulated under section 129 of the Clean Air Act or to a hazardous waste combustor, boiler, or industrial furnace regulated under 40 CFR parts 264, 265, or 266 subpart H.
(c) Hazardous wastes which are exempted from certain regulations. A hazardous waste which is generated in a product or raw material storage tank, a product or raw material transport vehicle or vessel, a product or raw material pipeline, or in a manufacturing process unit or an associated non-waste-treatment-manufacturing unit, is not subject to regulation under parts 262 through 265, 268, 270, 271 and 124 of this chapter or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA until it exits the unit in which it was generated, unless the unit is a surface impoundment, or unless the hazardous waste remains in the unit more than 90 days after the unit ceases to be operated for manufacturing, or for storage or transportation of product or raw materials.
(d) Samples. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(2) and (4) of this section, a sample of solid waste or a sample of water, soil, or air, which is collected for the sole purpose of testing to determine its characteristics or composition, is not subject to any requirements of this part or parts 262 through 268 or part 270 or part 124 of this chapter or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA, when:
(i) The sample is being transported to a laboratory for the purpose of testing; or
(ii) The sample is being transported back to the sample collector after testing; or
(iii) The sample is being stored by the sample collector before transport to a laboratory for testing; or
(iv) The sample is being stored in a laboratory before testing; or
(v) The sample is being stored in a laboratory after testing but before it is returned to the sample collector; or
(vi) The sample is being stored temporarily in the laboratory after testing for a specific purpose (for example, until conclusion of a court case or enforcement action where further testing of the sample may be necessary).
(2) In order to qualify for the exemption in paragraphs (d)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section, a sample collector shipping samples to a laboratory and a laboratory returning samples to a sample collector must:
(i) Comply with U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), U.S. Postal Service (USPS), or any other applicable shipping requirements; or
(ii) Comply with the following requirements if the sample collector determines that DOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of the sample:
(A) Assure that the following information accompanies the sample:
(1) The sample collector’s name, mailing address, and telephone number;
(2) The laboratory’s name, mailing address, and telephone number;
(3) The quantity of the sample;
(4) The date of shipment; and
(5) A description of the sample.
(B) Package the sample so that it does not leak, spill, or vaporize from its packaging.
(3) This exemption does not apply if the laboratory determines that the waste is hazardous but the laboratory is no longer meeting any of the conditions stated in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(4) In order to qualify for the exemption in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, the mass of a sample that will be exported to a foreign laboratory or that will be imported to a U.S. laboratory from a foreign source must additionally not exceed 25 kg.
(e) Treatability Study Samples. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(2) and (4) of this section, persons who generate or collect samples for the purpose of conducting treatability studies as defined in 40 CFR 260.10, are not subject to any requirement of 40 CFR parts 261 through 263 or to the notification requirements of Section 3010 of RCRA, nor are such samples included in the quantity determinations of 40 CFR 261.5 and 262.34(d) when:
(i) The sample is being collected and prepared for transportation by the generator or sample collector; or
(ii) The sample is being accumulated or stored by the generator or sample collector prior to transportation to a laboratory or testing facility; or
(iii) The sample is being transported to the laboratory or testing facility for the purpose of conducting a treatability study.
(2) The exemption in paragraph (e)(1) of this section is applicable to samples of hazardous waste being collected and shipped for the purpose of conducting treatability studies provided that:
(i) The generator or sample collector uses (in “treatability studies”) no more than 10,000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, 1000 kg of non-acute hazardous waste other than contaminated media, 1 kg of acute hazardous waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste for each process being evaluated for each generated waste stream; and
(ii) The mass of each sample shipment does not exceed 10,000 kg; the 10,000 kg quantity may be all media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, or may include 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste, 1000 kg of hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste; and
(iii) The sample must be packaged so that it will not leak, spill, or vaporize from its packaging during shipment and the requirements of paragraph A or B of this subparagraph are met.
(A) The transportation of each sample shipment complies with U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), U.S. Postal Service (USPS), or any other applicable shipping requirements; or
(B) If the DOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of the sample, the following information must accompany the sample:
(1) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the originator of the sample;
(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the facility that will perform the treatability study;
(3) The quantity of the sample;
(4) The date of shipment; and
(5) A description of the sample, including its EPA Hazardous Waste Number.
(iv) The sample is shipped to a laboratory or testing facility which is exempt under § 261.4(f) or has an appropriate RCRA permit or interim status.
(v) The generator or sample collector maintains the following records for a period ending 3 years after completion of the treatability study:
(A) Copies of the shipping documents;
(B) A copy of the contract with the facility conducting the treatability study;
(C) Documentation showing:
(1) The amount of waste shipped under this exemption;
(2) The name, address, and EPA identification number of the laboratory or testing facility that received the waste;
(3) The date the shipment was made; and
(4) Whether or not unused samples and residues were returned to the generator.
(vi) The generator reports the information required under paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) of this section in its biennial report.
(3) The Regional Administrator may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for up to an additional two years for treatability studies involving bioremediation. The Regional Administrator may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for quantity limits in excess of those specified in paragraphs (e)(2) (i) and (ii) and (f)(4) of this section, for up to an additional 5000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, 500 kg of non-acute hazardous waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste:
(i) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store and conduct treatability studies on additional quantities in advance of commencing treatability studies. Factors to be considered in reviewing such requests include the nature of the technology, the type of process (e.g., batch versus continuous), size of the unit undergoing testing (particularly in relation to scale-up considerations), the time/quantity of material required to reach steady state operating conditions, or test design considerations such as mass balance calculations.
(ii) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store and conduct treatability studies on additional quantities after initiation or completion of initial treatability studies, when: There has been an equipment or mechanical failure during the conduct of a treatability study; there is a need to verify the results of a previously conducted treatability study; there is a need to study and analyze alternative techniques within a previously evaluated treatment process; or there is a need to do further evaluation of an ongoing treatability study to determine final specifications for treatment.
(iii) The additional quantities and timeframes allowed in paragraph (e)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section are subject to all the provisions in paragraphs (e) (1) and (e)(2) (iii) through (vi) of this section. The generator or sample collector must apply to the Regional Administrator in the Region where the sample is collected and provide in writing the following information:
(A) The reason why the generator or sample collector requires additional time or quantity of sample for treatability study evaluation and the additional time or quantity needed;
(B) Documentation accounting for all samples of hazardous waste from the waste stream which have been sent for or undergone treatability studies including the date each previous sample from the waste stream was shipped, the quantity of each previous shipment, the laboratory or testing facility to which it was shipped, what treatability study processes were conducted on each sample shipped, and the available results on each treatability study;
(C) A description of the technical modifications or change in specifications which will be evaluated and the expected results;
(D) If such further study is being required due to equipment or mechanical failure, the applicant must include information regarding the reason for the failure or breakdown and also include what procedures or equipment improvements have been made to protect against further breakdowns; and
(E) Such other information that the Regional Administrator considers necessary.
(4) In order to qualify for the exemption in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, the mass of a sample that will be exported to a foreign laboratory or testing facility, or that will be imported to a U.S. laboratory or testing facility from a foreign source must additionally not exceed 25 kg.
(f) Samples Undergoing Treatability Studies at Laboratories and Testing Facilities. Samples undergoing treatability studies and the laboratory or testing facility conducting such treatability studies (to the extent such facilities are not otherwise subject to RCRA requirements) are not subject to any requirement of this part, part 124, parts 262-266, 268, and 270, or to the notification requirements of Section 3010 of RCRA provided that the conditions of paragraphs (f) (1) through (11) of this section are met. A mobile treatment unit (MTU) may qualify as a testing facility subject to paragraphs (f) (1) through (11) of this section. Where a group of MTUs are located at the same site, the limitations specified in (f) (1) through (11) of this section apply to the entire group of MTUs collectively as if the group were one MTU.
(1) No less than 45 days before conducting treatability studies, the facility notifies the Regional Administrator, or State Director (if located in an authorized State), in writing that it intends to conduct treatability studies under this paragraph.
(2) The laboratory or testing facility conducting the treatability study has an EPA identification number.
(3) No more than a total of 10,000 kg of “as received” media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste or 250 kg of other “as received” hazardous waste is subject to initiation of treatment in all treatability studies in any single day. “As received” waste refers to the waste as received in the shipment from the generator or sample collector.
(4) The quantity of “as received” hazardous waste stored at the facility for the purpose of evaluation in treatability studies does not exceed 10,000 kg, the total of which can include 10,000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste, 1000 kg of non-acute hazardous wastes other than contaminated media, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste. This quantity limitation does not include treatment materials (including nonhazardous solid waste) added to “as received” hazardous waste.
(5) No more than 90 days have elapsed since the treatability study for the sample was completed, or no more than one year (two years for treatability studies involving bioremediation) have elapsed since the generator or sample collector shipped the sample to the laboratory or testing facility, whichever date first occurs. Up to 500 kg of treated material from a particular waste stream from treatability studies may be archived for future evaluation up to five years from the date of initial receipt. Quantities of materials archived are counted against the total storage limit for the facility.
(6) The treatability study does not involve the placement of hazardous waste on the land or open burning of hazardous waste.
(7) The facility maintains records for 3 years following completion of each study that show compliance with the treatment rate limits and the storage time and quantity limits. The following specific information must be included for each treatability study conducted:
(i) The name, address, and EPA identification number of the generator or sample collector of each waste sample;
(ii) The date the shipment was received;
(iii) The quantity of waste accepted;
(iv) The quantity of “as received” waste in storage each day;
(v) The date the treatment study was initiated and the amount of “as received” waste introduced to treatment each day;
(vi) The date the treatability study was concluded;
(vii) The date any unused sample or residues generated from the treatability study were returned to the generator or sample collector or, if sent to a designated facility, the name of the facility and the EPA identification number.
(8) The facility keeps, on-site, a copy of the treatability study contract and all shipping papers associated with the transport of treatability study samples to and from the facility for a period ending 3 years from the completion date of each treatability study.
(9) The facility prepares and submits a report to the Regional Administrator, or state Director (if located in an authorized state), by March 15 of each year, that includes the following information for the previous calendar year:
(i) The name, address, and EPA identification number of the facility conducting the treatability studies;
(ii) The types (by process) of treatability studies conducted;
(iii) The names and addresses of persons for whom studies have been conducted (including their EPA identification numbers);
(iv) The total quantity of waste in storage each day;
(v) The quantity and types of waste subjected to treatability studies;
(vi) When each treatability study was conducted;
(vii) The final disposition of residues and unused sample from each treatability study.
(10) The facility determines whether any unused sample or residues generated by the treatability study are hazardous waste under § 261.3 and, if so, are subject to parts 261 through 268, and part 270 of this chapter, unless the residues and unused samples are returned to the sample originator under the § 261.4(e) exemption.
(11) The facility notifies the Regional Administrator, or State Director (if located in an authorized State), by letter when the facility is no longer planning to conduct any treatability studies at the site.
(g) Dredged material that is not a hazardous waste. Dredged material that is subject to the requirements of a permit that has been issued under 404 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C.1344) or section 103 of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (33 U.S.C. 1413) is not a hazardous waste. For this paragraph (g), the following definitions apply:
(1) The term dredged material has the same meaning as defined in 40 CFR 232.2;
(2) The term permit means:
(i) A permit issued by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Corps) or an approved State under section 404 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1344);
(ii) A permit issued by the Corps under section 103 of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (33 U.S.C. 1413); or
(iii) In the case of Corps civil works projects, the administrative equivalent of the permits referred to in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as provided for in Corps regulations (for example, see 33 CFR 336.1, 336.2, and 337.6).
(h) Carbon dioxide stream injected for geologic sequestration. Carbon dioxide streams that are captured and transported for purposes of injection into an underground injection well subject to the requirements for Class VI Underground Injection Control wells, including the requirements in 40 CFR Parts 144 and 146 of the Underground Injection Control Program of the Safe Drinking Water Act, are not a hazardous waste, provided the following conditions are met:
(1) Transportation of the carbon dioxide stream must be in compliance with U.S. Department of Transportation requirements, including the pipeline safety laws (49 U.S.C. 60101 et seq.) and regulations (49 CFR Parts 190-199) of the U.S. Department of Transportation, and pipeline safety regulations adopted and administered by a state authority pursuant to a certification under 49 U.S.C. 60105, as applicable.
(2) Injection of the carbon dioxide stream must be in compliance with the applicable requirements for Class VI Underground Injection Control wells, including the applicable requirements in 40 CFR Parts 144 and 146;
(3) No hazardous wastes shall be mixed with, or otherwise co-injected with, the carbon dioxide stream; and
(4)(i) Any generator of a carbon dioxide stream, who claims that a carbon dioxide stream is excluded under this paragraph (h), must have an authorized representative (as defined in 40 CFR 260.10) sign a certification statement worded as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that the carbon dioxide stream that I am claiming to be excluded under 40 CFR 261.4(h) has not been mixed with hazardous wastes, and I have transported the carbon dioxide stream in compliance with (or have contracted with a pipeline operator or transporter to transport the carbon dioxide stream in compliance with) Department of Transportation requirements, including the pipeline safety laws (49 U.S.C. 60101 et seq.) and regulations (49 CFR Parts 190-199) of the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the pipeline safety regulations adopted and administered by a state authority pursuant to a certification under 49 U.S.C. 60105, as applicable, for injection into a well subject to the requirements for the Class VI Underground Injection Control Program of the Safe Drinking Water Act.
(ii) Any Class VI Underground Injection Control well owner or operator, who claims that a carbon dioxide stream is excluded under paragraph (h) of this section, must have an authorized representative (as defined in 40 CFR 260.10) sign a certification statement worded as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that the carbon dioxide stream that I am claiming to be excluded under 40 CFR 261.4(h) has not been mixed with, or otherwise co-injected with, hazardous waste at the Underground Injection Control (UIC) Class VI permitted facility, and that injection of the carbon dioxide stream is in compliance with the applicable requirements for UIC Class VI wells, including the applicable requirements in 40 CFR Parts 144 and 146.
(iii) The signed certification statement must be kept on-site for no less than three years, and must be made available within 72 hours of a written request from the Administrator, Regional Administrator, or state Director (if located in an authorized state), or their designee. The signed certification statement must be renewed every year that the exclusion is claimed, by having an authorized representative (as defined in 40 CFR 260.10) annually prepare and sign a new copy of the certification statement within one year of the date of the previous statement. The signed certification statement must also be readily accessible on the facility’s publicly-available Web site (if such Web site exists) as a public notification with the title of “Carbon Dioxide Stream Certification” at the time the exclusion is claimed.
(i) [Reserved]
(j) Airbag waste. (1) Airbag waste at the airbag waste handler or during transport to an airbag waste collection facility or designated facility is not subject to regulation under parts 262 through 268, part 270, or part 124 of this chapter, and is not subject to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA provided that:
(i) The airbag waste is accumulated in a quantity of no more than 250 airbag modules or airbag inflators, for no longer than 180 days;
(ii) The airbag waste is packaged in a container designed to address the risk posed by the airbag waste and labeled “Airbag Waste-Do Not Reuse”;
(iii) The airbag waste is sent directly to either:
(A) An airbag waste collection facility in the United States under the control of a vehicle manufacturer or their authorized representative, or under the control of an authorized party administering a remedy program in response to a recall under the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, or
(B) A designated facility as defined in 40 CFR 260.10;
(iv) The transport of the airbag waste complies with all applicable U.S. Department of Transportation regulations in 49 CFR part 171 through 180 during transit;
(v) The airbag waste handler maintains at the handler facility for no less than three (3) years records of all off-site shipments of airbag waste and all confirmations of receipt from the receiving facility. For each shipment, these records must, at a minimum, contain the name of the transporter and date of the shipment; name and address of receiving facility; and the type and quantity of airbag waste (i.e., airbag modules or airbag inflators) in the shipment. Confirmations of receipt must include the name and address of the receiving facility; the type and quantity of the airbag waste (i.e., airbag modules and airbag inflators) received; and the date which it was received. Shipping records and confirmations of receipt must be made available for inspection and may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g., electronic or paper financial records, bills of lading, copies of DOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations of receipt).
(2) Once the airbag waste arrives at an airbag waste collection facility or designated facility, it becomes subject to all applicable hazardous waste regulations, and the facility receiving airbag waste is considered the hazardous waste generator for the purposes of the hazardous waste regulations and must comply with the requirements of 40 CFR part 262.
(3) Reuse in vehicles of defective airbag modules or defective airbag inflators subject to a recall under the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration is considered sham recycling and prohibited under 40 CFR 261.2(g).
§ 261.5 [Reserved]
§ 261.6 Requirements for recyclable materials.
(a)(1) Hazardous wastes that are recycled are subject to the requirements for generators, transporters, and storage facilities of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, except for the materials listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section. Hazardous wastes that are recycled will be known as “recyclable materials.”
(2) The following recyclable materials are not subject to the requirements of this section but are regulated under subparts C through Q of part 266 of this chapter and all applicable provisions in parts 268, 270, and 124 of this chapter.
(i) Recyclable materials used in a manner constituting disposal (40 CFR part 266, subpart C);
(ii) Hazardous wastes burned (as defined in section 266.100(a)) in boilers and industrial furnaces that are not regulated under subpart O of part 264 or 265 of this chapter (40 CFR part 266, subpart H);
(iii) Recyclable materials from which precious metals are reclaimed (40 CFR part 266, subpart F);
(iv) Spent lead-acid batteries that are being reclaimed (40 CFR part 266, subpart G).
(v) Ignitable spent refrigerants recycled for reuse (40 CFR part 266, subpart Q).
(3) The following recyclable materials are not subject to regulation under parts 262 through parts 268, 270 or 124 of this chapter, and are not subject to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA:
(i) Industrial ethyl alcohol that is reclaimed except that exports and imports of such recyclable materials must comply with the requirements of 40 CFR part 262, subpart H.
(A) The person initiating a shipment for reclamation in a foreign country, and any intermediary arranging for the shipment, must comply with the requirements applicable to an exporter in § 262.83 of this chapter with the exception of § 262.83(c);
(B) Transporters transporting a shipment for export or import must comply with the movement document requirements listed in § 263.20(a)(2) and (c) of this chapter.
(ii) Scrap metal that is not excluded under § 261.4(a)(13);
(iii) Fuels produced from the refining of oil-bearing hazardous waste along with normal process streams at a petroleum refining facility if such wastes result from normal petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices (this exemption does not apply to fuels produced from oil recovered from oil-bearing hazardous waste, where such recovered oil is already excluded under § 261.4(a)(12);
(iv)(A) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining, production, or transportation practices, or produced from oil reclaimed from such hazardous wastes, where such hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a process that does not use distillation or does not produce products from crude oil so long as the resulting fuel meets the used oil specification under § 279.11 of this chapter and so long as no other hazardous wastes are used to produce the hazardous waste fuel;
(B) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous waste from petroleum refining production, and transportation practices, where such hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a refining process after a point at which contaminants are removed, so long as the fuel meets the used oil fuel specification under § 279.11 of this chapter; and
(C) Oil reclaimed from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices, which reclaimed oil is burned as a fuel without reintroduction to a refining process, so long as the reclaimed oil meets the used oil fuel specification under § 279.11 of this chapter.
(4) Used oil that is recycled and is also a hazardous waste solely because it exhibits a hazardous characteristic is not subject to the requirements of parts 260 through 268 of this chapter, but is regulated under part 279 of this chapter. Used oil that is recycled includes any used oil which is reused, following its original use, for any purpose (including the purpose for which the oil was originally used). Such term includes, but is not limited to, oil which is re-refined, reclaimed, burned for energy recovery, or reprocessed.
(5) Hazardous waste that is exported or imported for purpose of recovery is subject to the requirements of 40 CFR part 262, subpart H.
(b) Generators and transporters of recyclable materials are subject to the applicable requirements of parts 262 and 263 of this chapter and the notification requirements under section 3010 of RCRA, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
(c)(1) Owners and operators of facilities that store recyclable materials before they are recycled are regulated under all applicable provisions of subparts A though L and AA through DD of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265, and under 40 CFR parts 124, 266, 267, 268, and 270 and the notification requirements under section 3010 of RCRA, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section. (The recycling process itself is exempt from regulation except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.)
(2) Owners or operators of facilities that recycle recyclable materials without storing them before they are recycled are subject to the following requirements, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section:
(i) Notification requirements under section 3010 of RCRA;
(ii) Sections 265.71 and 265.72 (dealing with the use of the manifest and manifest discrepancies) of this chapter.
(iii) Section 261.6(d) of this chapter.
(iv) Section 265.75 of this chapter (biennial reporting requirements).
(d) Owners or operators of facilities subject to RCRA permitting requirements with hazardous waste management units that recycle hazardous wastes are subject to the requirements of subparts AA and BB of part 264, 265 or 267 of this chapter.
§ 261.7 Residues of hazardous waste in empty containers.
(a)(1) Any hazardous waste remaining in either: an empty container; or an inner liner removed from an empty container, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, is not subject to regulation under parts 261 through 268, 270, or 124 this chapter or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA.
(2) Any hazardous waste in either a container that is not empty or an inner liner removed from a container that is not empty, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, is subject to regulation under parts 261 through 268, 270 and 124 of this chapter and to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA.
(b)(1) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that has held any hazardous waste, except a waste that is a compressed gas or that is identified as an acute hazardous waste listed in §§ 261.31 or 261.33(e) of this chapter is empty if:
(i) All wastes have been removed that can be removed using the practices commonly employed to remove materials from that type of container, e.g., pouring, pumping, and aspirating, and
(ii) No more than 2.5 centimeters (one inch) of residue remain on the bottom of the container or inner liner, or
(iii)(A) No more than 3 percent by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is less than or equal to 119 gallons in size; or
(B) No more than 0.3 percent by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is greater than 119 gallons in size.
(2) A container that has held a hazardous waste that is a compressed gas is empty when the pressure in the container approaches atmospheric.
(3) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that has held an acute hazardous waste listed in §§ 261.31 or 261.33(e) is empty if:
(i) The container or inner liner has been triple rinsed using a solvent capable of removing the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate;
(ii) The container or inner liner has been cleaned by another method that has been shown in the scientific literature, or by tests conducted by the generator, to achieve equivalent removal; or
(iii) In the case of a container, the inner liner that prevented contact of the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate with the container, has been removed.
(c) Containers of hazardous waste pharmaceuticals are subject to § 266.507 for determining when they are considered empty, in lieu of this section, except as provided by § 266.507(c) and (d).
§ 261.8 PCB wastes regulated under Toxic Substance Control Act.
The disposal of PCB-containing dielectric fluid and electric equipment containing such fluid authorized for use and regulated under part 761 of this chapter and that are hazardous only because they fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic (Hazardous Waste Codes D018 through D043 only) are exempt from regulation under parts 261 through 265, and parts 268, 270, and 124 of this chapter, and the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA.
§ 261.9 Requirements for Universal Waste.
The wastes listed in this section are exempt from regulation under parts 262 through 270 of this chapter except as specified in part 273 of this chapter and, therefore are not fully regulated as hazardous waste. The wastes listed in this section are subject to regulation under 40 CFR part 273:
(a) Batteries as described in 40 CFR 273.2;
(b) Pesticides as described in § 273.3 of this chapter;
(c) Mercury-containing equipment as described in § 273.4 of this chapter;
(d) Lamps as described in § 273.5 of this chapter; and
(e) Aerosol cans as described in § 273.6 of this chapter.
Subpart B—Criteria for Identifying the Characteristics of Hazardous Waste and for Listing Hazardous Waste
§ 261.10 Criteria for identifying the characteristics of hazardous waste.
(a) The Administrator shall identify and define a characteristic of hazardous waste in subpart C only upon determining that:
(1) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic may:
(i) Cause, or significantly contribute to, an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness; or
(ii) Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when it is improperly treated, stored, transported, disposed of or otherwise managed; and
(2) The characteristic can be:
(i) Measured by an available standardized test method which is reasonably within the capability of generators of solid waste or private sector laboratories that are available to serve generators of solid waste; or
(ii) Reasonably detected by generators of solid waste through their knowledge of their waste.
(b) [Reserved]
§ 261.11 Criteria for listing hazardous waste.
(a) The Administrator shall list a solid waste as a hazardous waste only upon determining that the solid waste meets one of the following criteria:
(1) It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in subpart C.
(2) It has been found to be fatal to humans in low doses or, in the absence of data on human toxicity, it has been shown in studies to have an oral LD 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 50 milligrams per kilogram, an inhalation LC 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 2 milligrams per liter, or a dermal LD 50 toxicity (rabbit) of less than 200 milligrams per kilogram or is otherwise capable of causing or significantly contributing to an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness. (Waste listed in accordance with these criteria will be designated Acute Hazardous Waste.)
(3) It contains any of the toxic constituents listed in appendix VIII and, after considering the following factors, the Administrator concludes that the waste is capable of posing a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported or disposed of, or otherwise managed:
(i) The nature of the toxicity presented by the constituent.
(ii) The concentration of the constituent in the waste.
(iii) The potential of the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent to migrate from the waste into the environment under the types of improper management considered in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section.
(iv) The persistence of the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent.
(v) The potential for the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent to degrade into non-harmful constituents and the rate of degradation.
(vi) The degree to which the constituent or any degradation product of the constituent bioaccumulates in ecosystems.
(vii) The plausible types of improper management to which the waste could be subjected.
(viii) The quantities of the waste generated at individual generation sites or on a regional or national basis.
(ix) The nature and severity of the human health and environmental damage that has occurred as a result of the improper management of wastes containing the constituent.
(x) Action taken by other governmental agencies or regulatory programs based on the health or environmental hazard posed by the waste or waste constituent.
(xi) Such other factors as may be appropriate.
(Wastes listed in accordance with these criteria will be designated Toxic wastes.)
(b) The Administrator may list classes or types of solid waste as hazardous waste if he has reason to believe that individual wastes, within the class or type of waste, typically or frequently are hazardous under the definition of hazardous waste found in section 1004(5) of the Act.
Subpart C—Characteristics of Hazardous Waste
§ 261.20 General.
(a) A solid waste, as defined in § 261.2, which is not excluded from regulation as a hazardous waste under § 261.4(b), is a hazardous waste if it exhibits any of the characteristics identified in this subpart.
(b) A hazardous waste which is identified by a characteristic in this subpart is assigned every EPA Hazardous Waste Number that is applicable as set forth in this subpart. This number must be used in complying with the notification requirements of section 3010 of the Act and all applicable recordkeeping and reporting requirements under parts 262 through 265, 268, and 270 of this chapter.
(c) For purposes of this subpart, the Administrator will consider a sample obtained using any of the applicable sampling methods specified in appendix I to be a representative sample within the meaning of part 260 of this chapter.
§ 261.21 Characteristic of ignitability.
(a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of ignitability if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:
(1) It is a liquid, other than a solution containing less than 24 percent alcohol by volume and at least 50 percent water by weight, that has a flash point less than 60 °C (140 °F), as determined by using one of the following ASTM standards: ASTM D93-79, D93-80, D3278-78, D8174-18, or D8175-18 as specified in SW-846 Test Methods 1010B or 1020C (all incorporated by reference, see § 260.11 of this subchapter).
(2) It is not a liquid and is capable, under standard temperature and pressure, of causing fire through friction, absorption of moisture or spontaneous chemical changes and, when ignited, burns so vigorously and persistently that it creates a hazard.
(3) It is an ignitable compressed gas.
(i) The term “compressed gas” shall designate any material or mixture having in the container an absolute pressure exceeding 40 p.s.i. at 70 °F or, regardless of the pressure at 70 °F, having an absolute pressure exceeding 104 p.s.i. at 130 °F; or any liquid flammable material having a vapor pressure exceeding 40 p.s.i. absolute at 100 °F as determined by ASTM Test D-323.
(ii) A compressed gas shall be characterized as ignitable if any one of the following occurs:
(A) Either a mixture of 13 percent or less (by volume) with air forms a flammable mixture or the flammable range with air is wider than 12 percent regardless of the lower limit. These limits shall be determined at atmospheric temperature and pressure. The method of sampling and test procedure shall be the ASTM E 681-85 (incorporated by reference, see § 260.11 of this subchapter), or other equivalent methods approved by the Associate Administrator, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation.
(B) It is determined to be flammable or extremely flammable using 49 CFR 173.115(l).
(4) It is an oxidizer. An oxidizer for the purpose of this subchapter is a substance such as a chlorate, permanganate, inorganic peroxide, or a nitrate, that yields oxygen readily to stimulate the combustion of organic matter.
(i) An organic compound containing the bivalent -O-O- structure and which may be considered a derivative of hydrogen peroxide where one or more of the hydrogen atoms have been replaced by organic radicals must be classed as an organic peroxide unless:
(A) The material meets the definition of a Division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosive, as defined in § 261.23(a)(8), in which case it must be classed as an explosive,
(B) The material is forbidden to be offered for transportation according to 49 CFR 172.101 and 49 CFR 173.21,
(C) It is determined that the predominant hazard of the material containing an organic peroxide is other than that of an organic peroxide, or
(D) According to data on file with the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration in the U.S. Department of Transportation, it has been determined that the material does not present a hazard in transportation.
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of ignitability has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of D001.
§ 261.22 Characteristic of corrosivity.
(a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity if a representative sample of the waste has either of the following properties:
(1) It is aqueous and has a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5, as determined by a pH meter using Method 9040C in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in § 260.11 of this chapter.
(2) It is a liquid and corrodes steel (SAE 1020) at a rate greater than 6.35 mm (0.250 inch) per year at a test temperature of 55 °C (130 °F) as determined by Method 1110A in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, and as incorporated by reference in § 260.11 of this chapter.
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of D002.
§ 261.23 Characteristic of reactivity.
(a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of reactivity if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:
(1) It is normally unstable and readily undergoes violent change without detonating.
(2) It reacts violently with water.
(3) It forms potentially explosive mixtures with water.
(4) When mixed with water, it generates toxic gases, vapors or fumes in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the environment.
(5) It is a cyanide or sulfide bearing waste which, when exposed to pH conditions between 2 and 12.5, can generate toxic gases, vapors or fumes in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the environment.
(6) It is capable of detonation or explosive reaction if it is subjected to a strong initiating source or if heated under confinement.
(7) It is readily capable of detonation or explosive decomposition or reaction at standard temperature and pressure.
(8) It is a forbidden explosive as defined in 49 CFR 173.54, or is a Division 1.1, 1.2 or 1.3 explosive as defined in 49 CFR 173.50 and 173.53.
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of reactivity has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of D003.
§ 261.24 Toxicity characteristic.
(a) A solid waste (except manufactured gas plant waste) exhibits the characteristic of toxicity if, using the Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure, test Method 1311 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in § 260.11 of this chapter, the extract from a representative sample of the waste contains any of the contaminants listed in table 1 at the concentration equal to or greater than the respective value given in that table. Where the waste contains less than 0.5 percent filterable solids, the waste itself, after filtering using the methodology outlined in Method 1311, is considered to be the extract for the purpose of this section.
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of toxicity has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number specified in Table 1 which corresponds to the toxic contaminant causing it to be hazardous.
EPA HW No. 1 | Contaminant | CAS No. 2 | Regulatory Level (mg/L) |
---|---|---|---|
D004 | Arsenic | 7440-38-2 | 5.0 |
D005 | Barium | 7440-39-3 | 100.0 |
D018 | Benzene | 71-43-2 | 0.5 |
D006 | Cadmium | 7440-43-9 | 1.0 |
D019 | Carbon tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | 0.5 |
D020 | Chlordane | 57-74-9 | 0.03 |
D021 | Chlorobenzene | 108-90-7 | 100.0 |
D022 | Chloroform | 67-66-3 | 6.0 |
D007 | Chromium | 7440-47-3 | 5.0 |
D023 | o-Cresol | 95-48-7 | 4 200.0 |
D024 | m-Cresol | 108-39-4 | 4 200.0 |
D025 | p-Cresol | 106-44-5 | 4 200.0 |
D026 | Cresol | 4 200.0 | |
D016 | 2,4-D | 94-75-7 | 10.0 |
D027 | 1,4-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | 7.5 |
D028 | 1,2-Dichloroethane | 107-06-2 | 0.5 |
D029 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene | 75-35-4 | 0.7 |
D030 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | 3 0.13 |
D012 | Endrin | 72-20-8 | 0.02 |
D031 | Heptachlor (and its epoxide) | 76-44-8 | 0.008 |
D032 | Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | 3 0.13 |
D033 | Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 0.5 |
D034 | Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | 3.0 |
D008 | Lead | 7439-92-1 | 5.0 |
D013 | Lindane | 58-89-9 | 0.4 |
D009 | Mercury | 7439-97-6 | 0.2 |
D014 | Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | 10.0 |
D035 | Methyl ethyl ketone | 78-93-3 | 200.0 |
D036 | Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | 2.0 |
D037 | Pentachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | 100.0 |
D038 | Pyridine | 110-86-1 | 3 5.0 |
D010 | Selenium | 7782-49-2 | 1.0 |
D011 | Silver | 7440-22-4 | 5.0 |
D039 | Tetrachloroethylene | 127-18-4 | 0.7 |
D015 | Toxaphene | 8001-35-2 | 0.5 |
D040 | Trichloroethylene | 79-01-6 | 0.5 |
D041 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | 400.0 |
D042 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | 2.0 |
D017 | 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) | 93-72-1 | 1.0 |
D043 | Vinyl chloride | 75-01-4 | 0.2 |
1 Hazardous waste number.
2 Chemical abstracts service number.
3 Quantitation limit is greater than the calculated regulatory level. The quantitation limit therefore becomes the regulatory level.
4 If o-, m-, and p-Cresol concentrations cannot be differentiated, the total cresol (D026) concentration is used. The regulatory level of total cresol is 200 mg/l.
Subpart D—Lists of Hazardous Wastes
§ 261.30 General.
(a) A solid waste is a hazardous waste if it is listed in this subpart, unless it has been excluded from this list under §§ 260.20 and 260.22.
(b) The Administrator will indicate his basis for listing the classes or types of wastes listed in this subpart by employing one or more of the following Hazard Codes:
Ignitable Waste | (I) |
Corrosive Waste | (C) |
Reactive Waste | (R) |
Toxicity Characteristic Waste | (E) |
Acute Hazardous Waste | (H) |
Toxic Waste | (T) |
(c) Each hazardous waste listed in this subpart is assigned an EPA Hazardous Waste Number which precedes the name of the waste. This number must be used in complying with the notification requirements of Section 3010 of the Act and certain recordkeeping and reporting requirements under parts 262 through 265, 267, 268, and 270 of this chapter.
(d) The following hazardous wastes listed in § 261.31 are subject to the generator category limits for acutely hazardous wastes established in table 1 of § 262.13 of this subchapter: EPA Hazardous Wastes Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 and F027.
§ 261.31 Hazardous wastes from non-specific sources.
(a) The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from non-specific sources unless they are excluded under §§ 260.20 and 260.22 and listed in appendix IX.
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
---|---|---|
Generic: | ||
F001 | The following spent halogenated solvents used in degreasing: Tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene, methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, and chlorinated fluorocarbons; all spent solvent mixtures/blends used in degreasing containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F002, F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (T) |
F002 | The following spent halogenated solvents: Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, ortho-dichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane, and 1,1,2-trichloroethane; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those listed in F001, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (T) |
F003 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Xylene, acetone, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl isobutyl ketone, n-butyl alcohol, cyclohexanone, and methanol; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, only the above spent non-halogenated solvents; and all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents, and, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of those solvents listed in F001, F002, F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (I)* |
F004 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Cresols and cresylic acid, and nitrobenzene; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (T) |
F005 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethanol, and 2-nitropropane; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F004; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (I,T) |
F006 | Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from the following processes: (1) Sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) tin plating on carbon steel; (3) zinc plating (segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-aluminum plating on carbon steel; (5) cleaning/stripping associated with tin, zinc and aluminum plating on carbon steel; and (6) chemical etching and milling of aluminum | (T) |
F007 | Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations | (R, T) |
F008 | Plating bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (R, T) |
F009 | Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (R, T) |
F010 | Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (R, T) |
F011 | Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat treating operations | (R, T) |
F012 | Quenching waste water treatment sludges from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (T) |
F019 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum except from zirconium phosphating in aluminum can washing when such phosphating is an exclusive conversion coating process. Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a zinc phosphating process will not be subject to this listing at the point of generation if the wastes are not placed outside on the land prior to shipment to a landfill for disposal and are either: disposed in a Subtitle D municipal or industrial landfill unit that is equipped with a single clay liner and is permitted, licensed or otherwise authorized by the state; or disposed in a landfill unit subject to, or otherwise meeting, the landfill requirements in § 258.40, § 264.301 or § 265.301. For the purposes of this listing, motor vehicle manufacturing is defined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section and (b)(4)(ii) of this section describes the recordkeeping requirements for motor vehicle manufacturing facilities | (T) |
F020 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- or tetrachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce their pesticide derivatives. (This listing does not include wastes from the production of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.) | (H) |
F021 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of pentachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce its derivatives | (H) |
F022 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions | (H) |
F023 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- and tetrachlorophenols. (This listing does not include wastes from equipment used only for the production or use of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.) | (H) |
F024 | Process wastes, including but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor clean-out wastes, from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution. (This listing does not include wastewaters, wastewater treatment sludges, spent catalysts, and wastes listed in § 261.31 or § 261.32.) | (T) |
F025 | Condensed light ends, spent filters and filter aids, and spent desiccant wastes from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons, by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution | (T) |
F026 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzene under alkaline conditions | (H) |
F027 | Discarded unused formulations containing tri-, tetra-, or pentachlorophenol or discarded unused formulations containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does not include formulations containing Hexachlorophene sythesized from prepurified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.) | (H) |
F028 | Residues resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027 | (T) |
F032 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that currently use or have previously used chlorophenolic formulations (except potentially cross-contaminated wastes that have had the F032 waste code deleted in accordance with § 261.35 of this chapter or potentially cross-contaminated wastes that are otherwise currently regulated as hazardous wastes (i.e., F034 or F035), and where the generator does not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic formulations). This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
F034 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use creosote formulations. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
F035 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use inorganic preservatives containing arsenic or chromium. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
F037 | Petroleum refinery primary oil/water/solids separation sludge—Any sludge generated from the gravitational separation of oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment of process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such sludges include, but are not limited to, those generated in oil/water/solids separators; tanks and impoundments; ditches and other conveyances; sumps; and stormwater units receiving dry weather flow. Sludge generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in § 261.31(b)(2) (including sludges generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and K051 wastes are not included in this listing. This listing does include residuals generated from processing or recycling oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials excluded under § 261.4(a)(12)(i), if those residuals are to be disposed of | (T) |
F038 | Petroleum refinery secondary (emulsified) oil/water/solids separation sludge—Any sludge and/or float generated from the physical and/or chemical separation of oil/water/solids in process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such wastes include, but are not limited to, all sludges and floats generated in: induced air flotation (IAF) units, tanks and impoundments, and all sludges generated in DAF units. Sludges generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges and floats generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in § 261.31(b)(2) (including sludges and floats generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and F037, K048, and K051 wastes are not included in this listing | (T) |
F039 | Leachate (liquids that have percolated through land disposed wastes) resulting from the disposal of more than one restricted waste classified as hazardous under subpart D of this part. (Leachate resulting from the disposal of one or more of the following EPA Hazardous Wastes and no other Hazardous Wastes retains its EPA Hazardous Waste Number(s): F020, F021, F022, F026, F027, and/or F028.) | (T) |
*(I,T) should be used to specify mixtures that are ignitable and contain toxic constituents.
(b) Listing Specific Definitions:
(1) For the purposes of the F037 and F038 listings, oil/water/solids is defined as oil and/or water and/or solids.
(2)(i) For the purposes of the F037 and F038 listings, aggressive biological treatment units are defined as units which employ one of the following four treatment methods: activated sludge; trickling filter; rotating biological contactor for the continuous accelerated biological oxidation of wastewaters; or high-rate aeration. High-rate aeration is a system of surface impoundments or tanks, in which intense mechanical aeration is used to completely mix the wastes, enhance biological activity, and (A) the units employ a minimum of 6 hp per million gallons of treatment volume; and either (B) the hydraulic retention time of the unit is no longer than 5 days; or (C) the hydraulic retention time is no longer than 30 days and the unit does not generate a sludge that is a hazardous waste by the Toxicity Characteristic.
(ii) Generators and treatment, storage and disposal facilities have the burden of proving that their sludges are exempt from listing as F037 and F038 wastes under this definition. Generators and treatment, storage and disposal facilities must maintain, in their operating or other onsite records, documents and data sufficient to prove that: (A) the unit is an aggressive biological treatment unit as defined in this subsection; and (B) the sludges sought to be exempted from the definitions of F037 and/or F038 were actually generated in the aggressive biological treatment unit.
(3) (i) For the purposes of the F037 listing, sludges are considered to be generated at the moment of deposition in the unit, where deposition is defined as at least a temporary cessation of lateral particle movement.
(ii) For the purposes of the F038 listing, (A) sludges are considered to be generated at the moment of deposition in the unit, where deposition is defined as at least a temporary cessation of lateral particle movement and (B) floats are considered to be generated at the moment they are formed in the top of the unit.
(4) For the purposes of the F019 listing, the following apply to wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a zinc phosphating process.
(i) Motor vehicle manufacturing is defined to include the manufacture of automobiles and light trucks/utility vehicles (including light duty vans, pick-up trucks, minivans, and sport utility vehicles). Facilities must be engaged in manufacturing complete vehicles (body and chassis or unibody) or chassis only.
(ii) Generators must maintain in their on-site records documentation and information sufficient to prove that the wastewater treatment sludges to be exempted from the F019 listing meet the conditions of the listing. These records must include: the volume of waste generated and disposed of off site; documentation showing when the waste volumes were generated and sent off site; the name and address of the receiving facility; and documentation confirming receipt of the waste by the receiving facility. Generators must maintain these documents on site for no less than three years. The retention period for the documentation is automatically extended during the course of any enforcement action or as requested by the Regional Administrator or the state regulatory authority.
§ 261.32 Hazardous wastes from specific sources.
(a)The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from specific sources unless they are excluded under §§ 260.20 and 260.22 and listed in appendix IX.
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
---|---|---|
Wood preservation: K001 | Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
Inorganic pigments: | ||
K002 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments | (T) |
K003 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments | (T) |
K004 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments | (T) |
K005 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments | (T) |
K006 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous and hydrated) | (T) |
K007 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments | (T) |
K008 | Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments | (T) |
Organic chemicals: | ||
K009 | Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K010 | Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K011 | Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K013 | Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K014 | Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the production of acrylonitrile | (T) |
K015 | Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride | (T) |
K016 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride | (T) |
K017 | Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin | (T) |
K018 | Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production | (T) |
K019 | Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production | (T) |
K020 | Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production | (T) |
K021 | Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production | (T) |
K022 | Distillation bottom tars from the production of phenol/acetone from cumene | (T) |
K023 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K024 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K025 | Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene | (T) |
K026 | Stripping still tails from the production of methy ethyl pyridines | (T) |
K027 | Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene diisocyanate production | (R, T) |
K028 | Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K029 | Waste from the product steam stripper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K030 | Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene | (T) |
K083 | Distillation bottoms from aniline production | (T) |
K085 | Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
K093 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K094 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K095 | Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K096 | Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K103 | Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline | (T) |
K104 | Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene/aniline production | (T) |
K105 | Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
K107 | Column bottoms from product separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (C,T) |
K108 | Condensed column overheads from product separation and condensed reactor vent gases from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (I,T) |
K109 | Spent filter cartridges from product purification from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (T) |
K110 | Condensed column overheads from intermediate separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (T) |
K111 | Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene | (C,T) |
K112 | Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K113 | Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K114 | Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K115 | Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K116 | Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of toluenediamine | (T) |
K117 | Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K118 | Spent adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K136 | Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K149 | Distillation bottoms from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups, (This waste does not include still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.) | (T) |
K150 | Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid recovery processes associated with the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups | (T) |
K151 | Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding neutralization and biological sludges, generated during the treatment of wastewaters from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups | (T) |
K156 | Organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.) | (T) |
K157 | Wastewaters (including scrubber waters, condenser waters, washwaters, and separation waters) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.) | (T) |
K158 | Bag house dusts and filter/separation solids from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.) | (T) |
K159 | Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes | (T) |
K161 | Purification solids (including filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids), bag house dust and floor sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamate acids and their salts. (This listing does not include K125 or K126.) | (R,T) |
K174 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer (including sludges that result from commingled ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer wastewater and other wastewater), unless the sludges meet the following conditions: (i) they are disposed of in a subtitle C or non-hazardous landfill licensed or permitted by the state or federal government; (ii) they are not otherwise placed on the land prior to final disposal; and (iii) the generator maintains documentation demonstrating that the waste was either disposed of in an on-site landfill or consigned to a transporter or disposal facility that provided a written commitment to dispose of the waste in an off-site landfill. Respondents in any action brought to enforce the requirements of subtitle C must, upon a showing by the government that the respondent managed wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer or ethylene dichloride, demonstrate that they meet the terms of the exclusion set forth above. In doing so, they must provide appropriate documentation (e.g., contracts between the generator and the landfill owner/operator, invoices documenting delivery of waste to landfill, etc.) that the terms of the exclusion were met | (T) |
K175 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer using mercuric chloride catalyst in an acetylene-based process | (T) |
K181 | Nonwastewaters from the production of dyes and/or pigments (including nonwastewaters commingled at the point of generation with nonwastewaters from other processes) that, at the point of generation, contain mass loadings of any of the constituents identified in paragraph (c) of this section that are equal to or greater than the corresponding paragraph (c) levels, as determined on a calendar year basis. These wastes will not be hazardous if the nonwastewaters are: (i) disposed in a Subtitle D landfill unit subject to the design criteria in § 258.40, (ii) disposed in a Subtitle C landfill unit subject to either § 264.301 or § 265.301, (iii) disposed in other Subtitle D landfill units that meet the design criteria in § 258.40, § 264.301, or § 265.301, or (iv) treated in a combustion unit that is permitted under Subtitle C, or an onsite combustion unit that is permitted under the Clean Air Act. For the purposes of this listing, dyes and/or pigments production is defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Paragraph (d) of this section describes the process for demonstrating that a facility’s nonwastewaters are not K181. This listing does not apply to wastes that are otherwise identified as hazardous under §§ 261.21-261.24 and 261.31-261.33 at the point of generation. Also, the listing does not apply to wastes generated before any annual mass loading limit is met | (T) |
Inorganic chemicals: | ||
K071 | Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not used | (T) |
K073 | Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite anodes in chlorine production | (T) |
K106 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production | (T) |
K176 | Baghouse filters from the production of antimony oxide, including filters from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide) | (E) |
K177 | Slag from the production of antimony oxide that is speculatively accumulated or disposed, including slag from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide) | (T) |
K178 | Residues from manufacturing and manufacturing-site storage of ferric chloride from acids formed during the production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-ilmenite process | (T) |
Pesticides: | ||
K031 | By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid | (T) |
K032 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane | (T) |
K033 | Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane | (T) |
K034 | Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane | (T) |
K035 | Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the production of creosote | (T) |
K036 | Still bottoms from toluene reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton | (T) |
K037 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of disulfoton | (T) |
K038 | Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production | (T) |
K039 | Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate | (T) |
K040 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate | (T) |
K041 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of toxaphene | (T) |
K042 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of 2,4,5-T | (T) |
K043 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D | (T) |
K097 | Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane | (T) |
K098 | Untreated process wastewater from the production of toxaphene | (T) |
K099 | Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D | (T) |
K123 | Process wastewater (including supernates, filtrates, and washwaters) from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt | (T) |
K124 | Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts | (C, T) |
K125 | Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts | (T) |
K126 | Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and packaging operations from the production or formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts | (T) |
K131 | Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the production of methyl bromide | (C, T) |
K132 | Spent absorbent and wastewater separator solids from the production of methyl bromide | (T) |
Explosives: | ||
K044 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing and processing of explosives | (R) |
K045 | Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives | (R) |
K046 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of lead-based initiating compounds | (T) |
K047 | Pink/red water from TNT operations | (R) |
Petroleum refining: | ||
K048 | Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K049 | Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K050 | Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K051 | API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K052 | Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K169 | Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations | (T) |
K170 | Clarified slurry oil tank sediment and/or in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining operations | (T) |
K171 | Spent Hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert support media) | (I,T) |
K172 | Spent Hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert support media) | (I,T) |
Iron and steel: | ||
K061 | Emission control dust/sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces | (T) |
K062 | Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of facilities within the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332) | (C,T) |
Primary aluminum: | ||
K088 | Spent potliners from primary aluminum reduction | (T) |
Secondary lead: | ||
K069 | Emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting. ( | (T) |
K100 | Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting | (T) |
Veterinary pharmaceuticals: | ||
K084 | Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds | (T) |
K101 | Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds | (T) |
K102 | Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds | (T) |
Ink formulation: | ||
K086 | Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, driers, soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium and lead | (T) |
Coking: | ||
K060 | Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations | (T) |
K087 | Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations | (T) |
K141 | Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including, but not limited to, collecting sump residues from the production of coke from coal or the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. This listing does not include K087 (decanter tank tar sludges from coking operations) | (T) |
K142 | Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K143 | Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including, but not limited to, those generated in stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K144 | Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining, including, but not limited to, intercepting or contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K145 | Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery operations from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K147 | Tar storage tank residues from coal tar refining | (T) |
K148 | Residues from coal tar distillation, including but not limited to, still bottoms | (T) |
(b) Listing Specific Definitions: (1) For the purposes of the K181 listing, dyes and/or pigments production is defined to include manufacture of the following product classes: dyes, pigments, or FDA certified colors that are classified as azo, triarylmethane, perylene or anthraquinone classes. Azo products include azo, monoazo, diazo, triazo, polyazo, azoic, benzidine, and pyrazolone products. Triarylmethane products include both triarylmethane and triphenylmethane products. Wastes that are not generated at a dyes and/or pigments manufacturing site, such as wastes from the offsite use, formulation, and packaging of dyes and/or pigments, are not included in the K181 listing.
(c) K181 Listing Levels. Nonwastewaters containing constituents in amounts equal to or exceeding the following levels during any calendar year are subject to the K181 listing, unless the conditions in the K181 listing are met.
Constituent | Chemical abstracts No. | Mass levels (kg/yr) |
---|---|---|
Aniline | 62-53-3 | 9,300 |
o-Anisidine | 90-04-0 | 110 |
4-Chloroaniline | 106-47-8 | 4,800 |
p-Cresidine | 120-71-8 | 660 |
2,4-Dimethylaniline | 95-68-1 | 100 |
1,2-Phenylenediamine | 95-54-5 | 710 |
1,3-Phenylenediamine | 108-45-2 | 1,200 |
(d) Procedures for demonstrating that dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters are not K181. The procedures described in paragraphs (d)(1)-(d)(3) and (d)(5) of this section establish when nonwastewaters from the production of dyes/pigments would not be hazardous (these procedures apply to wastes that are not disposed in landfill units or treated in combustion units as specified in paragraph (a) of this section). If the nonwastewaters are disposed in landfill units or treated in combustion units as described in paragraph (a) of this section, then the nonwastewaters are not hazardous. In order to demonstrate that it is meeting the landfill disposal or combustion conditions contained in the K181 listing description, the generator must maintain documentation as described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
(1) Determination based on no K181 constituents. Generators that have knowledge (e.g., knowledge of constituents in wastes based on prior sampling and analysis data and/or information about raw materials used, production processes used, and reaction and degradation products formed) that their wastes contain none of the K181 constituents (see paragraph (c) of this section) can use their knowledge to determine that their waste is not K181. The generator must document the basis for all such determinations on an annual basis and keep each annual documentation for three years.
(2) Determination for generated quantities of 1,000 MT/yr or less for wastes that contain K181 constituents. If the total annual quantity of dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters generated is 1,000 metric tons or less, the generator can use knowledge of the wastes (e.g., knowledge of constituents in wastes based on prior analytical data and/or information about raw materials used, production processes used, and reaction and degradation products formed) to conclude that annual mass loadings for the K181 constituents are below the listing levels of paragraph (c) of this section. To make this determination, the generator must:
(i) Each year document the basis for determining that the annual quantity of nonwastewaters expected to be generated will be less than 1,000 metric tons.
(ii) Track the actual quantity of nonwastewaters generated from January 1 through December 31 of each year. If, at any time within the year, the actual waste quantity exceeds 1,000 metric tons, the generator must comply with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the remainder of the year.
(iii) Keep a running total of the K181 constituent mass loadings over the course of the calendar year.
(iv) Keep the following records on site for the three most recent calendar years in which the hazardous waste determinations are made:
(A) The quantity of dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters generated.
(B) The relevant process information used.
(C) The calculations performed to determine annual total mass loadings for each K181 constituent in the nonwastewaters during the year.
(3) Determination for generated quantities greater than 1,000 MT/yr for wastes that contain K181 constituents. If the total annual quantity of dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters generated is greater than 1,000 metric tons, the generator must perform all of the steps described in paragraphs ((d)(3)(i)-(d)(3)(xi) of this section) in order to make a determination that its waste is not K181.
(i) Determine which K181 constituents (see paragraph (c) of this section) are reasonably expected to be present in the wastes based on knowledge of the wastes (e.g., based on prior sampling and analysis data and/or information about raw materials used, production processes used, and reaction and degradation products formed).
(ii) If 1,2-phenylenediamine is present in the wastes, the generator can use either knowledge or sampling and analysis procedures to determine the level of this constituent in the wastes. For determinations based on use of knowledge, the generator must comply with the procedures for using knowledge described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and keep the records described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section. For determinations based on sampling and analysis, the generator must comply with the sampling and analysis and recordkeeping requirements described below in this section.
(iii) Develop a waste sampling and analysis plan (or modify an existing plan) to collect and analyze representative waste samples for the K181 constituents reasonably expected to be present in the wastes. At a minimum, the plan must include:
(A) A discussion of the number of samples needed to characterize the wastes fully;
(B) The planned sample collection method to obtain representative waste samples;
(C) A discussion of how the sampling plan accounts for potential temporal and spatial variability of the wastes.
(D) A detailed description of the test methods to be used, including sample preparation, clean up (if necessary), and determinative methods.
(iv) Collect and analyze samples in accordance with the waste sampling and analysis plan.
(A) The sampling and analysis must be unbiased, precise, and representative of the wastes.
(B) The analytical measurements must be sufficiently sensitive, accurate and precise to support any claim that the constituent mass loadings are below the listing levels of paragraph (c) of this section.
(v) Record the analytical results.
(vi) Record the waste quantity represented by the sampling and analysis results.
(vii) Calculate constituent-specific mass loadings (product of concentrations and waste quantity).
(viii) Keep a running total of the K181 constituent mass loadings over the course of the calendar year.
(ix) Determine whether the mass of any of the K181 constituents listed in paragraph (c) of this section generated between January 1 and December 31 of any year is below the K181 listing levels.
(x) Keep the following records on site for the three most recent calendar years in which the hazardous waste determinations are made:
(A) The sampling and analysis plan.
(B) The sampling and analysis results (including QA/QC data)
(C) The quantity of dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters generated.
(D) The calculations performed to determine annual mass loadings.
(xi) Nonhazardous waste determinations must be conducted annually to verify that the wastes remain nonhazardous.
(A) The annual testing requirements are suspended after three consecutive successful annual demonstrations that the wastes are nonhazardous. The generator can then use knowledge of the wastes to support subsequent annual determinations.
(B) The annual testing requirements are reinstated if the manufacturing or waste treatment processes generating the wastes are significantly altered, resulting in an increase of the potential for the wastes to exceed the listing levels.
(C) If the annual testing requirements are suspended, the generator must keep records of the process knowledge information used to support a nonhazardous determination. If testing is reinstated, a description of the process change must be retained.
(4) Recordkeeping for the landfill disposal and combustion exemptions. For the purposes of meeting the landfill disposal and combustion condition set out in the K181 listing description, the generator must maintain on site for three years documentation demonstrating that each shipment of waste was received by a landfill unit that is subject to or meets the landfill design standards set out in the listing description, or was treated in combustion units as specified in the listing description.
(5) Waste holding and handling. During the interim period, from the point of generation to completion of the hazardous waste determination, the generator is responsible for storing the wastes appropriately. If the wastes are determined to be hazardous and the generator has not complied with the subtitle C requirements during the interim period, the generator could be subject to an enforcement action for improper management.
§ 261.33 Discarded commercial chemical products, off-specification species, container residues, and spill residues thereof.
The following materials or items are hazardous wastes if and when they are discarded or intended to be discarded as described in § 261.2(a)(2)(i), when they are mixed with waste oil or used oil or other material and applied to the land for dust suppression or road treatment, when they are otherwise applied to the land in lieu of their original intended use or when they are contained in products that are applied to the land in lieu of their original intended use, or when, in lieu of their original intended use, they are produced for use as (or as a component of) a fuel, distributed for use as a fuel, or burned as a fuel.
(a) Any commercial chemical product, or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section.
(b) Any off-specification commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate which, if it met specifications, would have the generic name listed in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section.
(c) Any residue remaining in a container or in an inner liner removed from a container that has held any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in paragraphs (e) or (f) of this section, unless the container is empty as defined in § 261.7(b) or § 266.507 of this chapter.
[Comment: Unless the residue is being beneficially used or reused, or legitimately recycled or reclaimed; or being accumulated, stored, transported or treated prior to such use, re-use, recycling or reclamation, EPA considers the residue to be intended for discard, and thus, a hazardous waste. An example of a legitimate re-use of the residue would be where the residue remains in the container and the container is used to hold the same commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate it previously held. An example of the discard of the residue would be where the drum is sent to a drum reconditioner who reconditions the drum but discards the
(d) Any residue or contaminated soil, water or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill into or on any land or water of any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, or any residue or contaminated soil, water or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill, into or on any land or water, of any off-specification chemical product and manufacturing chemical intermediate which, if it met specifications, would have the generic name listed in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section.
(e) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates or off-specification commercial chemical products or manufacturing chemical intermediates referred to in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, are identified as acute hazardous wastes (H).
These wastes and their corresponding EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers are:
Hazardous waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
---|---|---|
P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P002 | 591-08-2 | Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)- |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
P002 | 591-08-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Aldicarb sulfone. |
P004 | 309-00-2 | Aldrin |
P005 | 107-18-6 | Allyl alcohol |
P006 | 20859-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Aminopyridine |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium picrate (R) |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium |
P010 | 7778-39-4 | Arsenic acid H |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl- |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Aziridine |
P067 | 75-55-8 | Aziridine, 2-methyl- |
P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
P024 | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
P042 | 51-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- |
P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate. |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1). |
P001 | 1 81-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium powder |
P017 | 598-31-2 | Bromoacetone |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Brucine |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN) |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)- thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- 7-benzofuranyl ester. |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]- 5-methyl-1H- pyrazol-3-yl ester. |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1- (1-methylethyl)-1H- pyrazol-5-yl ester. |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester. |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | Carbofuran. |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbosulfan. |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
P024 | 106-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea |
P027 | 542-76-7 | 3-Chloropropionitrile |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
P202 | 64-00-6 | m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate. |
P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Cyanogen |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl |
P034 | 131-89-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Dichloromethyl ether |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Dichlorophenylarsine |
P037 | 60-57-1 | Dieldrin |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Diethylarsine |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
P040 | 297-97-2 | O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) |
P004 | 309-00-2 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa- chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)- |
P060 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa- chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,8abeta)- |
P037 | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta, 7aalpha)- |
P051 | 1 72-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Dimethoate |
P046 | 122-09-8 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Dimetilan. |
P047 | 1 534-52-1 | 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, & salts |
P048 | 51-28-5 | 2,4-Dinitrophenol |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Dinoseb |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Disulfoton |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Dithiobiuret |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O- [(methylamino)- carbonyl]oxime. |
P050 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
P088 | 145-73-3 | Endothall |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin, & metabolites |
P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Ethanedinitrile |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester. |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethyleneimine |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Famphur |
P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluoroacetamide |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Formetanate hydrochloride. |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Formparanate. |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Fulminic acid, mercury(2 + ) salt (R,T) |
P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexaethyl tetraphosphate |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Hydrazinecarbothioamide |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrocyanic acid |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrogen cyanide |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
P060 | 465-73-6 | Isodrin |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Isolan. |
P202 | 64-00-6 | 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate. |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-, |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate. |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Mercury fulminate (R,T) |
P082 | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methane, isocyanato- |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Methane, oxybis[chloro- |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Methane, tetranitro- (R) |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride. |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- |
P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10- hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
P059 | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro- 3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Methiocarb. |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methyl isocyanate |
P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methyllactonitrile |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Metolcarb. |
P128 | 315-8-4 | Mexacarbate. |
P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO) |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN) |
P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Nicotine, & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies). |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P081 | 55-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
P082 | 62-75-9 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium oxide OsO |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium tetroxide |
P088 | 145-73-3 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Oxamyl. |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Parathion |
P034 | 131-89-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
P047 | 1 534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-, & salts |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
P128 | 315-18-4 | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester). |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate |
P202 | 64-00-6 | Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate. |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate. |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phorate |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P040 | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Physostigmine. |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Physostigmine salicylate. |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide K(CN) |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Promecarb |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime. |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
P027 | 542-76-7 | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- |
P069 | 75-86-5 | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate (R) |
P017 | 598-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- |
P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargyl alcohol |
P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
P005 | 107-18-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Propylenimine |
P102 | 107-19-7 | 2-Propyn-1-ol |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Pyridinamine |
P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-, & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies). |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)-. |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Selenious acid, dithallium(1 + ) salt |
P103 | 630-10-4 | Selenourea |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) |
P105 | 26628-22-8 | Sodium azide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) |
P108 | 1 57-24-9 | Strychnidin-10-one, & salts |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
P108 | 1 57-24-9 | Strychnine, & salts |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Sulfuric acid, dithallium(1 + ) salt |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl lead |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethyl pyrophosphate |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetranitromethane (R) |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium oxide Tl |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Thallium(I) selenite |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Thallium(I) sulfate |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiofanox |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Thiophenol |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Thiosemicarbazide |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, phenyl- |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | Tirpate. |
P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethanethiol |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium oxide V |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium pentoxide |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
P001 | 1 81-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-, |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN) |
P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Ziram. |
P001 | 1 81-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P001 | 1 81-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P002 | 591-08-2 | Acetamide, -(aminothioxomethyl)- |
P002 | 591-08-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
P004 | 309-00-2 | Aldrin |
P004 | 309-00-2 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)- |
P005 | 107-18-6 | Allyl alcohol |
P005 | 107-18-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
P006 | 20859-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Aminopyridine |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Pyridinamine |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium picrate (R) |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
P010 | 7778-39-4 | Arsenic acid H |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Thiophenol |
P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium powder |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Dichloromethyl ether |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Methane, oxybis[chloro- |
P017 | 598-31-2 | Bromoacetone |
P017 | 598-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Brucine |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Dinoseb |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN) |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
P024 | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
P024 | 106-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
P027 | 542-76-7 | 3-Chloropropionitrile |
P027 | 542-76-7 | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Cyanogen |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Ethanedinitrile |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl |
P034 | 131-89-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
P034 | 131-89-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Dichlorophenylarsine |
P037 | 60-57-1 | Dieldrin |
P037 | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta, 7aalpha)- |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl- |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Diethylarsine |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Disulfoton |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester |
P040 | 297-97-2 | O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
P040 | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
P042 | 51-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- |
P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Dimethoate |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methyl amino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiofanox |
P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
P046 | 122-09-8 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine |
P047 | 1 534-52-1 | 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, & salts |
P047 | 1 534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-, & salts |
P048 | 51-28-5 | 2,4-Dinitrophenol |
P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Dithiobiuret |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H |
P050 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
P051 | 1 72-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin, & metabolites |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Aziridine |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethyleneimine |
P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluoroacetamide |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt |
P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
P059 | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
P060 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,8abeta)- |
P060 | 465-73-6 | Isodrin |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexaethyl tetraphosphate |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrocyanic acid |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrogen cyanide |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methane, isocyanato- |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methyl isocyanate |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Fulminic acid, mercury(2 + ) salt (R,T) |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Mercury fulminate (R,T) |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
P067 | 75-55-8 | Aziridine, 2-methyl- |
P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Propylenimine |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methyllactonitrile |
P069 | 75-86-5 | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO) |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN) |
P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Nicotine, & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies). |
P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-, & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies). |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P081 | 55-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate (R) |
P082 | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, -methyl-N-nitroso- |
P082 | 62-75-9 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, -methyl-N-nitroso- |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium oxide OsO |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium tetroxide |
P088 | 145-73-3 | Endothall |
P088 | 145-73-3 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Parathion |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, phenyl- |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phorate |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Famphur |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide K(CN) |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargyl alcohol |
P102 | 107-19-7 | 2-Propyn-1-ol |
P103 | 630-10-4 | Selenourea |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) |
P105 | 26628-22-8 | Sodium azide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) |
P108 | 1 157-24-9 | Strychnidin-10-one, & salts |
P108 | 1 157-24-9 | Strychnine, & salts |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl lead |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethyl pyrophosphate |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Methane, tetranitro-(R) |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetranitromethane (R) |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium oxide Tl |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Selenious acid, dithallium(1 + ) salt |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Tetraethyl lead |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Thiosemicarbazide |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethanethiol |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium oxide V |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium pentoxide |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN) |
P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn |
P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate. |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | Carbofuran |
P128 | 315-8-4 | Mexacarbate |
P128 | 315-18-4 | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester) |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxime. |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | Tirpate |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1) |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Physostigmine salicylate |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)-thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbosulfan |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Metolcarb |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Dimetilan |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Isolan |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Ethanimidthioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Oxamyl |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-, |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Formparanate |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Formetanate hydrochloride |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-monohydrochloride |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Methiocarb |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Promecarb |
P202 | 64-00-6 | m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate |
P202 | 64-00-6 | 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate |
P202 | 64-00-6 | Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Aldicarb sulfone |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Physostigmine |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)- |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-, |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Ziram |
1 CAS Number given for parent compound only.
(f) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates, or off-specification commercial chemical products referred to in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, are identified as toxic wastes (T) unless otherwise designated.
These wastes and their corresponding EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers are:
Hazardous waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
---|---|---|
U394 | 30558-43-1 | A2213. |
U001 | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
U005 | 53-96-3 | Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- |
U240 | 1 94-75-7 | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts & esters |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid ethyl ester (I) |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead(2 + ) salt |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Acetic acid, thallium(1 + ) salt |
see F027 | 93-76-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
U002 | 67-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
U003 | 75-05-8 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
U005 | 53-96-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
U006 | 75-36-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
U007 | 79-06-1 | Acrylamide |
U008 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (I) |
U009 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
U011 | 61-82-5 | Amitrole |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Auramine |
U015 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Azirino[2′,3′:3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha, 8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]- |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Barban. |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | Bendiocarb. |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | Bendiocarb phenol. |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Benomyl. |
U157 | 56-49-5 | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
U016 | 225-51-4 | Benz[c]acridine |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- |
U018 | 56-55-3 | Benz[a]anthracene |
U094 | 57-97-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Benzenamine (I,T) |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Benzenamine, 4,4′-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-dimethyl- |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U093 | 60-11-7 | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- |
U328 | 95-53-4 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- |
U353 | 106-49-0 | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- |
U158 | 101-14-4 | Benzenamine, 4,4′-methylenebis[2-chloro- |
U222 | 636-21-5 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U181 | 99-55-8 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
U019 | 71-43-2 | Benzene (I,T) |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester |
U030 | 101-55-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- |
U028 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
U069 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
U088 | 84-66-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
U102 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
U107 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester |
U070 | 95-50-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
U071 | 541-73-1 | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U072 | 106-46-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
U060 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- (R,T) |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I) |
U201 | 108-46-3 | 1,3-Benzenediol |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
U105 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
U106 | 606-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Benzene, pentachloronitro- |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
U207 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
U061 | 50-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4- methoxy- |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- |
U234 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- |
U021 | 92-87-5 | Benzidine |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate. |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, |
U203 | 94-59-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- |
U141 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- |
U090 | 94-58-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Benzo[rst]pentaphene |
U248 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl-butyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U022 | 50-32-8 | Benzo[a]pyrene |
U197 | 106-51-4 | p-Benzoquinone |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzotrichloride (C,R,T) |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 2,2′-Bioxirane |
U021 | 92-87-5 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine |
U073 | 91-94-1 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dichloro- |
U091 | 119-90-4 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethoxy- |
U095 | 119-93-7 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethyl- |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoform |
U030 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
U128 | 87-68-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
U172 | 924-16-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
U031 | 71-36-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
U159 | 78-93-3 | 2-Butanone (I,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | 2-Butanone, peroxide (R,T) |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | 2-Butenal |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T) |
U143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy- 2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy]methyl]- 2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- |
U031 | 71-36-3 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Cacodylic acid |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Calcium chromate |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester. |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester. |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester. |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester |
U178 | 615-53-2 | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester. |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester. |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester. |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester. |
U114 | 1 111-54-6 | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts & esters |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
U279 | 63-25-2 | Carbaryl. |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbendazim. |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | Carbofuran phenol. |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1 + ) salt |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic difluoride |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester (I,T) |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
U036 | 57-74-9 | Chlordane, alpha & gamma isomers |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Chlornaphazin |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Chlorobenzene |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Chlorobenzilate |
U039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
U042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Chloroform |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
U047 | 91-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
U048 | 95-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Chromic acid H |
U050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
U051 | Creosote | |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresol (Cresylic acid) |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Cumene (I) |
U246 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br |
U197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha,5alpha,6beta)- |
U057 | 108-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
U130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- |
U058 | 50-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
U240 | 1 94-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts & esters |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | Daunomycin |
U060 | 72-54-8 | DDD |
U061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Diallate |
U063 | 53-70-3 | Dibenz[a,h]anthracene |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene |
U066 | 96-12-8 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
U069 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
U070 | 95-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
U071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
U072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
U073 | 91-94-1 | 3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T) |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodifluoromethane |
U078 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
U079 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Dichloroethyl ether |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Dichloroisopropyl ether |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Dichloromethoxy ethane |
U081 | 120-83-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
U082 | 87-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I,T) |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethyleneoxide |
U028 | 117-81-7 | Diethylhexyl phthalate |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate. |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N′-Diethylhydrazine |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate |
U088 | 84-66-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbesterol |
U090 | 94-58-6 | Dihydrosafrole |
U091 | 119-90-4 | 3,3′-Dimethoxybenzidine |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
U093 | 60-11-7 | p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
U094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene |
U095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3′-Dimethylbenzidine |
U096 | 80-15-9 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
U098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine |
U099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
U101 | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
U102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
U105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
U106 | 606-20-2 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
U107 | 117-84-0 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Dioxane |
U109 | 122-66-7 | 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine |
U110 | 142-84-7 | Dipropylamine (I) |
U111 | 621-64-7 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Epichlorohydrin |
U001 | 75-07-0 | Ethanal (I) |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- |
U174 | 55-18-5 | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U155 | 91-80-5 | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N′-2-pyridinyl-N′-(2-thienylmethyl)- |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Ethane, hexachloro- |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Ethane, 1,1′-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis-(I) |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Ethane, pentachloro- |
U208 | 630-20-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
U209 | 79-34-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Ethanethioamide |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- |
U227 | 79-00-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N′- [thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester. |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | Ethanol, 2,2′-(nitrosoimino)bis- |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Ethanol, 2,2′-oxybis-, dicarbamate. |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Ethene, chloro- |
U042 | 110-75-8 | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- |
U078 | 75-35-4 | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- |
U079 | 156-60-5 | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Ethene, tetrachloro- |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Ethene, trichloro- |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Ethyl acetate (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | Ethyl acrylate (I) |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Ethyl carbamate (urethane) |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethyl ether (I) |
U114 | 1 111-54-6 | Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts & esters |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethylene dibromide |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethylene dichloride |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Ethylene oxide (I,T) |
U116 | 96-45-7 | Ethylenethiourea |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethylidene dichloride |
U118 | 97-63-2 | Ethyl methacrylate |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Ethyl methanesulfonate |
U120 | 206-44-0 | Fluoranthene |
U122 | 50-00-0 | Formaldehyde |
U123 | 64-18-6 | Formic acid (C,T) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furan (I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I) |
U147 | 108-31-6 | 2,5-Furandione |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Furan, tetrahydro-(I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | Furfural (I) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furfuran (I) |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D- |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)- carbonyl]amino]- |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Glycidylaldehyde |
U163 | 70-25-7 | Guanidine, N-methyl-N′-nitro-N-nitroso- |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Hexachlorobenzene |
U128 | 87-68-3 | Hexachlorobutadiene |
U130 | 77-47-4 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Hexachloroethane |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Hexachlorophene |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | Hexachloropropene |
U133 | 302-01-2 | Hydrazine (R,T) |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- |
U098 | 57-14-7 | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- |
U099 | 540-73-8 | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- |
U109 | 122-66-7 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrofluoric acid (C,T) |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrogen fluoride (C,T) |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide H |
U096 | 80-15-9 | Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl- (R) |
U116 | 96-45-7 | 2-Imidazolidinethione |
U137 | 193-39-5 | Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene |
U190 | 85-44-9 | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione |
U140 | 78-83-1 | Isobutyl alcohol (I,T) |
U141 | 120-58-1 | Isosafrole |
U142 | 143-50-0 | Kepone |
U143 | 303-34-4 | Lasiocarpine |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Lead acetate |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Lead phosphate |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead subacetate |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Lindane |
U163 | 70-25-7 | MNNG |
U147 | 108-31-6 | Maleic anhydride |
U148 | 123-33-1 | Maleic hydrazide |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Malononitrile |
U150 | 148-82-3 | Melphalan |
U151 | 7439-97-6 | Mercury |
U152 | 126-98-7 | Methacrylonitrile (I, T) |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Methanamine, N-methyl- (I) |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methane, bromo- |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methane, chloro- (I, T) |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Methane, chloromethoxy- |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methane, dibromo- |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methane, dichloro- |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methane, iodo- |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Methanethiol (I, T) |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Methane, tribromo- |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Methane, trichloro- |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Methane, trichlorofluoro- |
U036 | 57-74-9 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methanol (I) |
U155 | 91-80-5 | Methapyrilene |
U142 | 143-50-0 | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Methoxychlor |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methyl bromide |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methyl chloride (I,T) |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T) |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Methyl chloroform |
U157 | 56-49-5 | 3-Methylcholanthrene |
U158 | 101-14-4 | 4,4′-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methylene bromide |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methylene chloride |
U159 | 78-93-3 | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (I,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T) |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methyl iodide |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
U162 | 80-62-6 | Methyl methacrylate (I,T) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
U164 | 56-04-2 | Methylthiouracil |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Mitomycin C |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- |
U167 | 134-32-7 | 1-Naphthalenamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | 2-Naphthalenamine |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Naphthalenamine, N,N′-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
U165 | 91-20-3 | Naphthalene |
U047 | 91-58-7 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
U236 | 72-57-1 | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3′-[(3,3′- dimethyl[1,1′-biphenyl]-4,4′-diyl)bis(azo)bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy]-, tetrasodium salt |
U279 | 63-25-2 | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate. |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
U167 | 134-32-7 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | beta-Naphthylamine |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Nitric acid, thallium(1 + ) salt |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Nitrobenzene (I,T) |
U170 | 100-02-7 | p-Nitrophenol |
U171 | 79-46-9 | 2-Nitropropane (I,T) |
U172 | 924-16-3 | N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine |
U174 | 55-18-5 | N-Nitrosodiethylamine |
U176 | 759-73-9 | N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea |
U177 | 684-93-5 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea |
U178 | 615-53-2 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane |
U179 | 100-75-4 | N-Nitrosopiperidine |
U180 | 930-55-2 | N-Nitrosopyrrolidine |
U181 | 99-55-8 | 5-Nitro-o-toluidine |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide |
U058 | 50-18-0 | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Oxirane (I,T) |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- |
U182 | 123-63-7 | Paraldehyde |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Pentachlorobenzene |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Pentachloroethane |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Pentachlorophenol |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Pentanol, 4-methyl- |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1,3-Pentadiene (I) |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Phenacetin |
U188 | 108-95-2 | Phenol |
U048 | 95-57-8 | Phenol, 2-chloro- |
U039 | 59-50-7 | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- |
U081 | 120-83-2 | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- |
U082 | 87-65-0 | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Phenol, 4,4′-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- |
U101 | 105-67-9 | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Phenol, methyl- |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate. |
U170 | 100-02-7 | Phenol, 4-nitro- |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Phenol, pentachloro- |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- |
U150 | 148-82-3 | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Phosphoric acid, lead(2 + ) salt (2:3) |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Phosphorus sulfide (R) |
U190 | 85-44-9 | Phthalic anhydride |
U191 | 109-06-8 | 2-Picoline |
U179 | 100-75-4 | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Pronamide |
U194 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (I,T) |
U111 | 621-64-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- |
U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-propyl- (I) |
U066 | 96-12-8 | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Propanedinitrile |
U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-nitro- (I,T) |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Propane, 2,2′-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propane sultone |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) |
U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U002 | 67-64-1 | 2-Propanone (I) |
U007 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- |
U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenitrile |
U152 | 126-98-7 | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
U118 | 97-63-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester |
U162 | 80-62-6 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (I,T) |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Propham. |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Propoxur. |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Prosulfocarb. |
U194 | 107-10-8 | n-Propylamine (I,T) |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propylene dichloride |
U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- |
U196 | 110-86-1 | Pyridine |
U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- |
U237 | 66-75-1 | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2- chloroethyl)amino]- |
U164 | 56-04-2 | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- |
U180 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Reserpine |
U201 | 108-46-3 | Resorcinol |
U203 | 94-59-7 | Safrole |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenious acid |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenium dioxide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide SeS |
U015 | 115-02-6 | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Silvex (2,4,5-TP) |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Streptozotocin |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Sulfur phosphide (R) |
See F027 | 93-76-5 | 2,4,5-T |
U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene |
U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (I) |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Thallium(I) acetate |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Thallium(I) carbonate |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium(I) chloride |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | thallium chloride TlCl |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(I) nitrate |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Thioacetamide |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Thiodicarb. |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (I,T) |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Thiophanate-methyl. |
U219 | 62-56-6 | Thiourea |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thiram |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Toluene diisocyanate (R,T) |
U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine |
U353 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine |
U222 | 636-21-5 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Triallate. |
U011 | 61-82-5 | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine |
U226 | 71-55-6 | 1,1,1-Trichloroethane |
U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Triethylamine. |
U234 | 99-35-4 | 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R,T) |
U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- |
U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate |
U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypan blue |
U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard |
U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U177 | 684-93-5 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride |
U248 | 1 81-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (I) |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester, (3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- |
U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn |
U001 | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
U001 | 75-07-0 | Ethanal (I) |
U002 | 67-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
U002 | 67-64-1 | 2-Propanone (I) |
U003 | 75-05-8 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- |
U005 | 53-96-3 | Acetamide, -9H-fluoren-2-yl- |
U005 | 53-96-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
U006 | 75-36-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
U007 | 79-06-1 | Acrylamide |
U007 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide |
U008 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (I) |
U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (I) |
U009 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenitrile |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Azirino[2′,3′:3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha, 8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]- |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Mitomycin C |
U011 | 61-82-5 | Amitrole |
U011 | 61-82-5 | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Benzenamine (I,T) |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Auramine |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Benzenamine, 4,4′-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-dimethyl- |
U015 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
U015 | 115-02-6 | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) |
U016 | 225-51-4 | Benz[c]acridine |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- |
U018 | 56-55-3 | Benz[a]anthracene |
U019 | 71-43-2 | Benzene (I,T) |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
U021 | 92-87-5 | Benzidine |
U021 | 92-87-5 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine |
U022 | 50-32-8 | Benzo[a]pyrene |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzotrichloride (C,R,T) |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Dichloromethoxy ethane |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Ethane, 1,1′-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Dichloroethyl ether |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Chlornaphazin |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Naphthalenamine, N,N′-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Dichloroisopropyl ether |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Propane, 2,2′-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U028 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
U028 | 117-81-7 | Diethylhexyl phthalate |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methane, bromo- |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methyl bromide |
U030 | 101-55-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
U030 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
U031 | 71-36-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
U031 | 71-36-3 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Calcium chromate |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Chromic acid H |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic difluoride |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
U036 | 57-74-9 | Chlordane, alpha & gamma isomers |
U036 | 57-74-9 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Chlorobenzene |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Chlorobenzilate |
U039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
U039 | 59-50-7 | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Epichlorohydrin |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- |
U042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether |
U042 | 110-75-8 | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Ethene, chloro- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Chloroform |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Methane, trichloro- |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methane, chloro- (I,T) |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methyl chloride (I,T) |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Methane, chloromethoxy- |
U047 | 91-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
U047 | 91-58-7 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
U048 | 95-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
U048 | 95-57-8 | Phenol, 2-chloro- |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
U050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
U051 | Creosote | |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresol (Cresylic acid) |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Phenol, methyl- |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | 2-Butenal |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)-(I) |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Cumene (I) |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro-(I) |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
U057 | 108-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
U058 | 50-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
U058 | 50-18-0 | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | Daunomycin |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- |
U060 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U060 | 72-54-8 | DDD |
U061 | 50-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-di chloro-2-propenyl) ester |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Diallate |
U063 | 53-70-3 | Dibenz[a,h]anthracene |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Benzo[rst]pentaphene |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene |
U066 | 96-12-8 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
U066 | 96-12-8 | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethylene dibromide |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methane, dibromo- |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methylene bromide |
U069 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
U069 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
U070 | 95-50-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
U070 | 95-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
U071 | 541-73-1 | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
U072 | 106-46-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
U072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
U073 | 91-94-1 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dichloro- |
U073 | 91-94-1 | 3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-(I,T) |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T) |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodifluoromethane |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethylidene dichloride |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethylene dichloride |
U078 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
U078 | 75-35-4 | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- |
U079 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
U079 | 156-60-5 | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methane, dichloro- |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methylene chloride |
U081 | 120-83-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
U081 | 120-83-2 | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- |
U082 | 87-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
U082 | 87-65-0 | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propylene dichloride |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 2,2′-Bioxirane |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I,T) |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N′-Diethylhydrazine |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester |
U088 | 84-66-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
U088 | 84-66-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbesterol |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Phenol, 4,4′-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- |
U090 | 94-58-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
U090 | 94-58-6 | Dihydrosafrole |
U091 | 119-90-4 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethoxy- |
U091 | 119-90-4 | 3,3′-Dimethoxybenzidine |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Methanamine, -methyl-(I) |
U093 | 60-11-7 | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- |
U093 | 60-11-7 | p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
U094 | 57-97-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
U094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene |
U095 | 119-93-7 | [1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethyl- |
U095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3′-Dimethylbenzidine |
U096 | 80-15-9 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
U096 | 80-15-9 | Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl-(R) |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
U098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine |
U098 | 57-14-7 | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- |
U099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
U099 | 540-73-8 | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- |
U101 | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
U101 | 105-67-9 | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- |
U102 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
U102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester |
U105 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
U105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
U106 | 606-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
U106 | 606-20-2 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
U107 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester |
U107 | 117-84-0 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethyleneoxide |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Dioxane |
U109 | 122-66-7 | 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine |
U109 | 122-66-7 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- |
U110 | 142-84-7 | Dipropylamine (I) |
U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-propyl-(I) |
U111 | 621-64-7 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
U111 | 621-64-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid ethyl ester (I) |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Ethyl acetate (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | Ethyl acrylate (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
U114 | 1111-54-6 | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts & esters |
U114 | 1111-54-6 | Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts & esters |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Ethylene oxide (I,T) |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Oxirane (I,T) |
U116 | 96-45-7 | Ethylenethiourea |
U116 | 96-45-7 | 2-Imidazolidinethione |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis-(I) |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethyl ether (I) |
U118 | 97-63-2 | Ethyl methacrylate |
U118 | 97-63-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Ethyl methanesulfonate |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
U120 | 206-44-0 | Fluoranthene |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Methane, trichlorofluoro- |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane |
U122 | 50-00-0 | Formaldehyde |
U123 | 64-18-6 | Formic acid (C,T) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furan (I) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furfuran (I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | Furfural (I) |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Glycidylaldehyde |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Hexachlorobenzene |
U128 | 87-68-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
U128 | 87-68-3 | Hexachlorobutadiene |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha,5alpha,6beta)- |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Lindane |
U130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- |
U130 | 77-47-4 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Ethane, hexachloro- |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Hexachloroethane |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Hexachlorophene |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- |
U133 | 302-01-2 | Hydrazine (R,T) |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrofluoric acid (C,T) |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrogen fluoride (C,T) |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide H |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Cacodylic acid |
U137 | 193-39-5 | Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methane, iodo- |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methyl iodide |
U140 | 78-83-1 | Isobutyl alcohol (I,T) |
U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U141 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
U141 | 120-58-1 | Isosafrole |
U142 | 143-50-0 | Kepone |
U142 | 143-50-0 | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- |
U143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- |
U143 | 303-34-4 | Lasiocarpine |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead(2 + ) salt |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Lead acetate |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Lead phosphate |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Phosphoric acid, lead(2 + ) salt (2:3) |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead subacetate |
U147 | 108-31-6 | 2,5-Furandione |
U147 | 108-31-6 | Maleic anhydride |
U148 | 123-33-1 | Maleic hydrazide |
U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Malononitrile |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Propanedinitrile |
U150 | 148-82-3 | Melphalan |
U150 | 148-82-3 | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U151 | 7439-97-6 | Mercury |
U152 | 126-98-7 | Methacrylonitrile (I,T) |
U152 | 126-98-7 | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Methanethiol (I,T) |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (I,T) |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methanol (I) |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
U155 | 91-80-5 | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N′-2-pyridinyl-N′-(2-thienylmethyl)- |
U155 | 91-80-5 | Methapyrilene |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester (I,T) |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T) |
U157 | 56-49-5 | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
U157 | 56-49-5 | 3-Methylcholanthrene |
U158 | 101-14-4 | Benzenamine, 4,4′-methylenebis[2-chloro- |
U158 | 101-14-4 | 4,4′-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
U159 | 78-93-3 | 2-Butanone (I,T) |
U159 | 78-93-3 | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (I,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | 2-Butanone, peroxide (R,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Pentanol, 4-methyl- |
U162 | 80-62-6 | Methyl methacrylate (I,T) |
U162 | 80-62-6 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (I,T) |
U163 | 70-25-7 | Guanidine, -methyl-N’-nitro-N-nitroso- |
U163 | 70-25-7 | MNNG |
U164 | 56-04-2 | Methylthiouracil |
U164 | 56-04-2 | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- |
U165 | 91-20-3 | Naphthalene |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
U167 | 134-32-7 | 1-Naphthalenamine |
U167 | 134-32-7 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | 2-Naphthalenamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | beta-Naphthylamine |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Nitrobenzene (I,T) |
U170 | 100-02-7 | p-Nitrophenol |
U170 | 100-02-7 | Phenol, 4-nitro- |
U171 | 79-46-9 | 2-Nitropropane (I,T) |
U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-nitro- (I,T) |
U172 | 924-16-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
U172 | 924-16-3 | N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | Ethanol, 2,2′-(nitrosoimino)bis- |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine |
U174 | 55-18-5 | Ethanamine, -ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U174 | 55-18-5 | N-Nitrosodiethylamine |
U176 | 759-73-9 | N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea |
U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U177 | 684-93-5 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea |
U177 | 684-93-5 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
U178 | 615-53-2 | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
U178 | 615-53-2 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane |
U179 | 100-75-4 | N-Nitrosopiperidine |
U179 | 100-75-4 | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- |
U180 | 930-55-2 | N-Nitrosopyrrolidine |
U180 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- |
U181 | 99-55-8 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
U181 | 99-55-8 | 5-Nitro-o-toluidine |
U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- |
U182 | 123-63-7 | Paraldehyde |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Pentachlorobenzene |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Ethane, pentachloro- |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Pentachloroethane |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Benzene, pentachloronitro- |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1,3-Pentadiene (I) |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Acetamide, -(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Phenacetin |
U188 | 108-95-2 | Phenol |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Phosphorus sulfide (R) |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Sulfur phosphide (R) |
U190 | 85-44-9 | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione |
U190 | 85-44-9 | Phthalic anhydride |
U191 | 109-06-8 | 2-Picoline |
U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Pronamide |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propane sultone |
U194 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (I,T) |
U194 | 107-10-8 | n-Propylamine (I,T) |
U196 | 110-86-1 | Pyridine |
U197 | 106-51-4 | p-Benzoquinone |
U197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Reserpine |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester,(3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- |
U201 | 108-46-3 | 1,3-Benzenediol |
U201 | 108-46-3 | Resorcinol |
U203 | 94-59-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- |
U203 | 94-59-7 | Safrole |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenious acid |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenium dioxide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide SeS |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D- |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)-carbonyl]amino]- |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Streptozotocin |
U207 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene |
U208 | 630-20-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U209 | 79-34-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Ethene, tetrachloro- |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Furan, tetrahydro-(I) |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (I) |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Acetic acid, thallium(1 + ) salt |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Thallium(I) acetate |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1 + ) salt |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Thallium(I) carbonate |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium(I) chloride |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium chloride TlCl |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Nitric acid, thallium(1 + ) salt |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(I) nitrate |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Ethanethioamide |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Thioacetamide |
U219 | 62-56-6 | Thiourea |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine |
U222 | 636-21-5 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U222 | 636-21-5 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- (R,T) |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Toluene diisocyanate (R,T) |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoform |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Methane, tribromo- |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Methyl chloroform |
U226 | 71-55-6 | 1,1,1-Trichloroethane |
U227 | 79-00-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- |
U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Ethene, trichloro- |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene |
U234 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- |
U234 | 99-35-4 | 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R,T) |
U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) |
U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate |
U236 | 72-57-1 | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3′-[(3,3′-dimethyl[1,1′-biphenyl]-4,4′-diyl)bis(azo)bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy]-, tetrasodium salt |
U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypan blue |
U237 | 66-75-1 | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Ethyl carbamate (urethane) |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I,T) |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (I) |
U240 | 1 94-75-7 | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts & esters |
U240 | 1 94-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts & esters |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | Hexachloropropene |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thiram |
U246 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4- methoxy- |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Methoxychlor |
U248 | 1 81-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl-butyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U248 | 1 81-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Benomyl |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | Bendiocarb |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate |
U279 | 63-25-2 | Carbaryl |
U279 | 63-25-2 | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Barban |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester |
U328 | 95-53-4 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- |
U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine |
U353 | 106-49-0 | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- |
U353 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | Bendiocarb phenol |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | Carbofuran phenol |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbendazim |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Propham |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Prosulfocarb |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Triallate |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | A2213 |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Ethanol, 2,2′-oxybis-, dicarbamate |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Triethylamine |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Thiophanate-methyl |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N′-[thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Thiodicarb |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Propoxur |
See F027 | 93-76-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Pentachlorophenol |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Phenol, pentachloro- |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Silvex (2,4,5-TP) |
See F027 | 93-76-5 | 2,4,5-T |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol |
1 CAS Number given for parent compound only.
§ 261.35 Deletion of certain hazardous waste codes following equipment cleaning and replacement.
(a) Wastes from wood preserving processes at plants that do not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic preservatives will not meet the listing definition of F032 once the generator has met all of the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. These wastes may, however, continue to meet another hazardous waste listing description or may exhibit one or more of the hazardous waste characteristics.
(b) Generators must either clean or replace all process equipment that may have come into contact with chlorophenolic formulations or constituents thereof, including, but not limited to, treatment cylinders, sumps, tanks, piping systems, drip pads, fork lifts, and trams, in a manner that minimizes or eliminates the escape of hazardous waste or constituents, leachate, contaminated drippage, or hazardous waste decomposition products to the ground water, surface water, or atmosphere.
(1) Generators shall do one of the following:
(i) Prepare and follow an equipment cleaning plan and clean equipment in accordance with this section;
(ii) Prepare and follow an equipment replacement plan and replace equipment in accordance with this section; or
(iii) Document cleaning and replacement in accordance with this section, carried out after termination of use of chlorophenolic preservations.
(2) Cleaning Requirements.
(i) Prepare and sign a written equipment cleaning plan that describes:
(A) The equipment to be cleaned;
(B) How the equipment will be cleaned;
(C) The solvent to be used in cleaning;
(D) How solvent rinses will be tested; and
(E) How cleaning residues will be disposed.
(ii) Equipment must be cleaned as follows:
(A) Remove all visible residues from process equipment;
(B) Rinse process equipment with an appropriate solvent until dioxins and dibenzofurans are not detected in the final solvent rinse.
(iii) Analytical requirements.
(A) Rinses must be tested by using an appropriate method.
(B) “Not detected” means at or below the following lower method calibration limits (MCLs): The 2,3,7,8-TCDD-based MCL—0.01 parts per trillion (ppt), sample weight of 1000 g, IS spiking level of 1 ppt, final extraction volume of 10-50 μL. For other congeners—multiply the values by 1 for TCDF/PeCDD/PeCDF, by 2.5 for HxCDD/HxCDF/HpCDD/HpCDF, and by 5 for OCDD/OCDF.
(iv) The generator must manage all residues from the cleaning process as F032 waste.
(3) Replacement requirements.
(i) Prepare and sign a written equipment replacement plan that describes:
(A) The equipment to be replaced;
(B) How the equipment will be replaced; and
(C) How the equipment will be disposed.
(ii) The generator must manage the discarded equipment as F032 waste.
(4) Documentation requirements.
(i) Document that previous equipment cleaning and/or replacement was performed in accordance with this section and occurred after cessation of use of chlorophenolic preservatives.
(c) The generator must maintain the following records documenting the cleaning and replacement as part of the facility’s operating record:
(1) The name and address of the facility;
(2) Formulations previously used and the date on which their use ceased in each process at the plant;
(3) Formulations currently used in each process at the plant;
(4) The equipment cleaning or replacement plan;
(5) The name and address of any persons who conducted the cleaning and replacement;
(6) The dates on which cleaning and replacement were accomplished;
(7) The dates of sampling and testing;
(8) A description of the sample handling and preparation techniques, including techniques used for extraction, containerization, preservation, and chain-of-custody of the samples;
(9) A description of the tests performed, the date the tests were performed, and the results of the tests;
(10) The name and model numbers of the instrument(s) used in performing the tests;
(11) QA/QC documentation; and
(12) The following statement signed by the generator or his authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that all process equipment required to be cleaned or replaced under 40 CFR 261.35 was cleaned or replaced as represented in the equipment cleaning and replacement plan and accompanying documentation. I am aware that there are significant penalties for providing false information, including the possibility of fine or imprisonment.
Subpart E—Exclusions/Exemptions
§ 261.38 [Reserved]
§ 261.39 Conditional Exclusion for Used, Broken Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) and Processed CRT Glass Undergoing Recycling.
Used, broken CRTs are not solid wastes if they meet the following conditions:
(a) Prior to processing: These materials are not solid wastes if they are destined for recycling and if they meet the following requirements:
(1) Storage. The broken CRTs must be either:
(i) Stored in a building with a roof, floor, and walls, or
(ii) Placed in a container (i.e., a package or a vehicle) that is constructed, filled, and closed to minimize releases to the environment of CRT glass (including fine solid materials).
(2) Labeling. Each container in which the used, broken CRT is contained must be labeled or marked clearly with one of the following phrases: “Used cathode ray tube(s)-contains leaded glass ” or “Leaded glass from televisions or computers.” It must also be labeled: “Do not mix with other glass materials.”
(3) Transportation. The used, broken CRTs must be transported in a container meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) and (2) of this section.
(4) Speculative accumulation and use constituting disposal. The used, broken CRTs are subject to the limitations on speculative accumulation as defined in paragraph (c)(8) of this section. If they are used in a manner constituting disposal, they must comply with the applicable requirements of part 266, subpart C instead of the requirements of this section.
(5) Exports. In addition to the applicable conditions specified in paragraphs (a)(1)-(4) of this section, exporters of used, broken CRTs must comply with the following requirements:
(i) Notify EPA of an intended export before the CRTs are scheduled to leave the United States. A complete notification should be submitted sixty (60) days before the initial shipment is intended to be shipped off-site. This notification may cover export activities extending over a twelve (12) month or lesser period. The notification must be in writing, signed by the exporter, and include the following information:
(A) Name, site address, telephone number and EPA ID number (if applicable) of the exporter of the CRTs.
(B) The estimated frequency or rate at which the CRTs are to be exported and the period of time over which they are to be exported.
(C) The estimated total quantity of CRTs specified in kilograms.
(D) All points of entry to and departure from each foreign country through which the CRTs will pass.
(E) A description of the means by which each shipment of the CRTs will be transported (e.g., mode of transportation vehicle (air, highway, rail, water, etc.), type(s) of container (drums, boxes, tanks, etc.)).
(F) The name and site address of the recycler or recyclers and the estimated quantity of used CRTs to be sent to each facility, as well as the names of any alternate recyclers.
(G) A description of the manner in which the CRTs will be recycled in the foreign country that will be receiving the CRTs.
(H) The name of any transit country through which the CRTs will be sent and a description of the approximate length of time the CRTs will remain in such country and the nature of their handling while there.
(ii) Notifications must be submitted electronically using EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system.
(iii) Upon request by EPA, the exporter shall furnish to EPA any additional information which a receiving country requests in order to respond to a notification.
(iv) EPA will provide a complete notification to the receiving country and any transit countries. A notification is complete when EPA receives a notification which EPA determines satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section.
(v) The export of CRTs is prohibited unless all of the following occur:
(A) The receiving country consents to the intended export. When the receiving country consents in writing to the receipt of the CRTs, EPA will forward an Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs to the exporter. Where the receiving country objects to receipt of the CRTs or withdraws a prior consent, EPA will notify the exporter in writing. EPA will also notify the exporter of any responses from transit countries.
(B) The exporter or a U.S. authorized agent must:
(1) Submit Electronic Export Information (EEI) for each shipment to the Automated Export System (AES) or its successor system, under the International Trade Data System (ITDS) platform, in accordance with 15 CFR 30.4(b).
(2) Include the following items in the EEI, along with the other information required under 15 CFR 30.6:
(i) EPA license code;
(ii) Commodity classification code per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(12);
(iii) EPA consent number;
(iv) Country of ultimate destination per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(5);
(v) Date of export per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(2);
(vi) Quantity of waste in shipment and units for reported quantity, if required reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification number are in units of weight or volume per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(15); or
(vii) EPA net quantity reported in units of kilograms, if required reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification number are not in units of weight or volume.
(vi) When the conditions specified on the original notification change, the exporter must provide EPA with a written renotification of the change using the allowable methods listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section, except for changes to the telephone number in paragraph (a)(5)(i)(A) of this section and decreases in the quantity indicated pursuant to paragraph (a)(5)(i)(C) of this section. The shipment cannot take place until consent of the receiving country to the changes has been obtained (except for changes to information about points of entry and departure and transit countries pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5)(i)(D) and (H) of this section) and the exporter of CRTs receives from EPA a copy of the Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs reflecting the receiving country’s consent to the changes.
(vii) A copy of the Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs must accompany the shipment of CRTs. The shipment must conform to the terms of the Acknowledgment.
(viii) If a shipment of CRTs cannot be delivered for any reason to the recycler or the alternate recycler, the exporter of CRTs must renotify EPA of a change in the conditions of the original notification to allow shipment to a new recycler in accordance with paragraph (a)(5)(vi) of this section and obtain another Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs.
(ix) Exporters must keep copies of notifications and Acknowledgments of Consent to Export CRTs for a period of three years following receipt of the Acknowledgment. Exporters may satisfy this recordkeeping requirement by retaining electronically submitted notifications or electronically generated Acknowledgements in the CRT exporter’s account on EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system, provided that such copies are readily available for viewing and production if requested by any EPA or authorized state inspector. No CRT exporter may be held liable for the inability to produce a notification or Acknowledgement for inspection under this section if the CRT exporter can demonstrate that the inability to produce such copies are due exclusively to technical difficulty with EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system for which the CRT exporter bears no responsibility.
(x) CRT exporters must file with EPA no later than March 1 of each year, an annual report summarizing the quantities (in kilograms), frequency of shipment, and ultimate destination(s) (i.e., the facility or facilities where the recycling occurs) of all used CRTs exported during the previous calendar year. Such reports must also include the following:
(A) The name, EPA ID number (if applicable), and mailing and site address of the exporter;
(B) The calendar year covered by the report;
(C) A certification signed by the CRT exporter that states:
“I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining this information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(xi) Annual reports must be submitted to the EPA using the allowable methods specified in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section. Exporters must keep copies of each annual report for a period of at least three years from the due date of the report. Exporters may satisfy this recordkeeping requirement by retaining electronically submitted annual reports in the CRT exporter’s account on the EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system, provided that a copy is readily available for viewing and production if requested by any the EPA or authorized State inspector. No CRT exporter may be held liable for the inability to produce an annual report for inspection under this section if the CRT exporter can demonstrate that the inability to produce the annual report is due exclusively to technical difficulty with the EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system for which the CRT exporter bears no responsibility.
(b) Requirements for used CRT processing: Used, broken CRTs undergoing CRT processing as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes if they meet the following requirements:
(1) Storage. Used, broken CRTs undergoing processing are subject to the requirement of paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
(2) Processing.
(i) All activities specified in paragraphs (2) and (3) of the definition of “CRT processing” in § 260.10 of this chapter must be performed within a building with a roof, floor, and walls; and
(ii) No activities may be performed that use temperatures high enough to volatilize lead from CRTs.
(c) Processed CRT glass sent to CRT glass making or lead smelting: Glass from used CRTs that is destined for recycling at a CRT glass manufacturer or a lead smelter after processing is not a solid waste unless it is speculatively accumulated as defined in § 261.1(c)(8).
(d) Use constituting disposal: Glass from used CRTs that is used in a manner constituting disposal must comply with the requirements of 40 CFR part 266, subpart C instead of the requirements of this section.
§ 261.40 Conditional Exclusion for Used, Intact Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) Exported for Recycling.
Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not solid wastes if they meet the notice and consent conditions of § 261.39(a)(5), and if they are not speculatively accumulated as defined in § 261.1(c)(8).
§ 261.41 Notification and Recordkeeping for Used, Intact Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) Exported for Reuse.
(a) CRT exporters who export used, intact CRTs for reuse must send a notification to EPA. This notification may cover export activities extending over a twelve (12) month or lesser period.
(1) The notification must be in writing, signed by the exporter, and include the following information:
(i) Name, mailing address, telephone number, and EPA ID number (if applicable) of the exporter of the used, intact CRTs;
(ii) The estimated frequency or rate at which the used, intact CRTs are to be exported for reuse and the period of time over which they are to be exported;
(iii) The estimated total quantity of used, intact CRTs specified in kilograms;
(iv) All points of entry to and departure from each transit country through which the used, intact CRTs will pass, a description of the approximate length of time the used, intact CRTs will remain in such country, and the nature of their handling while there;
(v) A description of the means by which each shipment of the used, intact CRTs will be transported (e.g., mode of transportation vehicle (air, highway, rail, water, etc.), type(s) of container (drums, boxes, tanks, etc.));
(vi) The name and address of the ultimate destination facility or facilities where the used, intact CRTs will be reused, refurbished, distributed, or sold for reuse and the estimated quantity of used, intact CRTs to be sent to each facility, as well as the name of any alternate destination facility or facilities;
(vii) A description of the manner in which the used, intact CRTs will be reused (including reuse after refurbishment) in the foreign country that will be receiving the used, intact CRTs; and
(viii) A certification signed by the CRT exporter that states:
“I certify under penalty of law that the CRTs described in this notice are intact and fully functioning or capable of being functional after refurbishment and that the used CRTs will be reused or refurbished and reused. I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(2) Notifications submitted by mail should be sent to the following mailing address: Office of Land and Emergency Management, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, Materials Recovery and Waste Management Division, International Branch (Mail Code 2255A), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460. Hand-delivered notifications should be sent to: Office of Land and Emergency Management, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, Materials Recovery and Waste Management Division, International Branch (Mail Code 2255A), Environmental Protection Agency, William Jefferson Clinton South Building, Room 6144, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20004. In both cases, the following shall be prominently displayed on the front of the envelope: “Attention: Notification of Intent to Export CRTs.”
(b) CRT exporters of used, intact CRTs sent for reuse must keep copies of normal business records, such as contracts, demonstrating that each shipment of exported used, intact CRTs will be reused. This documentation must be retained for a period of at least three years from the date the CRTs were exported. If the documents are written in a language other than English, CRT exporters of used, intact CRTs sent for reuse must provide both the original, non-English version of the normal business records as well as a third-party translation of the normal business records into English within 30 days upon request by EPA.
Subparts F-G [Reserved]
Subpart H—Financial Requirements for Management of Excluded Hazardous Secondary Materials
§ 261.140 Applicability.
(a) The requirements of this subpart apply to owners or operators of reclamation and intermediate facilities managing hazardous secondary materials excluded under 40 CFR § 261.4(a)(24), except as provided otherwise in this section.
(b) States and the Federal government are exempt from the financial assurance requirements of this subpart.
§ 261.141 Definitions of terms as used in this subpart.
The terms defined in § 265.141(d), (f), (g), and (h) of this chapter have the same meaning in this subpart as they do in § 265.141 of this chapter.
§ 261.142 Cost estimate.
(a) The owner or operator must have a detailed written estimate, in current dollars, of the cost of disposing of any hazardous secondary material as listed or characteristic hazardous waste, and the potential cost of closing the facility as a treatment, storage, and disposal facility.
(1) The estimate must equal the cost of conducting the activities described in paragraph (a) of this section at the point when the extent and manner of the facility’s operation would make these activities the most expensive; and
(2) The cost estimate must be based on the costs to the owner or operator of hiring a third party to conduct these activities. A third party is a party who is neither a parent nor a subsidiary of the owner or operator. (See definition of “parent corporation” in § 265.141(d) of this subchapter.) The owner or operator may use costs for on-site disposal in accordance with applicable requirements if he can demonstrate that on-site disposal capacity will exist at all times over the life of the facility.
(3) The cost estimate may not incorporate any salvage value that may be realized with the sale of hazardous secondary materials, or hazardous or non-hazardous wastes if applicable under § 265.113(d) of this subchapter, facility structures or equipment, land, or other assets associated with the facility.
(4) The owner or operator may not incorporate a zero cost for hazardous secondary materials, or hazardous or non-hazardous wastes if applicable under § 265.113(d) of this subchapter that might have economic value.
(b) During the active life of the facility, the owner or operator must adjust the cost estimate for inflation within 60 days prior to the anniversary date of the establishment of the financial instrument(s) used to comply with § 261.143. For owners and operators using the financial test or corporate guarantee, the cost estimate must be updated for inflation within 30 days after the close of the firm’s fiscal year and before submission of updated information to the Regional Administrator as specified in § 261.143(e)(3). The adjustment may be made by recalculating the cost estimate in current dollars, or by using an inflation factor derived from the most recent Implicit Price Deflator for Gross National Product published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in its Survey of Current Business, as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section. The inflation factor is the result of dividing the latest published annual Deflator by the Deflator for the previous year.
(1) The first adjustment is made by multiplying the cost estimate by the inflation factor. The result is the adjusted cost estimate.
(2) Subsequent adjustments are made by multiplying the latest adjusted cost estimate by the latest inflation factor.
(c) During the active life of the facility, the owner or operator must revise the cost estimate no later than 30 days after a change in a facility’s operating plan or design that would increase the costs of conducting the activities described in paragraph (a) or no later than 60 days after an unexpected event which increases the cost of conducting the activities described in paragraph (a) of this section. The revised cost estimate must be adjusted for inflation as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) The owner or operator must keep the following at the facility during the operating life of the facility: The latest cost estimate prepared in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (c) and, when this estimate has been adjusted in accordance with paragraph (b), the latest adjusted cost estimate.
§ 261.143 Financial assurance condition.
Per § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) of this chapter, an owner or operator of a reclamation or intermediate facility must have financial assurance as a condition of the exclusion as required under § 261.4(a)(24) of this chapter. He must choose from the options as specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
(a) Trust fund. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing a trust fund which conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting an originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Regional Administrator. The trustee must be an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
(2) The wording of the trust agreement must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(a)(1), and the trust agreement must be accompanied by a formal certification of acknowledgment (for example, see § 261.151(a)(2)). Schedule A of the trust agreement must be updated within 60 days after a change in the amount of the current cost estimate covered by the agreement.
(3) The trust fund must be funded for the full amount of the current cost estimate before it may be relied upon to satisfy the requirements of this section.
(4) Whenever the current cost estimate changes, the owner or operator must compare the new estimate with the trustee’s most recent annual valuation of the trust fund. If the value of the fund is less than the amount of the new estimate, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the change in the cost estimate, must either deposit an amount into the fund so that its value after this deposit at least equals the amount of the current cost estimate, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the difference.
(5) If the value of the trust fund is greater than the total amount of the current cost estimate, the owner or operator may submit a written request to the Regional Administrator for release of the amount in excess of the current cost estimate.
(6) If an owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance as specified in this section for all or part of the trust fund, he may submit a written request to the Regional Administrator for release of the amount in excess of the current cost estimate covered by the trust fund.
(7) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for release of funds as specified in paragraph (a)(5) or (6) of this section, the Regional Administrator will instruct the trustee to release to the owner or operator such funds as the Regional Administrator specifies in writing. If the owner or operator begins final closure under subpart G of 40 CFR part 264 or 265, an owner or operator may request reimbursements for partial or final closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Regional Administrator. The owner or operator may request reimbursements for partial closure only if sufficient funds are remaining in the trust fund to cover the maximum costs of closing the facility over its remaining operating life. No later than 60 days after receiving bills for partial or final closure activities, the Regional Administrator will instruct the trustee to make reimbursements in those amounts as the Regional Administrator specifies in writing, if the Regional Administrator determines that the partial or final closure expenditures are in accordance with the approved closure plan, or otherwise justified. If the Regional Administrator has reason to believe that the maximum cost of closure over the remaining life of the facility will be significantly greater than the value of the trust fund, he may withhold reimbursements of such amounts as he deems prudent until he determines, in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section that the owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial assurance for final closure of the facility. If the Regional Administrator does not instruct the trustee to make such reimbursements, he will provide to the owner or operator a detailed written statement of reasons.
(8) The Regional Administrator will agree to termination of the trust when:
(i) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section; or
(ii) The Regional Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
(b) Surety bond guaranteeing payment into a trust fund. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by obtaining a surety bond which conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting the bond to the Regional Administrator. The surety company issuing the bond must, at a minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on Federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
(2) The wording of the surety bond must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(b).
(3) The owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements of this section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Regional Administrator. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this section, except that:
(i) An originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be submitted to the Regional Administrator with the surety bond; and
(ii) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this section, the following are not required by these regulations:
(A) Payments into the trust fund as specified in paragraph (a) of this section;
(B) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (see § 261.151(a)) to show current cost estimates;
(C) Annual valuations as required by the trust agreement; and
(D) Notices of nonpayment as required by the trust agreement.
(4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will:
(i) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum of the bond before loss of the exclusion under § 261.4(a)(24) of this chapter or
(ii) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum within 15 days after an administrative order to begin closure issued by the Regional Administrator becomes final, or within 15 days after an order to begin closure is issued by a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction; or
(iii) Provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section, and obtain the Regional Administrator’s written approval of the assurance provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety.
(5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond.
(6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the current cost estimate, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
(7) Whenever the current cost estimate increases to an amount greater than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at least equal to the current cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to the Regional Administrator, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the increase. Whenever the current cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the amount of the current cost estimate following written approval by the Regional Administrator.
(8) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Regional Administrator. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator, as evidenced by the return receipts.
(9) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Regional Administrator has given prior written consent based on his receipt of evidence of alternate financial assurance as specified in this section.
(c) Letter of credit. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit which conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting the letter to the Regional Administrator. The issuing institution must be an entity which has the authority to issue letters of credit and whose letter-of-credit operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
(2) The wording of the letter of credit must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(c).
(3) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of this section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the Regional Administrator will be deposited by the issuing institution directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Regional Administrator. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund specified in paragraph (a) of this section, except that:
(i) An originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be submitted to the Regional Administrator with the letter of credit; and
(ii) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this section, the following are not required by these regulations:
(A) Payments into the trust fund as specified in paragraph (a) of this section;
(B) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (see § 261.151(a)) to show current cost estimates;
(C) Annual valuations as required by the trust agreement; and
(D) Notices of nonpayment as required by the trust agreement.
(4) The letter of credit must be accompanied by a letter from the owner or operator referring to the letter of credit by number, issuing institution, and date, and providing the following information: The EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address of the facility, and the amount of funds assured for the facility by the letter of credit.
(5) The letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least 1 year. The letter of credit must provide that the expiration date will be automatically extended for a period of at least 1 year unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator by certified mail of a decision not to extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120 days will begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
(6) The letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the current cost estimate, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
(7) Whenever the current cost estimate increases to an amount greater than the amount of the credit, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must either cause the amount of the credit to be increased so that it at least equals the current cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to the Regional Administrator, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the increase. Whenever the current cost estimate decreases, the amount of the credit may be reduced to the amount of the current cost estimate following written approval by the Regional Administrator.
(8) Following a determination by the Regional Administrator that the hazardous secondary materials do not meet the conditions of the exclusion under § 261.4(a)(24), the Regional Administrator may draw on the letter of credit.
(9) If the owner or operator does not establish alternate financial assurance as specified in this section and obtain written approval of such alternate assurance from the Regional Administrator within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator of a notice from the issuing institution that it has decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration date, the Regional Administrator will draw on the letter of credit. The Regional Administrator may delay the drawing if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the credit. During the last 30 days of any such extension the Regional Administrator will draw on the letter of credit if the owner or operator has failed to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section and obtain written approval of such assurance from the Regional Administrator.
(10) The Regional Administrator will return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for termination when:
(i) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section; or
(ii) The Regional Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
(d) Insurance. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by obtaining insurance which conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting a certificate of such insurance to the Regional Administrator At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more States.
(2) The wording of the certificate of insurance must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(d).
(3) The insurance policy must be issued for a face amount at least equal to the current cost estimate, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section. The term “face amount” means the total amount the insurer is obligated to pay under the policy. Actual payments by the insurer will not change the face amount, although the insurer’s future liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.
(4) The insurance policy must guarantee that funds will be available whenever needed to pay the cost of removal of all hazardous secondary materials from the unit, to pay the cost of decontamination of the unit, to pay the costs of the performance of activities required under subpart G of 40 CFR parts 264 or 265, as applicable, for the facilities covered by this policy. The policy must also guarantee that once funds are needed, the insurer will be responsible for paying out funds, up to an amount equal to the face amount of the policy, upon the direction of the Regional Administrator, to such party or parties as the Regional Administrator specifies.
(5) After beginning partial or final closure under 40 CFR parts 264 or 265, as applicable, an owner or operator or any other authorized person may request reimbursements for closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Regional Administrator. The owner or operator may request reimbursements only if the remaining value of the policy is sufficient to cover the maximum costs of closing the facility over its remaining operating life. Within 60 days after receiving bills for closure activities, the Regional Administrator will instruct the insurer to make reimbursements in such amounts as the Regional Administrator specifies in writing if the Regional Administrator determines that the expenditures are in accordance with the approved plan or otherwise justified. If the Regional Administrator has reason to believe that the maximum cost over the remaining life of the facility will be significantly greater than the face amount of the policy, he may withhold reimbursement of such amounts as he deems prudent until he determines, in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, that the owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial assurance for the particular facility. If the Regional Administrator does not instruct the insurer to make such reimbursements, he will provide to the owner or operator a detailed written statement of reasons.
(6) The owner or operator must maintain the policy in full force and effect until the Regional Administrator consents to termination of the policy by the owner or operator as specified in paragraph (i)(10) of this section. Failure to pay the premium, without substitution of alternate financial assurance as specified in this section, will constitute a significant violation of these regulations warranting such remedy as the Regional Administrator deems necessary. Such violation will be deemed to begin upon receipt by the Regional Administrator of a notice of future cancellation, termination, or failure to renew due to nonpayment of the premium, rather than upon the date of expiration.
(7) Each policy must contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to a successor owner or operator. Such assignment may be conditional upon consent of the insurer, provided such consent is not unreasonably refused.
(8) The policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail to renew the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. If there is a failure to pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or fail to renew the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning with the date of receipt of the notice by both the Regional Administrator and the owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipts. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew may not occur and the policy will remain in full force and effect in the event that on or before the date of expiration:
(i) The Regional Administrator deems the facility abandoned; or
(ii) Conditional exclusion or interim status is lost, terminated, or revoked; or
(iii) Closure is ordered by the Regional Administrator or a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction; or
(iv) The owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code; or
(v) The premium due is paid.
(9) Whenever the current cost estimate increases to an amount greater than the face amount of the policy, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must either cause the face amount to be increased to an amount at least equal to the current cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to the Regional Administrator, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the increase. Whenever the current cost estimate decreases, the face amount may be reduced to the amount of the current cost estimate following written approval by the Regional Administrator.
(10) The Regional Administrator will give written consent to the owner or operator that he may terminate the insurance policy when:
(i) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section; or
(ii) The Regional Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
(e) Financial test and corporate guarantee. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by demonstrating that he passes a financial test as specified in this paragraph. To pass this test the owner or operator must meet the criteria of either paragraph (e)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section:
(i) The owner or operator must have:
(A) Two of the following three ratios: A ratio of total liabilities to net worth less than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization to total liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current assets to current liabilities greater than 1.5; and
(B) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost estimates; and
(C) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
(D) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
(ii) The owner or operator must have:
(A) A current rating for his most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, A, or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor’s or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa as issued by Moody’s; and
(B) Tangible net worth at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost estimates; and
(C) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
(D) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
(2) The phrase “current cost estimates” as used in paragraph (e)(1) of this section refers to the cost estimates required to be shown in paragraphs 1-4 of the letter from the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer (§ 261.151(e)). The phrase “current plugging and abandonment cost estimates” as used in paragraph (e)(1) of this section refers to the cost estimates required to be shown in paragraphs 1-4 of the letter from the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer (§ 144.70(f) of this chapter).
(3) To demonstrate that he meets this test, the owner or operator must submit the following items to the Regional Administrator:
(i) A letter signed by the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer and worded as specified in § 261.151(e); and
(ii) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year; and
(iii) If the chief financial officer’s letter providing evidence of financial assurance includes financial data showing that the owner or operator satisfies paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section that are different from the data in the audited financial statements referred to in paragraph (e)(3)(ii)of this section or any other audited financial statement or data filed with the SEC, then a special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent certified public accountant to the owner or operator is required. The special report shall be based upon an agreed upon procedures engagement in accordance with professional auditing standards and shall describe the procedures performed in comparing the data in the chief financial officer’s letter derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in such financial statements, the findings of the comparison, and the reasons for any differences.
(4) The owner or operator may obtain an extension of the time allowed for submission of the documents specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section if the fiscal year of the owner or operator ends during the 90 days prior to the effective date of these regulations and if the year-end financial statements for that fiscal year will be audited by an independent certified public accountant. The extension will end no later than 90 days after the end of the owner’s or operator’s fiscal year. To obtain the extension, the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer must send, by the effective date of these regulations, a letter to the Regional Administrator of each Region in which the owner’s or operator’s facilities to be covered by the financial test are located. This letter from the chief financial officer must:
(i) Request the extension;
(ii) Certify that he has grounds to believe that the owner or operator meets the criteria of the financial test;
(iii) Specify for each facility to be covered by the test the EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and current cost estimates to be covered by the test;
(iv) Specify the date ending the owner’s or operator’s last complete fiscal year before the effective date of these regulations in this subpart;
(v) Specify the date, no later than 90 days after the end of such fiscal year, when he will submit the documents specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section; and
(vi) Certify that the year-end financial statements of the owner or operator for such fiscal year will be audited by an independent certified public accountant.
(5) After the initial submission of items specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, the owner or operator must send updated information to the Regional Administrator within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This information must consist of all three items specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
(6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, he must send notice to the Regional Administrator of intent to establish alternate financial assurance as specified in this section. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements. The owner or operator must provide the alternate financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year.
(7) The Regional Administrator may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator may no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, require reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or operator in addition to those specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If the Regional Administrator finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the owner or operator must provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section within 30 days after notification of such a finding.
(8) The Regional Administrator may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications in the opinion expressed by the independent certified public accountant in his report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements (see paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section). An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for disallowance. The Regional Administrator will evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The owner or operator must provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section within 30 days after notification of the disallowance.
(9) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section when:
(i) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section; or
(ii) The Regional Administrator releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this section in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
(10) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a written guarantee. The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in paragraphs (e)(1) through (8) of this section and must comply with the terms of the guarantee. The wording of the guarantee must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(g)(1). A certified copy of the guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Regional Administrator as specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. One of these items must be the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, the letter must describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this “substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration of the guarantee. The terms of the guarantee must provide that:
(i) Following a determination by the Regional Administrator that the hazardous secondary materials at the owner or operator’s facility covered by this guarantee do not meet the conditions of the exclusion under § 261.4(a)(24) of this chapter, the guarantor will dispose of any hazardous secondary material as hazardous waste and close the facility in accordance with closure requirements found in parts 264 or 265 of this chapter, as applicable, or establish a trust fund as specified in paragraph (a) of this section in the name of the owner or operator in the amount of the current cost estimate.
(ii) The corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Regional Administrator. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator, as evidenced by the return receipts.
(iii) If the owner or operator fails to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section and obtain the written approval of such alternate assurance from the Regional Administrator within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Regional Administrator of a notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternate financial assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
(f) Use of multiple financial mechanisms. An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing more than one financial mechanism per facility. These mechanisms are limited to trust funds, surety bonds, letters of credit, and insurance. The mechanisms must be as specified in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, respectively, of this section, except that it is the combination of mechanisms, rather than the single mechanism, which must provide financial assurance for an amount at least equal to the current cost estimate. If an owner or operator uses a trust fund in combination with a surety bond or a letter of credit, he may use the trust fund as the standby trust fund for the other mechanisms. A single standby trust fund may be established for two or more mechanisms. The Regional Administrator may use any or all of the mechanisms to provide for the facility.
(g) Use of a financial mechanism for multiple facilities. An owner or operator may use a financial assurance mechanism specified in this section to meet the requirements of this section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial assurance submitted to the Regional Administrator must include a list showing, for each facility, the EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and the amount of funds assured by the mechanism. If the facilities covered by the mechanism are in more than one Region, identical evidence of financial assurance must be submitted to and maintained with the Regional Administrators of all such Regions. The amount of funds available through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for each facility. In directing funds available through the mechanism for any of the facilities covered by the mechanism, the Regional Administrator may direct only the amount of funds designated for that facility, unless the owner or operator agrees to the use of additional funds available under the mechanism.
(h) Removal and Decontamination Plan for Release (1) An owner or operator of a reclamation facility or an intermediate facility who wishes to be released from his financial assurance obligations under § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) of this chapter must submit a plan for removing all hazardous secondary material residues to the Regional Administrator at least 180 days prior to the date on which he expects to cease to operate under the exclusion.
(2) The plan must include, at least:
(A) For each hazardous secondary materials storage unit subject to financial assurance requirements under § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F), a description of how all excluded hazardous secondary materials will be recycled or sent for recycling, and how all residues, contaminated containment systems (liners, etc), contaminated soils, subsoils, structures, and equipment will be removed or decontaminated as necessary to protect human health and the environment, and
(B) A detailed description of the steps necessary to remove or decontaminate all hazardous secondary material residues and contaminated containment system components, equipment, structures, and soils including, but not limited to, procedures for cleaning equipment and removing contaminated soils, methods for sampling and testing surrounding soils, and criteria for determining the extent of decontamination necessary to protect human health and the environment; and
(C) A detailed description of any other activities necessary to protect human health and the environment during this timeframe, including, but not limited to, leachate collection, run-on and run-off control, etc; and
(D) A schedule for conducting the activities described which, at a minimum, includes the total time required to remove all excluded hazardous secondary materials for recycling and decontaminate all units subject to financial assurance under § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) and the time required for intervening activities which will allow tracking of the progress of decontamination.
(3) The Regional Administrator will provide the owner or operator and the public, through a newspaper notice, the opportunity to submit written comments on the plan and request modifications to the plan no later than 30 days from the date of the notice. He will also, in response to a request or at his discretion, hold a public hearing whenever such a hearing might clarify one or more issues concerning the plan. The Regional Administrator will give public notice of the hearing at least 30 days before it occurs. (Public notice of the hearing may be given at the same time as notice of the opportunity for the public to submit written comments, and the two notices may be combined.) The Regional Administrator will approve, modify, or disapprove the plan within 90 days of its receipt. If the Regional Administrator does not approve the plan, he shall provide the owner or operator with a detailed written statement of reasons for the refusal and the owner or operator must modify the plan or submit a new plan for approval within 30 days after receiving such written statement. The Regional Administrator will approve or modify this plan in writing within 60 days. If the Regional Administrator modifies the plan, this modified plan becomes the approved plan. The Regional Administrator must assure that the approved plan is consistent with paragraph (h) of this section. A copy of the modified plan with a detailed statement of reasons for the modifications must be mailed to the owner or operator.
(4) Within 60 days of completion of the activities described for each hazardous secondary materials management unit, the owner or operator must submit to the Regional Administrator, by registered mail, a certification that all hazardous secondary materials have been removed from the unit and the unit has been decontaminated in accordance with the specifications in the approved plan. The certification must be signed by the owner or operator and by a qualified Professional Engineer. Documentation supporting the Professional Engineer’s certification must be furnished to the Regional Administrator, upon request, until he releases the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements for § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F).
(i) Release of the owner or operator from the requirements of this section. Within 60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and a qualified Professional Engineer that all hazardous secondary materials have been removed from the facility or a unit at the facility and the facility or a unit has been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan per paragraph (h), the Regional Administrator will notify the owner or operator in writing that he is no longer required under § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) to maintain financial assurance for that facility or a unit at the facility, unless the Regional Administrator has reason to believe that all hazardous secondary materials have not been removed from the facility or unit at a facility or that the facility or unit has not been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan. The Regional Administrator shall provide the owner or operator a detailed written statement of any such reason to believe that all hazardous secondary materials have not been removed from the unit or that the unit has not been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan.
§§ 261.144-261.146 [Reserved]
§ 261.147 Liability requirements.
(a) Coverage for sudden accidental occurrences. An owner or operator of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or an intermediate facility subject to financial assurance requirements under § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) of this chapter, or a group of such facilities, must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator must have and maintain liability coverage for sudden accidental occurrences in the amount of at least $1 million per occurrence with an annual aggregate of at least $2 million, exclusive of legal defense costs. This liability coverage may be demonstrated as specified in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section:
(1) An owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by having liability insurance as specified in this paragraph.
(i) Each insurance policy must be amended by attachment of the Hazardous Secondary Material Facility Liability Endorsement, or evidenced by a Certificate of Liability Insurance. The wording of the endorsement must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(h). The wording of the certificate of insurance must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(i). The owner or operator must submit a signed duplicate original of the endorsement or the certificate of insurance to the Regional Administrator, or Regional Administrators if the facilities are located in more than one Region. If requested by a Regional Administrator, the owner or operator must provide a signed duplicate original of the insurance policy.
(ii) Each insurance policy must be issued by an insurer which, at a minimum, is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more States.
(2) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by passing a financial test or using the guarantee for liability coverage as specified in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section.
(3) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a letter of credit for liability coverage as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
(4) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a surety bond for liability coverage as specified in paragraph (i) of this section.
(5) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a trust fund for liability coverage as specified in paragraph (j) of this section.
(6) An owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage through the use of combinations of insurance, financial test, guarantee, letter of credit, surety bond, and trust fund, except that the owner or operator may not combine a financial test covering part of the liability coverage requirement with a guarantee unless the financial statement of the owner or operator is not consolidated with the financial statement of the guarantor. The amounts of coverage demonstrated must total at least the minimum amounts required by this section. If the owner or operator demonstrates the required coverage through the use of a combination of financial assurances under this paragraph, the owner or operator shall specify at least one such assurance as “primary” coverage and shall specify other assurance as “excess” coverage.
(7) An owner or operator shall notify the Regional Administrator in writing within 30 days whenever:
(i) A claim results in a reduction in the amount of financial assurance for liability coverage provided by a financial instrument authorized in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section; or
(ii) A Certification of Valid Claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility is entered between the owner or operator and third-party claimant for liability coverage under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section; or
(iii) A final court order establishing a judgment for bodily injury or property damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility is issued against the owner or operator or an instrument that is providing financial assurance for liability coverage under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section.
(b) Coverage for nonsudden accidental occurrences. An owner or operator of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility with land-based units, as defined in § 260.10 of this chapter, which are used to manage hazardous secondary materials excluded under § 261.4(a)(24) of this chapter or a group of such facilities, must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator must have and maintain liability coverage for nonsudden accidental occurrences in the amount of at least $3 million per occurrence with an annual aggregate of at least $6 million, exclusive of legal defense costs. An owner or operator who must meet the requirements of this section may combine the required per-occurrence coverage levels for sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences into a single per-occurrence level, and combine the required annual aggregate coverage levels for sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences into a single annual aggregate level. Owners or operators who combine coverage levels for sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences must maintain liability coverage in the amount of at least $4 million per occurrence and $8 million annual aggregate. This liability coverage may be demonstrated as specified in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section:
(1) An owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by having liability insurance as specified in this paragraph.
(i) Each insurance policy must be amended by attachment of the Hazardous Secondary Material Facility Liability Endorsement or evidenced by a Certificate of Liability Insurance. The wording of the endorsement must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(h). The wording of the certificate of insurance must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(i). The owner or operator must submit a signed duplicate original of the endorsement or the certificate of insurance to the Regional Administrator, or Regional Administrators if the facilities are located in more than one Region. If requested by a Regional Administrator, the owner or operator must provide a signed duplicate original of the insurance policy.
(ii) Each insurance policy must be issued by an insurer which, at a minimum, is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more States.
(2) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by passing a financial test or using the guarantee for liability coverage as specified in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section.
(3) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a letter of credit for liability coverage as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
(4) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a surety bond for liability coverage as specified in paragraph (i) of this section.
(5) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a trust fund for liability coverage as specified in paragraph (j) of this section.
(6) An owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage through the use of combinations of insurance, financial test, guarantee, letter of credit, surety bond, and trust fund, except that the owner or operator may not combine a financial test covering part of the liability coverage requirement with a guarantee unless the financial statement of the owner or operator is not consolidated with the financial statement of the guarantor. The amounts of coverage demonstrated must total at least the minimum amounts required by this section. If the owner or operator demonstrates the required coverage through the use of a combination of financial assurances under this paragraph, the owner or operator shall specify at least one such assurance as “primary” coverage and shall specify other assurance as “excess” coverage.
(7) An owner or operator shall notify the Regional Administrator in writing within 30 days whenever:
(i) A claim results in a reduction in the amount of financial assurance for liability coverage provided by a financial instrument authorized in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section; or
(ii) A Certification of Valid Claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material treatment and/or storage facility is entered between the owner or operator and third-party claimant for liability coverage under paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section; or
(iii) A final court order establishing a judgment for bodily injury or property damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material treatment and/or storage facility is issued against the owner or operator or an instrument that is providing financial assurance for liability coverage under paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section.
(c) Request for variance. If an owner or operator can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Regional Administrator that the levels of financial responsibility required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section are not consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with treatment and/or storage at the facility or group of facilities, the owner or operator may obtain a variance from the Regional Administrator. The request for a variance must be submitted in writing to the Regional Administrator. If granted, the variance will take the form of an adjusted level of required liability coverage, such level to be based on the Regional Administrator’s assessment of the degree and duration of risk associated with the ownership or operation of the facility or group of facilities. The Regional Administrator may require an owner or operator who requests a variance to provide such technical and engineering information as is deemed necessary by the Regional Administrator to determine a level of financial responsibility other than that required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.
(d) Adjustments by the Regional Administrator. If the Regional Administrator determines that the levels of financial responsibility required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section are not consistent with the degree and duration of risk associated with treatment and/or storage at the facility or group of facilities, the Regional Administrator may adjust the level of financial responsibility required under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. This adjusted level will be based on the Regional Administrator’s assessment of the degree and duration of risk associated with the ownership or operation of the facility or group of facilities. In addition, if the Regional Administrator determines that there is a significant risk to human health and the environment from nonsudden accidental occurrences resulting from the operations of a facility that is not a surface impoundment, pile, or land treatment facility, he may require that an owner or operator of the facility comply with paragraph (b) of this section. An owner or operator must furnish to the Regional Administrator, within a reasonable time, any information which the Regional Administrator requests to determine whether cause exists for such adjustments of level or type of coverage.
(e) Period of coverage. Within 60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and a qualified Professional Engineer that all hazardous secondary materials have been removed from the facility or a unit at the facility and the facility or a unit has been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan per § 261.143(h), the Regional Administrator will notify the owner or operator in writing that he is no longer required under § 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) to maintain liability coverage for that facility or a unit at the facility, unless the Regional Administrator has reason to believe that that all hazardous secondary materials have not been removed from the facility or unit at a facility or that the facility or unit has not been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan.
(f) Financial test for liability coverage. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by demonstrating that he passes a financial test as specified in this paragraph. To pass this test the owner or operator must meet the criteria of paragraph (f)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section:
(i) The owner or operator must have:
(A) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by this test; and
(B) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
(C) Assets in the United States amounting to either:
(1) At least 90 percent of his total assets; or
(2) at least six times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by this test.
(ii) The owner or operator must have:
(A) A current rating for his most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, A, or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor’s, or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa as issued by Moody’s; and
(B) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
(C) Tangible net worth at least six times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by this test; and
(D) Assets in the United States amounting to either:
(1) At least 90 percent of his total assets; or
(2) at least six times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by this test.
(2) The phrase “amount of liability coverage” as used in paragraph (f)(1) of this section refers to the annual aggregate amounts for which coverage is required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the annual aggregate amounts for which coverage is required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of 40 CFR 264.147 and 265.147.
(3) To demonstrate that he meets this test, the owner or operator must submit the following three items to the Regional Administrator:
(i) A letter signed by the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer and worded as specified in § 261.151(f). If an owner or operator is using the financial test to demonstrate both assurance as specified by § 261.143(e), and liability coverage, he must submit the letter specified in § 261.151(f) to cover both forms of financial responsibility; a separate letter as specified in § 261.151(e) is not required.
(ii) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year.
(iii) If the chief financial officer’s letter providing evidence of financial assurance includes financial data showing that the owner or operator satisfies paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section that are different from the data in the audited financial statements referred to in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section or any other audited financial statement or data filed with the SEC, then a special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent certified public accountant to the owner or operator is required. The special report shall be based upon an agreed upon procedures engagement in accordance with professional auditing standards and shall describe the procedures performed in comparing the data in the chief financial officer’s letter derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in such financial statements, the findings of the comparison, and the reasons for any difference.
(4) The owner or operator may obtain a one-time extension of the time allowed for submission of the documents specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section if the fiscal year of the owner or operator ends during the 90 days prior to the effective date of these regulations and if the year-end financial statements for that fiscal year will be audited by an independent certified public accountant. The extension will end no later than 90 days after the end of the owner’s or operator’s fiscal year. To obtain the extension, the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer must send, by the effective date of these regulations, a letter to the Regional Administrator of each Region in which the owner’s or operator’s facilities to be covered by the financial test are located. This letter from the chief financial officer must:
(i) Request the extension;
(ii) Certify that he has grounds to believe that the owner or operator meets the criteria of the financial test;
(iii) Specify for each facility to be covered by the test the EPA Identification Number, name, address, the amount of liability coverage and, when applicable, current closure and post-closure cost estimates to be covered by the test;
(iv) Specify the date ending the owner’s or operator’s last complete fiscal year before the effective date of these regulations;
(v) Specify the date, no later than 90 days after the end of such fiscal year, when he will submit the documents specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section; and
(vi) Certify that the year-end financial statements of the owner or operator for such fiscal year will be audited by an independent certified public accountant.
(5) After the initial submission of items specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, the owner or operator must send updated information to the Regional Administrator within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This information must consist of all three items specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
(6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section, he must obtain insurance, a letter of credit, a surety bond, a trust fund, or a guarantee for the entire amount of required liability coverage as specified in this section. Evidence of liability coverage must be submitted to the Regional Administrator within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the owner or operator no longer meets the test requirements.
(7) The Regional Administrator may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications in the opinion expressed by the independent certified public accountant in his report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements (see paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section). An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for disallowance. The Regional Administrator will evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The owner or operator must provide evidence of insurance for the entire amount of required liability coverage as specified in this section within 30 days after notification of disallowance.
(g) Guarantee for liability coverage. (1) Subject to paragraph (g)(2) of this section, an owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a written guarantee, hereinafter referred to as “guarantee.” The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(6) of this section. The wording of the guarantee must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(g)(2). A certified copy of the guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Regional Administrator as specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section. One of these items must be the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, this letter must describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this “substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration of the guarantee.
(i) If the owner or operator fails to satisfy a judgment based on a determination of liability for bodily injury or property damage to third parties caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences (or both as the case may be), arising from the operation of facilities covered by this corporate guarantee, or fails to pay an amount agreed to in settlement of claims arising from or alleged to arise from such injury or damage, the guarantor will do so up to the limits of coverage.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2)(i) In the case of corporations incorporated in the United States, a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if the Attorneys General or Insurance Commissioners of:
(A) The State in which the guarantor is incorporated; and
(B) Each State in which a facility covered by the guarantee is located have submitted a written statement to EPA that a guarantee executed as described in this section and § 261.151(g)(2) is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that State.
(ii) In the case of corporations incorporated outside the United States, a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if:
(A) The non-U.S. corporation has identified a registered agent for service of process in each State in which a facility covered by the guarantee is located and in the State in which it has its principal place of business; and if
(B) The Attorney General or Insurance Commissioner of each State in which a facility covered by the guarantee is located and the State in which the guarantor corporation has its principal place of business, has submitted a written statement to EPA that a guarantee executed as described in this section and § 261.151(g)(2) is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that State.
(h) Letter of credit for liability coverage. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting a copy of the letter of credit to the Regional Administrator.
(2) The financial institution issuing the letter of credit must be an entity that has the authority to issue letters of credit and whose letter of credit operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
(3) The wording of the letter of credit must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(j).
(4) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of this section may also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of such a letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the trustee of the standby trust will be deposited by the issuing institution into the standby trust in accordance with instructions from the trustee. The trustee of the standby trust fund must be an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
(5) The wording of the standby trust fund must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(m).
(i) Surety bond for liability coverage. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting a copy of the bond to the Regional Administrator.
(2) The surety company issuing the bond must be among those listed as acceptable sureties on Federal bonds in the most recent Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
(3) The wording of the surety bond must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(k) of this chapter.
(4) A surety bond may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if the Attorneys General or Insurance Commissioners of:
(i) The State in which the surety is incorporated; and
(ii) Each State in which a facility covered by the surety bond is located have submitted a written statement to EPA that a surety bond executed as described in this section and § 261.151(k) is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that State.
(j) Trust fund for liability coverage. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing a trust fund that conforms to the requirements of this paragraph and submitting an originally signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Regional Administrator.
(2) The trustee must be an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
(3) The trust fund for liability coverage must be funded for the full amount of the liability coverage to be provided by the trust fund before it may be relied upon to satisfy the requirements of this section. If at any time after the trust fund is created the amount of funds in the trust fund is reduced below the full amount of the liability coverage to be provided, the owner or operator, by the anniversary date of the establishment of the Fund, must either add sufficient funds to the trust fund to cause its value to equal the full amount of liability coverage to be provided, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this section to cover the difference. For purposes of this paragraph, “the full amount of the liability coverage to be provided” means the amount of coverage for sudden and/or nonsudden occurrences required to be provided by the owner or operator by this section, less the amount of financial assurance for liability coverage that is being provided by other financial assurance mechanisms being used to demonstrate financial assurance by the owner or operator.
(4) The wording of the trust fund must be identical to the wording specified in § 261.151(l).
§ 261.148 Incapacity of owners or operators, guarantors, or financial institutions.
(a) An owner or operator must notify the Regional Administrator by certified mail of the commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming the owner or operator as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding. A guarantor of a corporate guarantee as specified in § 261.143(e) must make such a notification if he is named as debtor, as required under the terms of the corporate guarantee.
(b) An owner or operator who fulfills the requirements of § 261.143 or § 261.147 by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy will be deemed to be without the required financial assurance or liability coverage in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee or of the institution issuing the surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to issue such instruments. The owner or operator must establish other financial assurance or liability coverage within 60 days after such an event.
§ 261.149 Use of State-required mechanisms.
(a) For a reclamation or intermediate facility located in a State where EPA is administering the requirements of this subpart but where the State has regulations that include requirements for financial assurance of closure or liability coverage, an owner or operator may use State-required financial mechanisms to meet the requirements of § 261.143 or § 261.147 if the Regional Administrator determines that the State mechanisms are at least equivalent to the financial mechanisms specified in this subpart. The Regional Administrator will evaluate the equivalency of the mechanisms principally in terms of certainty of the availability of: Funds for the required closure activities or liability coverage; and the amount of funds that will be made available. The Regional Administrator may also consider other factors as he deems appropriate. The owner or operator must submit to the Regional Administrator evidence of the establishment of the mechanism together with a letter requesting that the State-required mechanism be considered acceptable for meeting the requirements of this subpart. The submission must include the following information: The facility’s EPA Identification Number (if available), name, and address, and the amount of funds for closure or liability coverage assured by the mechanism. The Regional Administrator will notify the owner or operator of his determination regarding the mechanism’s acceptability in lieu of financial mechanisms specified in this subpart. The Regional Administrator may require the owner or operator to submit additional information as is deemed necessary to make this determination. Pending this determination, the owner or operator will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of § 261.143 or § 261.147, as applicable.
(b) If a State-required mechanism is found acceptable as specified in paragraph (a) of this section except for the amount of funds available, the owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this subpart by increasing the funds available through the State-required mechanism or using additional financial mechanisms as specified in this subpart. The amount of funds available through the State and Federal mechanisms must at least equal the amount required by this subpart.
§ 261.150 State assumption of responsibility.
(a) If a State either assumes legal responsibility for an owner’s or operator’s compliance with the closure or liability requirements of this part or assures that funds will be available from State sources to cover those requirements, the owner or operator will be in compliance with the requirements of § 261.143 or § 261.147 if the Regional Administrator determines that the State’s assumption of responsibility is at least equivalent to the financial mechanisms specified in this subpart. The Regional Administrator will evaluate the equivalency of State guarantees principally in terms of: Certainty of the availability of funds for the required closure activities or liability coverage; and the amount of funds that will be made available. The Regional Administrator may also consider other factors as he deems appropriate. The owner or operator must submit to the Regional Administrator a letter from the State describing the nature of the State’s assumption of responsibility together with a letter from the owner or operator requesting that the State’s assumption of responsibility be considered acceptable for meeting the requirements of this subpart. The letter from the State must include, or have attached to it, the following information: The facility’s EPA Identification Number (if available), name, and address, and the amount of funds for closure or liability coverage that are guaranteed by the State. The Regional Administrator will notify the owner or operator of his determination regarding the acceptability of the State’s guarantee in lieu of financial mechanisms specified in this subpart. The Regional Administrator may require the owner or operator to submit additional information as is deemed necessary to make this determination. Pending this determination, the owner or operator will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of § 265.143 or § 265.147, as applicable.
(b) If a State’s assumption of responsibility is found acceptable as specified in paragraph (a) of this section except for the amount of funds available, the owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this subpart by use of both the State’s assurance and additional financial mechanisms as specified in this subpart. The amount of funds available through the State and Federal mechanisms must at least equal the amount required by this subpart.
§ 261.151 Wording of the instruments.
(a)(1) A trust agreement for a trust fund, as specified in § 261.143(a) must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Trust Agreement, the “Agreement,” entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator], a [name of State] [insert “corporation,” “partnership,” “association,” or “proprietorship”], the “Grantor,” and [name of corporate trustee], [insert “incorporated in the State of ______—–” or “a national bank”], the “Trustee.”
Whereas, the United States Environmental Protection Agency, “EPA,” an agency of the United States Government, has established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator of a facility regulated under parts 264, or 265, or satisfying the conditions of the exclusion under § 261.4(a)(24) shall provide assurance that funds will be available if needed for care of the facility under 40 CFR parts 264 or 265, subparts G, as applicable ,
Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to provide all or part of such financial assurance for the facilities identified herein,
Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee,
Now, Therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
Section 1. Definitions. As used in this Agreement:
(a) The term “Grantor” means the owner or operator who enters into this Agreement and any successors or assigns of the Grantor.
(b) The term “Trustee” means the Trustee who enters into this Agreement and any successor Trustee.
Section 2. Identification of Facilities and Cost Estimates. This Agreement pertains to the facilities and cost estimates identified on attached Schedule A [on Schedule A, for each facility list the EPA Identification Number (if available), name, address, and the current cost estimates, or portions thereof, for which financial assurance is demonstrated by this Agreement].
Section 3. Establishment of Fund. The Grantor and the Trustee hereby establish a trust fund, the “Fund,” for the benefit of EPA in the event that the hazardous secondary materials of the grantor no longer meet the conditions of the exclusion under § 261.4(a)(24). The Grantor and the Trustee intend that no third party have access to the Fund except as herein provided. The Fund is established initially as consisting of the property, which is acceptable to the Trustee, described in Schedule B attached hereto. Such property and any other property subsequently transferred to the Trustee is referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments necessary to discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by EPA.
Section 4. Payments from the Fund. The Trustee shall make payments from the Fund as the EPA Regional Administrator shall direct, in writing, to provide for the payment of the costs of the performance of activities required under subpart G of 40 CFR parts 264 or 265 for the facilities covered by this Agreement. The Trustee shall reimburse the Grantor or other persons as specified by the EPA Regional Administrator from the Fund for expenditures for such activities in such amounts as the beneficiary shall direct in writing. In addition, the Trustee shall refund to the Grantor such amounts as the EPA Regional Administrator specifies in writing. Upon refund, such funds shall no longer constitute part of the Fund as defined herein.
Section 5. Payments Comprising the Fund. Payments made to the Trustee for the Fund shall consist of cash or securities acceptable to the Trustee.
Section 6. Trustee Management. The Trustee shall invest and reinvest the principal and income of the Fund and keep the Fund invested as a single fund, without distinction between principal and income, in accordance with general investment policies and guidelines which the Grantor may communicate in writing to the Trustee from time to time, subject, however, to the provisions of this section. In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling, and managing the Fund, the Trustee shall discharge his duties with respect to the trust fund solely in the interest of the beneficiary and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing which persons of prudence, acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters, would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims; except that:
(i) Securities or other obligations of the Grantor, or any other owner or operator of the facilities, or any of their affiliates as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 80a-2.(a), shall not be acquired or held, unless they are securities or other obligations of the Federal or a State government;
(ii) The Trustee is authorized to invest the Fund in time or demand deposits of the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the Federal or State government; and
(iii) The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment or distribution uninvested for a reasonable time and without liability for the payment of interest thereon.
Section 7. Commingling and Investment. The Trustee is expressly authorized in its discretion:
(a) To transfer from time to time any or all of the assets of the Fund to any common, commingled, or collective trust fund created by the Trustee in which the Fund is eligible to participate, subject to all of the provisions thereof, to be commingled with the assets of other trusts participating therein; and
(b) To purchase shares in any investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., including one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustee may vote such shares in its discretion.
Section 8. Express Powers of Trustee. Without in any way limiting the powers and discretions conferred upon the Trustee by the other provisions of this Agreement or by law, the Trustee is expressly authorized and empowered:
(a) To sell, exchange, convey, transfer, or otherwise dispose of any property held by it, by public or private sale. No person dealing with the Trustee shall be bound to see to the application of the purchase money or to inquire into the validity or expediency of any such sale or other disposition;
(b) To make, execute, acknowledge, and deliver any and all documents of transfer and conveyance and any and all other instruments that may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the powers herein granted;
(c) To register any securities held in the Fund in its own name or in the name of a nominee and to hold any security in bearer form or in book entry, or to combine certificates representing such securities with certificates of the same issue held by the Trustee in other fiduciary capacities, or to deposit or arrange for the deposit of such securities in a qualified central depositary even though, when so deposited, such securities may be merged and held in bulk in the name of the nominee of such depositary with other securities deposited therein by another person, or to deposit or arrange for the deposit of any securities issued by the United States Government, or any agency or instrumentality thereof, with a Federal Reserve bank, but the books and records of the Trustee shall at all times show that all such securities are part of the Fund;
(d) To deposit any cash in the Fund in interest-bearing accounts maintained or savings certificates issued by the Trustee, in its separate corporate capacity, or in any other banking institution affiliated with the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the Federal or State government; and
(e) To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of or against the Fund.
Section 9. Taxes and Expenses. All taxes of any kind that may be assessed or levied against or in respect of the Fund and all brokerage commissions incurred by the Fund shall be paid from the Fund. All other expenses incurred by the Trustee in connection with the administration of this Trust, including fees for legal services rendered to the Trustee, the compensation of the Trustee to the extent not paid directly by the Grantor, and all other proper charges and disbursements of the Trustee shall be paid from the Fund.
Section 10. Annual Valuation. The Trustee shall annually, at least 30 days prior to the anniversary date of establishment of the Fund, furnish to the Grantor and to the appropriate EPA Regional Administrator a statement confirming the value of the Trust. Any securities in the Fund shall be valued at market value as of no more than 60 days prior to the anniversary date of establishment of the Fund. The failure of the Grantor to object in writing to the Trustee within 90 days after the statement has been furnished to the Grantor and the EPA Regional Administrator shall constitute a conclusively binding assent by the Grantor, barring the Grantor from asserting any claim or liability against the Trustee with respect to matters disclosed in the statement.
Section 11. Advice of Counsel. The Trustee may from time to time consult with counsel, who may be counsel to the Grantor, with respect to any question arising as to the construction of this Agreement or any action to be taken hereunder. The Trustee shall be fully protected, to the extent permitted by law, in acting upon the advice of counsel.
Section 12. Trustee Compensation. The Trustee shall be entitled to reasonable compensation for its services as agreed upon in writing from time to time with the Grantor.
Section 13. Successor Trustee. The Trustee may resign or the Grantor may replace the Trustee, but such resignation or replacement shall not be effective until the Grantor has appointed a successor trustee and this successor accepts the appointment. The successor trustee shall have the same powers and duties as those conferred upon the Trustee hereunder. Upon the successor trustee’s acceptance of the appointment, the Trustee shall assign, transfer, and pay over to the successor trustee the funds and properties then constituting the Fund. If for any reason the Grantor cannot or does not act in the event of the resignation of the Trustee, the Trustee may apply to a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a successor trustee or for instructions. The successor trustee shall specify the date on which it assumes administration of the trust in a writing sent to the Grantor, the EPA Regional Administrator, and the present Trustee by certified mail 10 days before such change becomes effective. Any expenses incurred by the Trustee as a result of any of the acts contemplated by this Section shall be paid as provided in Section 9.
Section 14. Instructions to the Trustee. All orders, requests, and instructions by the Grantor to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by such persons as are designated in the attached Exhibit A or such other designees as the Grantor may designate by amendment to Exhibit A. The Trustee shall be fully protected in acting without inquiry in accordance with the Grantor’s orders, requests, and instructions. All orders, requests, and instructions by the EPA Regional Administrator to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by the EPA Regional Administrators of the Regions in which the facilities are located, or their designees, and the Trustee shall act and shall be fully protected in acting in accordance with such orders, requests, and instructions. The Trustee shall have the right to assume, in the absence of written notice to the contrary, that no event constituting a change or a termination of the authority of any person to act on behalf of the Grantor or EPA hereunder has occurred. The Trustee shall have no duty to act in the absence of such orders, requests, and instructions from the Grantor and/or EPA, except as provided for herein.
Section 15. Amendment of Agreement. This Agreement may be amended by an instrument in writing executed by the Grantor, the Trustee, and the appropriate EPA Regional Administrator, or by the Trustee and the appropriate EPA Regional Administrator if the Grantor ceases to exist.
Section 16. Irrevocability and Termination. Subject to the right of the parties to amend this Agreement as provided in Section 16, this Trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated at the written agreement of the Grantor, the Trustee, and the EPA Regional Administrator, or by the Trustee and the EPA Regional Administrator, if the Grantor ceases to exist. Upon termination of the Trust, all remaining trust property, less final trust administration expenses, shall be delivered to the Grantor.
Section 17. Immunity and Indemnification. The Trustee shall not incur personal liability of any nature in connection with any act or omission, made in good faith, in the administration of this Trust, or in carrying out any directions by the Grantor or the EPA Regional Administrator issued in accordance with this Agreement. The Trustee shall be indemnified and saved harmless by the Grantor or from the Trust Fund, or both, from and against any personal liability to which the Trustee may be subjected by reason of any act or conduct in its official capacity, including all expenses reasonably incurred in its defense in the event the Grantor fails to provide such defense.
Section 18. Choice of Law. This Agreement shall be administered, construed, and enforced according to the laws of the State of [insert name of State].
Section 19. Interpretation. As used in this Agreement, words in the singular include the plural and words in the plural include the singular. The descriptive headings for each Section of this Agreement shall not affect the interpretation or the legal efficacy of this Agreement.
In Witness Whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written: The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(a)(1) as such regulations were constituted on the date first above written.
(2) The following is an example of the certification of acknowledgment which must accompany the trust agreement for a trust fund as specified in § 261.143(a) of this chapter. State requirements may differ on the proper content of this acknowledgment.
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order.
[Signature of Notary Public]
(b) A surety bond guaranteeing payment into a trust fund, as specified in § 261.143(b) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Know All Persons By These Presents, That we, the Principal and Surety(ies) are firmly bound to the U.S. EPA in the event that the hazardous secondary materials at the reclamation or intermediate facility listed below no longer meet the conditions of the exclusion under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24), in the above penal sum for the payment of which we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors, administrators, successors, and assigns jointly and severally; provided that, where the Surety(ies) are corporations acting as co-sureties, we, the Sureties, bind ourselves in such sum “jointly and severally” only for the purpose of allowing a joint action or actions against any or all of us, and for all other purposes each Surety binds itself, jointly and severally with the Principal, for the payment of such sum only as is set forth opposite the name of such Surety, but if no limit of liability is indicated, the limit of liability shall be the full amount of the penal sum.
Whereas said Principal is required, under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act as amended (RCRA), to have a permit or interim status in order to own or operate each facility identified above, or to meet conditions under 40 CFR sections 261.4(a)(24), and
Whereas said Principal is required to provide financial assurance as a condition of permit or interim status or as a condition of an exclusion under 40 CFR sections 261.4(a)(24) and
Whereas said Principal shall establish a standby trust fund as is required when a surety bond is used to provide such financial assurance;
Now, Therefore, the conditions of the obligation are such that if the Principal shall faithfully, before the beginning of final closure of each facility identified above, fund the standby trust fund in the amount(s) identified above for the facility,
Or, if the Principal shall satisfy all the conditions established for exclusion of hazardous secondary materials from coverage as solid waste under 40 CFR sections 261.4(a)(24),
Or, if the Principal shall fund the standby trust fund in such amount(s) within 15 days after a final order to begin closure is issued by an EPA Regional Administrator or a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction,
Or, if the Principal shall provide alternate financial assurance, as specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, as applicable, and obtain the EPA Regional Administrator’s written approval of such assurance, within 90 days after the date notice of cancellation is received by both the Principal and the EPA Regional Administrator(s) from the Surety(ies), then this obligation shall be null and void; otherwise it is to remain in full force and effect.
The Surety(ies) shall become liable on this bond obligation only when the Principal has failed to fulfill the conditions described above. Upon notification by an EPA Regional Administrator that the Principal has failed to perform as guaranteed by this bond, the Surety(ies) shall place funds in the amount guaranteed for the facility(ies) into the standby trust fund as directed by the EPA Regional Administrator.
The liability of the Surety(ies) shall not be discharged by any payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment or payments shall amount in the aggregate to the penal sum of the bond, but in no event shall the obligation of the Surety(ies) hereunder exceed the amount of said penal sum.
The Surety(ies) may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the Principal and to the EPA Regional Administrator(s) for the Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is (are) located, provided, however, that cancellation shall not occur during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the Principal and the EPA Regional Administrator(s), as evidenced by the return receipts.
The Principal may terminate this bond by sending written notice to the Surety(ies), provided, however, that no such notice shall become effective until the Surety(ies) receive(s) written authorization for termination of the bond by the EPA Regional Administrator(s) of the EPA Region(s) in which the bonded facility(ies) is (are) located.
[The following paragraph is an optional rider that may be included but is not required.]
Principal and Surety(ies) hereby agree to adjust the penal sum of the bond yearly so that it guarantees a new amount, provided that the penal sum does not increase by more than 20 percent in any one year, and no decrease in the penal sum takes place without the written permission of the EPA Regional Administrator(s).
In Witness Whereof, the Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Financial Guarantee Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(b) as such regulations were constituted on the date this bond was executed.
(c) A letter of credit, as specified in § 261.143(c) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Dear Sir or Madam: We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No.________ in your favor, in the event that the hazardous secondary materials at the covered reclamation or intermediary facility(ies) no longer meet the conditions of the exclusion under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24), at the request and for the account of [owner’s or operator’s name and address] up to the aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $________, available upon presentation of
(1) your sight draft, bearing reference to this letter of credit No.____, and
(2) your signed statement reading as follows: “I certify that the amount of the draft is payable pursuant to regulations issued under authority of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 as amended.”
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least 1 year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least 1 year] on [date] and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, we notify both you and [owner’s or operator’s name] by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date. In the event you are so notified, any unused portion of the credit shall be available upon presentation of your sight draft for 120 days after the date of receipt by both you and [owner’s or operator’s name], as shown on the signed return receipts.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such draft upon presentation to us, and we shall deposit the amount of the draft directly into the standby trust fund of [owner’s or operator’s name] in accordance with your instructions.
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(c) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
This credit is subject to [insert “the most recent edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce,” or “the Uniform Commercial Code”].
(d) A certificate of insurance, as specified in § 261.143(e) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Facilities Covered: [List for each facility: The EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and the amount of insurance for all facilities covered, which must total the face amount shown below.
The Insurer hereby certifies that it has issued to the Insured the policy of insurance identified above to provide financial assurance so that in accordance with applicable regulations all hazardous secondary materials can be removed from the facility or any unit at the facility and the facility or any unit at the facility can be decontaminated at the facilities identified above. The Insurer further warrants that such policy conforms in all respects with the requirements of 40 CFR 261.143(d) as applicable and as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. It is agreed that any provision of the policy inconsistent with such regulations is hereby amended to eliminate such inconsistency.
Whenever requested by the EPA Regional Administrator(s) of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, the Insurer agrees to furnish to the EPA Regional Administrator(s) a duplicate original of the policy listed above, including all endorsements thereon.
I hereby certify that the wording of this certificate is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(d) such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
(e) A letter from the chief financial officer, as specified in § 261.143(e) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
[Address to Regional Administrator of every Region in which facilities for which financial responsibility is to be demonstrated through the financial test are located].
I am the chief financial officer of [name and address of firm]. This letter is in support of this firm’s use of the financial test to demonstrate financial assurance, as specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261.
[Fill out the following nine paragraphs regarding facilities and associated cost estimates. If your firm has no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write “None” in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and current cost estimates.]
1. This firm is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which financial assurance is demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR 261. The current cost estimates covered by the test are shown for each facility: ________.
2. This firm guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, the following facilities owned or operated by the guaranteed party. The current cost estimates so guaranteed are shown for each facility: ________. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee________, or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ________, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee________]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter].
3. In States where EPA is not administering the financial requirements of subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, this firm, as owner or operator or guarantor, is demonstrating financial assurance for the following facilities through the use of a test equivalent or substantially equivalent to the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261. The current cost estimates covered by such a test are shown for each facility:________.
4. This firm is the owner or operator of the following hazardous secondary materials management facilities for which financial assurance is not demonstrated either to EPA or a State through the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261 or equivalent or substantially equivalent State mechanisms. The current cost estimates not covered by such financial assurance are shown for each facility:________.
5. This firm is the owner or operator of the following UIC facilities for which financial assurance for plugging and abandonment is required under part 144. The current closure cost estimates as required by 40 CFR 144.62 are shown for each facility:________.
6. This firm is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which financial assurance for closure or post-closure care is demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates covered by the test are shown for each facility: ________ .
7. This firm guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265, the closure or post-closure care of the following facilities owned or operated by the guaranteed party. The current cost estimates for the closure or post-closure care so guaranteed are shown for each facility: ________. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ______; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ____, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ____]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter].
8. In States where EPA is not administering the financial requirements of subpart H of 40 CFR part 264 or 265, this firm, as owner or operator or guarantor, is demonstrating financial assurance for the closure or post-closure care of the following facilities through the use of a test equivalent or substantially equivalent to the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates covered by such a test are shown for each facility: ____.
9. This firm is the owner or operator of the following hazardous waste management facilities for which financial assurance for closure or, if a disposal facility, post-closure care, is not demonstrated either to EPA or a State through the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 or equivalent or substantially equivalent State mechanisms. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates not covered by such financial assurance are shown for each facility: ____.
This firm [insert “is required” or “is not required”] to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm’s independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of § 261.143 of this chapter are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of § 261.143(e) of this chapter are used.]
1. Sum of current cost estimates [total of all cost estimates shown in the nine paragraphs above] $____
*2. Total liabilities [if any portion of the cost estimates is included in total liabilities, you may deduct the amount of that portion from this line and add that amount to lines 3 and 4] $____
*3. Tangible net worth $________
*4. Net worth $________-
*5. Current assets $________
*6. Current liabilities $________
7. Net working capital [line 5 minus line 6] $________
*8. The sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization $________-
*9. Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than 90% of firm’s assets are located in the U.S.) $________-
10. Is line 3 at least $10 million? (Yes/No) ________
11. Is line 3 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________-
12. Is line 7 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________-
*13. Are at least 90% of firm’s assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 14 (Yes/No) ________
14. Is line 9 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________-
15. Is line 2 divided by line 4 less than 2.0? (Yes/No) ________-
16. Is line 8 divided by line 2 greater than 0.1? (Yes/No) ________-
17. Is line 5 divided by line 6 greater than 1.5? (Yes/No) ________-
1. Sum of current cost estimates [total of all cost estimates shown in the eight paragraphs above] $________-
2. Current bond rating of most recent issuance of this firm and name of rating service ________-
3. Date of issuance of bond ________-
4. Date of maturity of bond ________-
*5. Tangible net worth [if any portion of the cost estimates is included in “total liabilities” on your firm’s financial statements, you may add the amount of that portion to this line] $________-
*6. Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than 90% of firm’s assets are located in the U.S.) $________-
7. Is line 5 at least $10 million? (Yes/No) ________
8. Is line 5 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________
*9. Are at least 90% of firm’s assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 10 (Yes/No) ________
10. Is line 6 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________-
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(e) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
(f) A letter from the chief financial officer, as specified in Sec. 261.147(f) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
[Address to Regional Administrator of every Region in which facilities for which financial responsibility is to be demonstrated through the financial test are located].
I am the chief financial officer of [firm’s name and address]. This letter is in support of the use of the financial test to demonstrate financial responsibility for liability coverage under § 261.147[insert “and costs assured § 261.143(e)” if applicable] as specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261.
[Fill out the following paragraphs regarding facilities and liability coverage. If there are no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write “None” in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address].
The firm identified above is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences is being demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261:________
The firm identified above guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences at the following facilities owned or operated by the following: ________-. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee -________; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ________-, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ________-]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter.]
The firm identified above is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences is being demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265:________
The firm identified above guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265, liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences at the following facilities owned or operated by the following: ____. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ____; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ____, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ____]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter.]
[If you are using the financial test to demonstrate coverage of both liability and costs assured under § 261.143(e) or closure or post-closure care costs under 40 CFR 264.143, 264.145, 265.143 or 265.145, fill in the following nine paragraphs regarding facilities and associated cost estimates. If there are no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write “None” in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA identification number (if any issued), name, address, and current cost estimates.]
1. This firm is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which financial assurance is demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR 261. The current cost estimates covered by the test are shown for each facility:________.
2. This firm guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, the following facilities owned or operated by the guaranteed party. The current cost estimates so guaranteed are shown for each facility:________. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee________, or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ________, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee________]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter].
3. In States where EPA is not administering the financial requirements of subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, this firm, as owner or operator or guarantor, is demonstrating financial assurance for the following facilities through the use of a test equivalent or substantially equivalent to the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261. The current cost estimates covered by such a test are shown for each facility:________.
4. This firm is the owner or operator of the following hazardous secondary materials management facilities for which financial assurance is not demonstrated either to EPA or a State through the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261 or equivalent or substantially equivalent State mechanisms. The current cost estimates not covered by such financial assurance are shown for each facility:________.
5. This firm is the owner or operator of the following UIC facilities for which financial assurance for plugging and abandonment is required under part 144. The current closure cost estimates as required by 40 CFR 144.62 are shown for each facility:________.
6. This firm is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which financial assurance for closure or post-closure care is demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates covered by the test are shown for each facility: ________.
7. This firm guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265, the closure or post-closure care of the following facilities owned or operated by the guaranteed party. The current cost estimates for the closure or post-closure care so guaranteed are shown for each facility: ________. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ________; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ________, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ________].
[Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter].
8. In States where EPA is not administering the financial requirements of subpart H of 40 CFR part 264 or 265, this firm, as owner or operator or guarantor, is demonstrating financial assurance for the closure or post-closure care of the following facilities through the use of a test equivalent or substantially equivalent to the financial test specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates covered by such a test are shown for each facility: ________.
9. This firm is the owner or operator of the following hazardous waste management facilities for which financial assurance for closure or, if a disposal facility, post-closure care, is not demonstrated either to EPA or a State through the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism specified in subpart H of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 or equivalent or substantially equivalent State mechanisms. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates not covered by such financial assurance are shown for each facility: ________.
This firm [insert “is required” or “is not required”] to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm’s independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of Sec. 261.147 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of Sec. 261.147 are used.]
1. Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated $________-.
*2. Current assets $________-.
*3. Current liabilities $________-.
4. Net working capital (line 2 minus line 3) $________-.
*5. Tangible net worth $________-.
*6. If less than 90% of assets are located in the U.S., give total U.S. assets $________-.
7. Is line 5 at least $10 million? (Yes/No) ________-.
8. Is line 4 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________-.
9. Is line 5 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________-.
*10. Are at least 90% of assets located in the U.S.? (Yes/No) ________. If not, complete line 11.
11. Is line 6 at least 6 times line 1? (Yes/No) ________.
1. Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated $________-.
2. Current bond rating of most recent issuance and name of rating service ________-________-.
3. Date of issuance of bond ________________—.
4. Date of maturity of bond ________________—.
*5. Tangible net worth $________-.
*6. Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than 90% of assets are located in the U.S.) $________-.
7. Is line 5 at least $10 million? (Yes/No) ________-.
8. Is line 5 at least 6 times line 1? ________-.
9. Are at least 90% of assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 10. (Yes/No) ____.
10. Is line 6 at least 6 times line 1? ________-.
[Fill in part B if you are using the financial test to demonstrate assurance of both liability coverage and costs assured under § 261.143(e) or closure or post-closure care costs under 40 CFR 264.143, 264.145, 265.143 or 265.145.]
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraphs (e)(1)(i) of Sec. 261.143 and (f)(1)(i) of Sec. 261.147 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) of Sec. 261.143 and (f)(1)(ii) of Sec. 261.147 are used.]
1. Sum of current cost estimates (total of all cost estimates listed above) $________-
2. Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated $________-
3. Sum of lines 1 and 2 $________
*4. Total liabilities (if any portion of your cost estimates is included in your total liabilities, you may deduct that portion from this line and add that amount to lines 5 and 6) $________-
*5. Tangible net worth $________
*6. Net worth $________-
*7. Current assets $________
*8. Current liabilities $________
9. Net working capital (line 7 minus line 8) $________
*10. The sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization $________-
*11. Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than 90% of assets are located in the U.S.) $________
12. Is line 5 at least $10 million? (Yes/No)
13. Is line 5 at least 6 times line 3? (Yes/No)
14. Is line 9 at least 6 times line 3? (Yes/No)
*15. Are at least 90% of assets located in the U.S.? (Yes/No) If not, complete line 16.
16. Is line 11 at least 6 times line 3? (Yes/No)
17. Is line 4 divided by line 6 less than 2.0? (Yes/No)
18. Is line 10 divided by line 4 greater than 0.1? (Yes/No)
19. Is line 7 divided by line 8 greater than 1.5? (Yes/No)
1. Sum of current cost estimates (total of all cost estimates listed above) $________-
2. Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated $________-
3. Sum of lines 1 and 2 $________
4. Current bond rating of most recent issuance and name of rating service ____________-
5. Date of issuance of bond ____________—
6. Date of maturity of bond ____________—
*7. Tangible net worth (if any portion of the cost estimates is included in “total liabilities” on your financial statements you may add that portion to this line) $________-
*8. Total assets in the U.S. (required only if less than 90% of assets are located in the U.S.) $________-
9. Is line 7 at least $10 million? (Yes/No)
10. Is line 7 at least 6 times line 3? (Yes/No)
*11. Are at least 90% of assets located in the U.S.? (Yes/No) If not complete line 12.
12. Is line 8 at least 6 times line 3? (Yes/No)
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(f) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
(g)(1) A corporate guarantee, as specified in § 261.143(e) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of the State of [insert name of State], herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of the [owner or operator] of [business address], which is [one of the following: “our subsidiary”; “a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], of which guarantor is a subsidiary”; or “an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in 40 CFR 264.141(h) and 265.141(h)” to the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
1. Guarantor meets or exceeds the financial test criteria and agrees to comply with the reporting requirements for guarantors as specified in 40 CFR 261.143(e).
2. [Owner or operator] owns or operates the following facility(ies) covered by this guarantee: [List for each facility: EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address.
3. “Closure plans” as used below refer to the plans maintained as required by subpart H of 40 CFR part 261 for the care of facilities as identified above.
4. For value received from [owner or operator], guarantor guarantees that in the event of a determination by the Regional Administrator that the hazardous secondary materials at the owner or operator’s facility covered by this guarantee do not meet the conditions of the exclusion under § 261.4(a)(24), the guarantor will dispose of any hazardous secondary material as hazardous waste, and close the facility in accordance with closure requirements found in parts 264 or 265 of this chapter, as applicable, or establish a trust fund as specified in § 261.143(a) in the name of the owner or operator in the amount of the current cost estimate.
5. Guarantor agrees that if, at the end of any fiscal year before termination of this guarantee, the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria, guarantor shall send within 90 days, by certified mail, notice to the EPA Regional Administrator(s) for the Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located and to [owner or operator] that he intends to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, as applicable, in the name of [owner or operator]. Within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year, the guarantor shall establish such financial assurance unless [owner or operator] has done so.
6. The guarantor agrees to notify the EPA Regional Administrator by certified mail, of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming guarantor as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding.
7. Guarantor agrees that within 30 days after being notified by an EPA Regional Administrator of a determination that guarantor no longer meets the financial test criteria or that he is disallowed from continuing as a guarantor, he shall establish alternate financial assurance as specified in of 40 CFR parts 264, 265, or subpart H of 40 CFR part 261, as applicable, in the name of [owner or operator] unless [owner or operator] has done so.
8. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee notwithstanding any or all of the following: amendment or modification of the closure plan, the extension or reduction of the time of performance, or any other modification or alteration of an obligation of the owner or operator pursuant to 40 CFR parts 264, 265, or Subpart H of 40 CFR part 261.
9. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee for as long as [owner or operator] must comply with the applicable financial assurance requirements of 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 or the financial assurance condition of 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) for the above-listed facilities, except as provided in paragraph 10 of this agreement.
10. [Insert the following language if the guarantor is (a) a direct or higher-tier corporate parent, or (b) a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by certified mail to the EPA Regional Administrator(s) for the Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located and to [owner or operator], provided that this guarantee may not be terminated unless and until [the owner or operator] obtains, and the EPA Regional Administrator(s) approve(s), alternate coverage complying with 40 CFR 261.143.
[Insert the following language if the guarantor is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator]
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee 120 days following the receipt of notification, through certified mail, by the EPA Regional Administrator(s) for the Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located and by [the owner or operator].
11. Guarantor agrees that if [owner or operator] fails to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in 40 CFR parts 264, 265, or subpart H of 40 CFR 261, as applicable, and obtain written approval of such assurance from the EPA Regional Administrator(s) within 90 days after a notice of cancellation by the guarantor is received by an EPA Regional Administrator from guarantor, guarantor shall provide such alternate financial assurance in the name of [owner or operator].
12. Guarantor expressly waives notice of acceptance of this guarantee by the EPA or by [owner or operator]. Guarantor also expressly waives notice of amendments or modifications of the closure plan and of amendments or modifications of the applicable requirements of 40 CFR parts 264, 265, or subpart H of 40 CFR 261.
I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(g)(1) as such regulations were constituted on the date first above written.
(2) A guarantee, as specified in § 261.147(g), must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of [if incorporated within the United States insert “the State of ___-” and insert name of State; if incorporated outside the United States insert the name of the country in which incorporated, the principal place of business within the United States, and the name and address of the registered agent in the State of the principal place of business], herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of [owner or operator] of [business address], which is one of the following: “our subsidiary;” “a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], of which guarantor is a subsidiary;” or “an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in 40 CFR [either 264.141(h) or 265.141(h)]”, to any and all third parties who have sustained or may sustain bodily injury or property damage caused by [sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences arising from operation of the facility(ies) covered by this guarantee.
1. Guarantor meets or exceeds the financial test criteria and agrees to comply with the reporting requirements for guarantors as specified in 40 CFR 261.147(g).
2. [Owner or operator] owns or operates the following facility(ies) covered by this guarantee: [List for each facility: EPA identification number (if any issued), name, and address; and if guarantor is incorporated outside the United States list the name and address of the guarantor’s registered agent in each State.] This corporate guarantee satisfies RCRA third-party liability requirements for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences in above-named owner or operator facilities for coverage in the amount of [insert dollar amount] for each occurrence and [insert dollar amount] annual aggregate.
3. For value received from [owner or operator], guarantor guarantees to any and all third parties who have sustained or may sustain bodily injury or property damage caused by [sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility(ies) covered by this guarantee that in the event that [owner or operator] fails to satisfy a judgment or award based on a determination of liability for bodily injury or property damage to third parties caused by [sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences, arising from the operation of the above-named facilities, or fails to pay an amount agreed to in settlement of a claim arising from or alleged to arise from such injury or damage, the guarantor will satisfy such judgment(s), award(s) or settlement agreement(s) up to the limits of coverage identified above.
4. Such obligation does not apply to any of the following:
(a) Bodily injury or property damage for which [insert owner or operator] is obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract or agreement. This exclusion does not apply to liability for damages that [insert owner or operator] would be obligated to pay in the absence of the contract or agreement.
(b) Any obligation of [insert owner or operator] under a workers’ compensation, disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or any similar law.
(c) Bodily injury to:
(1) An employee of [insert owner or operator] arising from, and in the course of, employment by [insert owner or operator]; or
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert owner or operator]. This exclusion applies:
(A) Whether [insert owner or operator] may be liable as an employer or in any other capacity; and
(B) To any obligation to share damages with or repay another person who must pay damages because of the injury to persons identified in paragraphs (1) and (2).
(d) Bodily injury or property damage arising out of the ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor vehicle or watercraft.
(e) Property damage to:
(1) Any property owned, rented, or occupied by [insert owner or operator];
(2) Premises that are sold, given away or abandoned by [insert owner or operator] if the property damage arises out of any part of those premises;
(3) Property loaned to [insert owner or operator];
(4) Personal property in the care, custody or control of [insert owner or operator];
(5) That particular part of real property on which [insert owner or operator] or any contractors or subcontractors working directly or indirectly on behalf of [insert owner or operator] are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.
5. Guarantor agrees that if, at the end of any fiscal year before termination of this guarantee, the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria, guarantor shall send within 90 days, by certified mail, notice to the EPA Regional Administrator[s] for the Region[s] in which the facility[ies] is[are] located and to [owner or operator] that he intends to provide alternate liability coverage as specified in 40 CFR 261.147, as applicable, in the name of [owner or operator]. Within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year, the guarantor shall establish such liability coverage unless [owner or operator] has done so.
6. The guarantor agrees to notify the EPA Regional Administrator by certified mail of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming guarantor as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding. Guarantor agrees that within 30 days after being notified by an EPA Regional Administrator of a determination that guarantor no longer meets the financial test criteria or that he is disallowed from continuing as a guarantor, he shall establish alternate liability coverage as specified in 40 CFR 261.147 in the name of [owner or operator], unless [owner or operator] has done so.
7. Guarantor reserves the right to modify this agreement to take into account amendment or modification of the liability requirements set by 40 CFR 261.147, provided that such modification shall become effective only if a Regional Administrator does not disapprove the modification within 30 days of receipt of notification of the modification.
8. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee for so long as [owner or operator] must comply with the applicable requirements of 40 CFR 261.147 for the above-listed facility(ies), except as provided in paragraph 9 of this agreement.
9. [Insert the following language if the guarantor is (a) a direct or higher-tier corporate parent, or (b) a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by certified mail to the EPA Regional Administrator(s) for the Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located and to [owner or operator], provided that this guarantee may not be terminated unless and until [the owner or operator] obtains, and the EPA Regional Administrator(s) approve(s), alternate liability coverage complying with 40 CFR 261.147.
[Insert the following language if the guarantor is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee 120 days following receipt of notification, through certified mail, by the EPA Regional Administrator(s) for the Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located and by [the owner or operator].
10. Guarantor hereby expressly waives notice of acceptance of this guarantee by any party.
11. Guarantor agrees that this guarantee is in addition to and does not affect any other responsibility or liability of the guarantor with respect to the covered facilities.
12. The Guarantor shall satisfy a third-party liability claim only on receipt of one of the following documents:
(a) Certification from the Principal and the third-party claimant(s) that the liability claim should be paid. The certification must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
The undersigned, as parties [insert Principal] and [insert name and address of third-party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Principal’s] facility should be paid in the amount of $.
(b) A valid final court order establishing a judgment against the Principal for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the Principal’s facility or group of facilities.
13. In the event of combination of this guarantee with another mechanism to meet liability requirements, this guarantee will be considered [insert “primary” or “excess”] coverage.
I hereby certify that the wording of the guarantee is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(g)(2) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
(h) A hazardous waste facility liability endorsement as required § 261.147 must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
1. This endorsement certifies that the policy to which the endorsement is attached provides liability insurance covering bodily injury and property damage in connection with the insured’s obligation to demonstrate financial responsibility under 40 CFR 261.147. The coverage applies at [list EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address for each facility] for [insert “sudden accidental occurrences,” “nonsudden accidental occurrences,” or “sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences”; if coverage is for multiple facilities and the coverage is different for different facilities, indicate which facilities are insured for sudden accidental occurrences, which are insured for nonsudden accidental occurrences, and which are insured for both]. The limits of liability are [insert the dollar amount of the “each occurrence” and “annual aggregate” limits of the Insurer’s liability], exclusive of legal defense costs.
2. The insurance afforded with respect to such occurrences is subject to all of the terms and conditions of the policy; provided, however, that any provisions of the policy inconsistent with subsections (a) through (e) of this Paragraph 2 are hereby amended to conform with subsections (a) through (e):
(a) Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured shall not relieve the Insurer of its obligations under the policy to which this endorsement is attached.
(b) The Insurer is liable for the payment of amounts within any deductible applicable to the policy, with a right of reimbursement by the insured for any such payment made by the Insurer. This provision does not apply with respect to that amount of any deductible for which coverage is demonstrated as specified in 40 CFR 261.147(f).
(c) Whenever requested by a Regional Administrator of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Insurer agrees to furnish to the Regional Administrator a signed duplicate original of the policy and all endorsements.
(d) Cancellation of this endorsement, whether by the Insurer, the insured, a parent corporation providing insurance coverage for its subsidiary, or by a firm having an insurable interest in and obtaining liability insurance on behalf of the owner or operator of the facility, will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of 60 days after a copy of such written notice is received by the Regional Administrator(s) of the EPA Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located.
(e) Any other termination of this endorsement will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of thirty (30) days after a copy of such written notice is received by the Regional Administrator(s) of the EPA Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is (are) located.
Attached to and forming part of policy No. ____ issued by [name of Insurer], herein called the Insurer, of [address of Insurer] to [name of insured] of [address] this ________________ day of ________________, 19____. The effective date of said policy is ________________ day of ________________, 19____.
I hereby certify that the wording of this endorsement is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(h) as such regulation was constituted on the date first above written, and that the Insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more States.
(i) A certificate of liability insurance as required in § 261.147 must be worded as follows, except that the instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
1. [Name of Insurer], (the “Insurer”), of [address of Insurer] hereby certifies that it has issued liability insurance covering bodily injury and property damage to [name of insured], (the “insured”), of [address of insured] in connection with the insured’s obligation to demonstrate financial responsibility under 40 CFR parts 264, 265, and the financial assurance condition of 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F). The coverage applies at [list EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address for each facility] for [insert “sudden accidental occurrences,” “nonsudden accidental occurrences,” or “sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences”; if coverage is for multiple facilities and the coverage is different for different facilities, indicate which facilities are insured for sudden accidental occurrences, which are insured for nonsudden accidental occurrences, and which are insured for both]. The limits of liability are [insert the dollar amount of the “each occurrence” and “annual aggregate” limits of the Insurer’s liability], exclusive of legal defense costs. The coverage is provided under policy number, issued on [date]. The effective date of said policy is [date].
2. The Insurer further certifies the following with respect to the insurance described in Paragraph 1:
(a) Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured shall not relieve the Insurer of its obligations under the policy.
(b) The Insurer is liable for the payment of amounts within any deductible applicable to the policy, with a right of reimbursement by the insured for any such payment made by the Insurer. This provision does not apply with respect to that amount of any deductible for which coverage is demonstrated as specified in 40 CFR 261.147.
(c) Whenever requested by a Regional Administrator of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Insurer agrees to furnish to the Regional Administrator a signed duplicate original of the policy and all endorsements.
(d) Cancellation of the insurance, whether by the insurer, the insured, a parent corporation providing insurance coverage for its subsidiary, or by a firm having an insurable interest in and obtaining liability insurance on behalf of the owner or operator of the hazardous waste management facility, will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of 60 days after a copy of such written notice is received by the Regional Administrator(s) of the EPA Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is(are) located.
(e) Any other termination of the insurance will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of thirty (30) days after a copy of such written notice is received by the Regional Administrator(s) of the EPA Region(s) in which the facility(ies) is (are) located.
(j) A letter of credit, as specified in § 261.147(h) of this chapter, must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Dear Sir or Madam: We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No. ________—– in the favor of [”any and all third-party liability claimants” or insert name of trustee of the standby trust fund], at the request and for the account of [owner or operator’s name and address] for third-party liability awards or settlements up to [in words] U.S. dollars $________—– per occurrence and the annual aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $__—, for sudden accidental occurrences and/or for third-party liability awards or settlements up to the amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $________—– per occurrence, and the annual aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $________—–, for nonsudden accidental occurrences available upon presentation of a sight draft bearing reference to this letter of credit No. ________—–, and [insert the following language if the letter of credit is being used without a standby trust fund: (1) a signed certificate reading as follows:
The undersigned, as parties [insert principal] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operations of [principal’s] facility should be paid in the amount of $[ ]. We hereby certify that the claim does not apply to any of the following:
(a) Bodily injury or property damage for which [insert principal] is obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract or agreement. This exclusion does not apply to liability for damages that [insert principal] would be obligated to pay in the absence of the contract or agreement.
(b) Any obligation of [insert principal] under a workers’ compensation, disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or any similar law.
(c) Bodily injury to:
(1) An employee of [insert principal] arising from, and in the course of, employment by [insert principal]; or
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert principal].
This exclusion applies:
(A) Whether [insert principal] may be liable as an employer or in any other capacity; and
(B) To any obligation to share damages with or repay another person who must pay damages because of the injury to persons identified in paragraphs (1) and (2).
(d) Bodily injury or property damage arising out of the ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor vehicle or watercraft.
(e) Property damage to:
(1) Any property owned, rented, or occupied by [insert principal];
(2) Premises that are sold, given away or abandoned by [insert principal] if the property damage arises out of any part of those premises;
(3) Property loaned to [insert principal];
(4) Personal property in the care, custody or control of [insert principal];
(5) That particular part of real property on which [insert principal] or any contractors or subcontractors working directly or indirectly on behalf of [insert principal] are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least one year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least one year] on [date and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, we notify you, the USEPA Regional Administrator for Region [Region], and [owner’s or operator’s name] by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such draft upon presentation to us.
[Insert the following language if a standby trust fund is not being used: “In the event that this letter of credit is used in combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, this letter of credit shall be considered [insert “primary” or “excess” coverage].”
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 261.151(j) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. [Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing institution] [Date].
This credit is subject to [insert “the most recent edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce,” or “the Uniform Commercial Code”].
(k) A surety bond, as specified in Sec. 261.147(i) of this chapter, must be worded as follows: except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Parties [Insert name and address of owner or operator], Principal, incorporated in [Insert State of incorporation] of [Insert city and State of principal place of business] and [Insert name and address of surety company(ies)], Surety Company(ies), of [Insert surety(ies) place of business].
EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address for each facility guaranteed by this bond: ____
Penal Sum Per Occurrence | [insert amount] | [insert amount] |
Annual Aggregate | [insert amount] | [insert amount] |
Purpose: This is an agreement between the Surety(ies) and the Principal under which the Surety(ies), its(their) successors and assignees, agree to be responsible for the payment of claims against the Principal for bodily injury and/or property damage to third parties caused by [“sudden” and/or “nonsudden”] accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities in the sums prescribed herein; subject to the governing provisions and th